Answer:
The answer is D
Explanation:
Logical positivism is equated to neopositivism; it is a philosophical approach based on the verification principle. The verification principle is a principle of knowledge established on the facts that only statements verifiable through direct observation or logical proofs are acceptable and meaningful.
Answer:d
Explanation:
A thoracic motion segment contains the fibrous joint between the intervertebral disc and vertebral bodies, 2 intervertebral facet joints, 4 costo-vertebral facet joints, 2 costo-transverse facet joints, the ligaments of those joints.A.True
B.False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The thoracic spine is the second segment of the vertebral column, located between the cervical and lumbar vertebral segments. It consists of twelve vertebrae, which are separated by intervertebral discs.
Along with the sternum and ribs, the thoracic spine forms part of the thoracic cage. This bony structure helps protect the internal viscera – such as the heart, lungs and oesophagus.
This article will look at the osteology of the thoracic vertebrae, examining their characteristic features, joints and clinical correlations.
Sergei Winogradsky Choose one: A. identified microbes using biotechnology. B. developed a pure culturing system using agar. C. discovered microbial fermentation. D. discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments.
Answer:
D. discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments.
Explanation:
Sergei Winogradsky is a Microbiologist, an Ecologist and a soil scientist from Russia who discovered chemolithotrophy mode of nutrition while studying a particular genus of bacteria.
He found that the bacteria genus had the ability to oxidize hydrogen sulfide with deposition of sulfur.
describe the 4 major subtypes of beta lactam antibiotics.
Answer
Better lactam antibiotics are antibiotics used in treatment of of severe infection caused by Bacteria.
Beta lactam antibiotics contain beta lactam ring in their molecular structure.
The major subtypes of Beta lactam antibiotics include : Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactams and carbapenems.
Explanation:
Penicillin : 1) Bind to Penicillin binding sites (PBS)
2) they are vulnerable to The enzyme penicillinase and other b-lactamase
3 ) Penicillin occurs naturally and can also be synthesized
Cephalosporins : 1) they also bind to Penicillin binding sites too
2) just like penicillin, they are vulnerable to B-LACTAMASE, unlike penicillin, they are not vulnerable to penicillinase
Monobactams:
1) binds only to PBP3 but binds weakly to other BPPs
2) is resistant to B-LACTAMASE but is inactivated by ESBLs (Extended spectrum Beta lactamASE ).
Carbapenems :
1) They bind PBPs of most bacteria
2) they are resistant to most B- Lactamase
Ichthyostega is a 370-million-year-old fossil from Greenland. Ichthyostega had digits, eyes on the top of its head, and strong, armlike bones. It also had no gills and a reduced tail—traits it had in common with Tulerpeton. Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik all had gills and full tails. Use the abbreviations provided to draw a phylogenetic tree that includes Ichthyostega.
Ichthyostega and Tulerpeton, sharing common traits, are closely related and would be placed together on a branch of a phylogenetic tree. Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik, sharing different traits, would be grouped on another branch.
Explanation:The phylogenetic tree traces the evolutionary relationships of different species. The information provided implies that Ichthyostega, Tulerpeton, Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik are distinct species that can be represented on a phylogenetic tree.
Based on their shared traits, we can hypothesize that Ichthyostega and Tulerpeton are more closely related to each other than either is to Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, or Tiktaalik. Thus, Ichthyostega and Tulerpeton would be placed together on a branch of the phylogenetic tree, with a shared ancestor. Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik, if they share common traits, would be grouped together on another branch of the tree.
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You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the ring of 9 2 microtubule filament pattern. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a __________.A) radiolarians B) slime molds C) ciliates D) kinetoplastids E) foraminiferans
Answer:
This organism is most likely to be a ciliates.
Explanation:
Ciliates are small unicellular protozoans that contain hair like ciliated projection, called cilia.
They contain 2 different types of nucleus, one is called diploid micro nuclei, that are responsible for carrying germ line of a cell and another one is poliploid macro nuclei that helps to control cell regulation and expression of phenotype of the organism.
Clilates are motile and contain one or more prominent contractile vacuole where they store the food.
The axoneme contain 9 ring like outer doublets and 2 centrally located singlet microtubules, (9+2 axoneme)
The unidentified organism is most likely a ciliate, a heterotrophic unicellular organism, distinguished by well-developed organelles, two nuclei, and use of cilia for motility.
