"In about 100 words, describe how an n-tier architecture might be used by an online business. Include in