Explanation:The organism you are trying to identify is most likely a "ciliate." Ciliates are a type of unicellular (single-celled) protozoan under the phylum Ciliophora. They are characterized as heterotrophic (meaning they can't make their own food and therefore feed on organic substances), have well-developed organelles, and are known to have two types of nuclei - a single large macronucleus and one or more small micronuclei. Your description of the organism's motility (movement), specifically its use of short extensions of the cytoplasm with a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules, also aligns with ciliates because these are the characteristics of Cilia which are its mode of locomotion.
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Compare and contrast water sustainability practices in named drought area vs water-rich examples.
In simple terms, water can be defined as it is in the form of a liquid state and it is colorless and transparent and it is the basic and important needs for all the living organisms
Explanation:
Drought Area:Probably the drought water can be defined as the lack of water supply and the due to the rainfall shortage it results in drought and it will leads to the water scarcity problemEffects of drought:
And the effects of drought are listed below,
Economic effects- Economic effects in the sense, farmers will suffer a lot due to the water scarcity for their irrigation and the pieces of stuffSocial effects - Social effects in the sense, due to the drought people living in the drought region will suffer from drinking water issuesEnvironmental effects - Environmental effects in the sense, it determines the habitats especially in the forest region and it affects the soil moisture and the soil moisture will lead to issues2.Water-rich:
Water-rich can be stated as the clean and quality of water provided to all the living organisms for their basic and necessary needs
Merits:
Countries like Canada, United States, Brazil, and China have a tremendous amount of water and these countries come under water-rich countriesWater-rich countries have a proper distribution of water supplyLess chance for drought and water scarcity problemsBack-up of water is more and comfortableAnd the quality of ground water supply is higher compared to drought affected areasIn a study of genetic variation of the Graceland gene, a researcher finds that there are two alleles in a population. In a large sample (500 individuals), the frequency of heterozygotes is 0.63. Is the population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 1. No. The highest frequency of heterozygotes under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 0.5.2. No. The frequency of each genotype would be equal if the population were in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.3. No. The frequency of heterozygotes would be 1 if the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. No. There would be no heterozygotes if the population were in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer:
Option 1, No. The highest frequency of heterozygotes under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 0.5
Explanation:
As per Hardy Weinberg’s equilibrium principle, the maximum frequency of heterozytotic individuals occur only when half of the population is dominant and recessive homozygous.
In other way when the sum of frequency of dominant and recessive species is equal to 0.5, only then the frequency of heterozygotes is maximum which in any case would not be higher than 0.5.
Hence, option 1 is correct
A young adult college student begins to throw objects, shout insults, and stamp his feet after an instructor returned work, noting that it was substandard. Using Erikson's theory of personality development, which developmental stage has this individual been unsuccessful in mastering? 1. Initiative versus guilt 2. Industry versus inferiority 3. Identity versus role confusion 4. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
Answer:
Option 4. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt is correct answer.
Explanation:
Erik Erickson presented theory of personality development which is very popular and acceptable. He divided his theory into 8 sages each having 2 components. I have attached an info graph explaining clearly each stage.
Eukaryotes that are not closely related and that do not share many anatomical similarities can still be placed together on the same phylogenetic tree by comparing their ______.
A. homologous genes that are highly conserved
B. homologous genes that are poorly conserved
C. mitochondrial genomes
D. plasmids
Answer:
Homologous genes that are highly conserved.
Explanation:
Phylogenetic trees are diagrams that represent evolutionary relationship between organisms.
It is set to represent the hypothesis that a set of species evolved fro the same ancestor.
Anatomical similarities are considered in the construction of the trees.
However , two organisms can be placed in the same tree by comparing their genes.
If the two eukaryotes have genes that are highly conserved that similar.
Roger has been lifting weights seriously for years. His twin brother Steven does not exercise regularly. Which of the following statements would be a reasonable hypothesis to make regarding differences between their skeletons?a. stevens hydroxyapatite combination is less than roger'sb. roger's skeleton underdoes less osteolysis than steven'sc. roger's osteoblasts are more active than steven'sd. all of the listed responses are correct
Answer:
a. stevens hydroxyapatite combination is less than roger's
b. roger's skeleton undergoes less osteolysis than steven's
c. roger's osteoblasts are more active than steven's
Explanation:
The hydroxyapatite combination includes the minerals of the apatite group like calcium apatite. As the exercise enhances the bone stability and prevents it's deformity thus the hydroxyapatite or mineral density is expected to be higher in Roger than Stevens.
The osteolysis is the pathological destruction of the bone tissues. As Roger does regular exercise he is expected to have achieved more immunity over Stevens. Thus Roger is prevented from oesteolysis.
The osteoblasts are the cells that secrete matrix for bone synthesis as the exercise is responsible for strengthening the bone the osteoblasts in person who do regular exercise are expected to be more active. Thus Roger's osteoblasts are more active then Steven's.
Final answer:
Roger's regular weight-lifting likely results in more active osteoblasts compared to his sedentary twin Steven, which would contribute to a denser and stronger skeleton. This is consistent with the understanding that resistance training increases bone density and strength.
Explanation:
The question concerns the impact of physical activity on skeletal health. When comparing Roger, who lifts weights regularly, to his twin brother Steven, who is not as active, one can hypothesize that Roger's osteoblasts are more active due to the stimulus provided by regular resistance training. This increased activity promotes the deposition of bone tissue, which can lead to a denser and stronger skeleton in Roger compared to Steven.
Therefore, the most reasonable hypothesis from the given options is c. Roger's osteoblasts are more active than Steven's. This is consistent with the idea that regular weight-bearing exercise, like lifting weights, stimulates bone growth and density, a process that is less pronounced in sedentary individuals.
Furthermore, consistent with the hypotheses presented, a right-handed pitcher and a right-handed cyclist will likely have thicker bones in their dominant arm and leg respectively, and a broken bone typically heals to be thicker. In contrast, bedridden patients may experience bone thinning due to lack of activity.
In the Gross Anatomy of Muscle Lab Manual, the triceps brachii is considered what in the action of the extension of an elbow?
Answer:
prime mover or agonist
Explanation:
The triceps muscles are responsible for performing the action on one side of the joint and hence they are termed as agonist while on the other hand the muscle which opposes this action is called an antagonist.
During elbow flexion, triceps causes the action by contracting and hence it acts as agonist. This muscle lies on the posterior side of Humerus and work as a third class lever.
Answer:
The correct answer is - agonist.
Explanation:
The triceps brachii is considered antagonist and agonist according to the action it perform at particular muscle action. The antagonist action is due to the presence on the opposite end of the the elbow joint and can restrict the elbow flexion.
If the case is about the active elbow extension as asked in the provided question it is agonist due to the support of action of the extension.
Thus, the correct answer is - agonist.
1. __________ Completing tasks with correctness and attention to detail
2. ____________ A trait that results in complete, neat, and correct tasks
3. ____________ Sensitivity to other people's feelings and situations
4. ____________ A trait characterized by working independently and offering to help others
5. ____________ Recognition given by associations that an individual has met high standards and has demonstrated competency in given knowledge and tasks
6. ____________ Provides certification opportunities for medical transcriptionists
7. ____________ Believing that one's own race, ethnic group, and/or culture is superior to all other groups
8. ____________ The ability to speak and act considerately in various situations
9. ____________ Logically and systematically planning steps to accomplish a task
10. ____________ Finishing tasks on schedule, without complaining, and offering to assist others
Answer:
1. Accuracy
2. thoroughness
3. empathy
4. initiative
5. certification
6. AHDI (Association for Healthcare Documentation Integrity)
7. ethnocentrism
8. tact
9. problem-solving
10. dependability
Explanation:
1. Accuracy is the efficiency to complete a work with due diligence and micro checks at individual level
2. thoroughness is the ability to complete a work with accuracy, neatness and on time
3. empathy is the emotional intelligence that leads to sensing of others’ problem and situation
4. initiative is the first action taken by an individual on his/her own to change some thing
5. certification is the proof of excellence in any work.
6. AHDI (Association for Healthcare Documentation Integrity) is an association that provides medical certification
7. Ethnocentrism is the centric thought process of considering oneself greater than all in terms of social differences such as caste , creed, color etc
8. Tact is an aspect of an individual’s behaviour to act and speak efficiently irrespective of place, people and situation
9. problem-solving skill allows one to solve a problem strategically and step by step
10. dependability is the behavioral aspect of a person that makes him/her reliable and trustworthy
The student's question addresses personality traits, with a focus on conscientiousness, as defined by the Five Factor Model. Answers include conscientiousness, perfectionistic, agreeableness, and more, all of which relate to behaviors or characteristics associated with high conscientiousness.
Explanation:The student's question appears to be related to the study of personality traits, specifically the conscientiousness dimension from the Five Factor Model of personality. Here are the answers to the blanks based on the information provided:
Conscientiousness - Completing tasks with correctness and attention to detailPerfectionistic - A trait that results in complete, neat, and correct tasksAgreeableness - Sensitivity to other people's feelings and situationsSelf-discipline - A trait characterized by working independently and offering to help othersCertification - Recognition given by associations that an individual has met high standards and has demonstrated competency in given knowledge and tasksCannot be determined from the provided information - Provides certification opportunities for medical transcriptionistsEthnocentrism - Believing that one's own race, ethnic group, and/or culture is superior to all other groupsTactfulness - The ability to speak and act considerately in various situationsOrganized - Logically and systematically planning steps to accomplish a taskReliable - Finishing tasks on schedule, without complaining, and offering to assist others
During knee extension, the shank (i.e., the segment between the ankle and the knee) undergoes what type of motion?
Answer:
The answer is angular.
Explanation:
The shank in humans, which is the body part between the ankle and the knee joint, is made up of distinct parts such as Tibia, Soleus Muscle, Gastrocnemius Muscle, The Achilles Tendon etc. and during the act of extending the knee in either direction, the shank undergoes an angular motion with the rest of the leg.
I hope this answer helps.
Which is the strip of brain matter near the front of the parietal lobe that is involved in receiving information from the senses?
Answer:
Somatosensory cortex strip
Explanation:
The parietal lobe is the lobe of the brain preset just behind the frontal lobe and is involved in the sensory perception.
The sensory perception in parietal lobe takes place in the somatosensory cortex which receives the signals from the senses.
The somatosensory cortex is organised in a similar spatial arrangement in the brain as in the body and forms a strip of the sensory cortex.
Thus, Somatosensory cortex strip is the correct answer.
If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development?
Answer:
Option A, a drug to treat high blood pressure that reversibly inhibits an enzyme catalyzing production of a chemical that causes blood vessels to contract
Explanation:
The complete question is
If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development?
a) a drug to treat high blood pressure that reversibly inhibits an enzyme catalyzing production of a chemical that causes blood vessels to contract
b) a drug to treat diabetes that irreversibly inhibits an enzyme in the metabolic pathway to synthesize glucose
c) a compound that acts as a competitive inhibitor for a digestive enzyme produced only in the presence of certain foods
d) a compound that inhibits enzymes by significantly changing the ph throughout the body
Solution
Productive avenue of a drug simply means producing an drug that not only treats the main disease or disorder but also functions to inhibit the causative agent activity. In case of option A, both the objectives of producing drug are met and hence it is the right choice.
High blood pressure usually affects the blood vessels by narrowing them and in severe cases may rupture them. If a drug as stated in option A is produced, it will not only rectify the effects of high blood pressure but will also prevent the blood vessels from narrowing by inhibiting the activity of enzymes responsible for producing chemical that leads to blood vessel contraction.
Hence, option A is correct
Final answer:
In drug development, focusing on selective enzyme inhibitors and reversible enzyme inhibitors offers promising avenues due to their specificity, safety, and potential in treating a wide array of diseases by targeting specific metabolic pathways.
Explanation:
If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development? In the realm of drug development, focusing on enzyme inhibitors is a strategic approach due to their potential in treating a variety of diseases by targeting specific metabolic pathways. The key to selecting a productive enzyme inhibitor for drug development lies in understanding the enzyme's role in the human body, its relationship to diseases, and the specificity and safety of the inhibitor.
One highly promising avenue for drug development involves selective enzyme inhibitors. These are molecules designed to specifically inhibit the action of an enzyme that plays a critical role in the disease process without affecting other enzymes. This specificity is crucial for minimizing side effects and maximizing therapeutic efficacy. Examples include inhibitors targeting enzymes involved in cancer cell growth and proliferation, such as tyrosine kinase inhibitors used in certain types of cancer treatment.
Another productive path could be the development of reversible enzyme inhibitors, which temporarily inhibit enzyme action. This approach is valuable in conditions where a temporary modulation of enzyme activity is desired, providing a way to finely control physiological responses with potential applications in a wide array of diseases including hypertension, diabetes, and neurological disorders.
Ultimately, the choice of enzyme inhibitor depends on the disease target, the enzyme's biological importance, the inhibitor's selectivity, and its pharmacokinetic properties. Drug discovery teams must continually assess these factors to identify and develop the most effective and safe therapeutic agents.
________ are molecules that form the core structure of cell membranes and micelles.
A) Phospholipids
B) Triglycerides
C) Steroids
D) Saturated fatty acids
E) Eicosanoids
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Phospholipids are the molecules that form the core structure of cell membranes and micelles due to their unique hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties.
Explanation:Phospholipids are the molecules that form the core structure of cell membranes and micelles. Phospholipids consist of a glycerol molecule, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group. The fatty acid chains are hydrophobic (water-repelling) and face inwards, inside the boundary, forming a hydrophobic core, while the phosphate group is hydrophilic (water-attracting) and faces outside, towards the water environment. This 'lipid bilayer' structure is integral to forming cell membranes, and is also what allows micelles (small lipid molecules that are arranged in a spherical form in aqueous solutions) to form.
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When helping a choking child, you should give ________. a. CPR b. Compressions c. Thrusts into the abdomen d. None of the above
Answer: The answer is C. Thrusts into the abdomen
Explanation: When a child is choking, it means an object is stuck in the trachea of that child. To help that child, wrap your arms around the child's waist above belly button while backing you and then pull inward and upward; thrusting up to five times. This will help to
squeeze the air out of the lungs and may dislodge the objects.
Also, you can give up to five blows at the back in between the shoulder blades. This help to create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway and consequently, dislodge the object.
This group of questions consists of five lettered headings followed by a list of phrases or sentences. For each phrase or sentence, select the one heading to which it is most closely related. Each heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all. This group of questions refers to the following enzymes. (A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Restriction enzyme (E) Reverse transcriptase Enzyme used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other
Answer:
A (DNA LIGASE)
Explanation:
Replication of DNA cannot occur without certain enzymes with varying functions. After unwinding of the DNA double-strand by helicase enzyme, DNA polymerase attaches itself and starts adding nucleotides, however, DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the 5'-3' direction. Since the separated strands run in an anti-parallel manner i.e. one runs from 5'-3' while the other from 3'-5'.
Nucleotides are continuously added to the leading strand (runs from 5'-3') since that is the normal direction of synthesis by DNA polymerase but because of the 3'-5' direction of the lagging strand, nucleotides are added in small fragments called OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS. As the polymerase acts on the leading strand, these okazaki fragments are made on the opposite strand (lagging strand).
An enzyme called DNA LIGASE is responsible for attaching from end to end, the small okazaki fragments on the lagging strand to one another.
DNA Ligase is the enzyme that connects Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, preserving the genetic information carried in the DNA.
Explanation:The enzyme responsible for connecting Okazaki fragments during DNA replication is DNA ligase. DNA ligase performs a critical task during replication, it seals the gaps between these Okazaki fragments to create one continuous DNA strand. This action maintains the integrity and continuity of the new DNA strands being synthesized, which is crucial for preserving the genetic information carried in the DNA.
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Pinker (1997) and others have demonstrated that humans display an adaptive predisposition to make order out of disorder and sense out of nonsense. This tendency can account for __________.a. reliance on confirmation bias.
b. skepticism.c. the popularity of pseudoscience
d. belief perseverance.
Answer:
the answer is d
Explanation:
Cici has a colorblind father. Her mother is not colorblind and does not carry a gene for color blindness. What are the chances that she will be colorblind?
Answer:
The Genotype: Cc
Explanation:
On a punnet square if the dad carries the gene as a homozygous dominant trait that the would make his genotype: CC
For the mother, she would have hers as cc which would mean that the probability of her being colorblind is 1/2 so she would not be color blind
According to Engelhardt, the phenomenon of bioethics should be understood as a late-modern intellectual undertaking that is about to "go aground on the reefs of postmodernity."A. TrueB. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The bioethics can be defined as the ethical issues emerging from the advances in the biology and medicines.
It is concerned about the ethical questions that arises while performing any experiment. This is necessary to have a look on the experiments which is going to happen.
There are many types of research work going among life sciences, biotechnology. According to Engelhardt the phenomenon of the bioethics can be understood as modern intellectual undertaking the reefs of post modernity.
Final answer:
False, Bioethics is not about to 'go aground on the reefs of postmodernity' as stated by Engelhardt, emphasizing its importance in ethical considerations concerning advances in biology, technology, and medicine.
Explanation:
False
The statement is False. The phenomenon of bioethics, as described by Engelhardt, is not about to 'go aground on the reefs of postmodernity.' Bioethics is a field that studies ethical issues emerging from advances in biology, technology, and medicine, examining controversies such as abortion, euthanasia, and clinical trials.
Engelhardt's view highlights the importance of understanding bioethics within the context of scientific developments and societal considerations, emphasizing the ongoing nature of ethical debates in areas like environmental ethics and business ethics.
Sensory receptors adjust their response rates on the basis of the average amount of stimuli received, resulting in _____.
Answer: Sensory adaptation
Explanation:
Sensory adaptation is the process whereby sensory receptors adjust their response rates on the basis of the average amount of stimuli received. Sensory adaptation refers to the decrease in sensitivity to a stimulus after continuous exposure to it. Depending on the stimulus, receptors may increase or decrease their ability to respond, and will develop an enhanced or diminished sensitivity to the stimulus. This can occur with all of our basic five senses: sight, hearing, smell, touch and taste.
"Which of the following central nervous system cells regulate ions, regulate the uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier?
A. microglia
B. neuroglia
C. oligodendrocytes
D. astrocytes"
Answer:D. astrocytes
Explanation:
glial cell are any of several types of cell that function primarily to support neurons its divided into four groups namely oligodendrocytes,
astrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells. The astrocytes plays a key role in regulating ions, uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier.
When asked to remember life events, vivid memories from which age range are most likely to be reported?
Answer:
Ages that come five years from the age the person is now.
Explanation:
Ages that come five years from the age the person is now have more vivid memories in people.
For example, if the person has 20 years, he would remeber more cleary from when he was 15 years old to his current age.
This is because the brain retains more information from the previews experiences, having all that memories more vivid.
This happens in any age.
Answer:
10 to 30 years
Explanation:
Studies have shown that adults, the period from 10 to 30 years of age produces reminder of the most accounts of life, the clear and intense memories, and the most important memories.
The baby is actually pushed out and delivered in the _____ stage of labor. Question 2 choices Choice A.,first Choice B.,second Choice C.,third Choice D.,transition
Answer: Option B) Second
The baby is actually pushed out and delivered in the second stage of labour.
Explanation:
Of the three stages of labour during pregnancy, the second stage involves the release of the baby through the birth canal. it is during this stage that the baby is actually seen in flesh and can be carried by the birth attendants present.
A - DNA as the inheritance materials B - RNA as the inheritance materials C - The formation of organic molecules, e.g. nucleic acids, from inorganic precursors
EXPLANATION:
There are 2 types of nucleic acids: DNA(deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA(ribonucleic acid).
Living organisms have their genetic material in their DNA. Viruses use RNA as their genetic material but are usually called non-living things( because they can't reproduce without help from a host).
The function of nucleic acids has a progression from DNA to RNA to proteins. This is called the central dogma of molecular biology.
Nucleic acids are formed by a linkage of polynucleotide chains with phosphodiester bonds. These polynucleotide chains are formed from monomers called NUCLEOTIDES.
A nucleotide is made up of 3 parts:
i) a nitrogenous base
ii) a five-carbon sugar
iii) at least one phosphate group.
Answer and Explanation:
DNA as the inheritance materials
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase state the DNA as genetic material. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the natural substance in humans and all other organisms. Every cell in a person's body contains the same DNA. Chromosomes are made up of nucleic acids and proteins and are called hereditary vehicles. ... DNA (deoxyribose nucleic acid) has been found to contain genetic material in all organisms.
RNA as the inheritance materials
• Wandell Stanley, in 1935 proved RNA as genetic material. RNA in humans does not act as genetic material but plays various other roles such as adapters, enzymes, helps in protein synthesis, etc. RNA functions as a messenger for the information to be transferred. The genetic material of organisms and many viruses is DNA. However, some viruses use an alternative type of nucleic acid, ribonucleic acid (RNA), as genetic material. ... RNA has excellent abilities as a genetic molecule; once has to continue the process of hereditary itself.
Nucleic acids
• First, nucleotide are activated, nucleic acid precursors. As such, they are needed for genome replication and transcription of genetic information into RNA. Second, the adenine nucleotide, ATP, is a universal energy currency. Nucleic acids are formed when nucleotide combine through phosphodiester bonds between 5 'and 3' carbon atoms.
Hiking along a remote trail, Chen surprises a mother bear with her cubs. Chen's pupils dilate, his breathing rate increases, and his heart rate soars. Which part of the nervous system is MOST involved in this process?
Answer:
the sympathetic division of autonomic nervous system.
Explanation:
When the person experiences any stress or emergency conditions, the sympathetic division is activated. It triggers the release of stress hormones from the adrenal medulla. There is a series of physiological events called flight or fight response. It includes an increased breathing rate and increased heart rate to supply the extra oxygen as required under these conditions. The blood vessels supplying the blood to skeletal muscles are dilated and the pupils are dilated. All these responses prepare the person for emergency conditions such as facing a wild animal.
Final answer:
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for Chen's fight-or-flight response, preparing his body to confront or escape the threat posed by the bear.
Explanation:
When Chen surprises a mother bear with her cubs and experiences a rapid physiological reaction, the part of the nervous system most involved in this process is the sympathetic nervous system. This system is activated during high-arousal, stressful situations and is responsible for the fight-or-flight response, preparing the body to either face a threat or escape to safety. The release of adrenaline and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) from the adrenal glands leads to a series of changes: pupil dilation, increased heart and breathing rates, perspiration, and tensing of muscles. The sympathetic nervous system effectively tells the body to "go, go, go," enabling rapid response to the perceived danger.
describe a test to assess the function of the olfactory nerve. why are we not doing that in our lab?
Answer:
The olfactory nerve is involved in conveying the sensory information of the smell. This is the first cranial nerve of the body. This nerve enter in the brain cribriform plate.
The function of the olfactory nerve can be tested by closing the eye of the individual and tell them to close their one nostril. The sample for smelling is put their nose and tell them to tell about the smell of object. This test is further repeated with the second nostril. If the individual identifies the correct smell, it means his olfactory nerve is working properly. This test cannot be done in the lab due to the hygiene problem and some substance can be allergic for the different individual.
Answer: The olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve which conveys the sensory information related to the smell.
The receptors are nasal mucosa and forebrain. The test to access the function of olfactory nerve has to be performed at a place which is free from any type of smell.
It should be clean and free from any type of smell. In this case the person is taken to a place which is clean and dry.
He is told that the test is being performed on him. He is being exposed to different smells such as vanilla, lemon which is not that strong.
Then person has to recognize the smell of different flavors if he is able to recognize the smell correctly then his olfactory is working correctly.
18. The minimum average kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance occurs at which
temperature?
A. -273 K
B. OK
C. 0°c
D. 273 c
A. -273 K
Explanation:
The minimum average kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance occurs at the temperature of -273K.
This is the lowest of the given temperatures.
Average kinetic energy of the molecules of substances is directly proportional to their temperature. The lower the temperature of a body, the lower their average kinetic energy. Increasing temperature leads to more kinetic energy between molecules. Since -273K is the lowest temperature, then it shows the minimum average kinetic energy of the molecules.learn more:
Kinetic molecular theory https://brainly.com/question/12362857
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the answer i got for this question was wrong the right answer is 60°C if it's for k12 though
Explanation:
Which is not a guideline for avoiding hip dislocation after replacement surgery. A. The hip may be flexed to put on clothing such as pants, stockings, socks, or shoes. B. Never cross the legs when seated. C. Keep the knees apart at all times. D. Put a pillow between the legs when sleeping.
Answer: (A) The hip may be flexed to put on clothing such as pants, stockings, socks, or shoes.
Explanation: To avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery. important guidelines should be communicated to the patient by the medical consultant.
Examples of important guidelines include:
1. patient should not flexed his or her hip to put on clothing such as pants, stockings, socks, or shoes.
2. ensuring that the patient keep his or her knees apart at all times to avoid secondary dislocation;
3. patient should apply pillow between the legs when sleeping;
4. patient should never cross the legs when seated;
5. The medical consultant should instruct the patient to limit hip flexion to 90 degrees when he or she sits and etc.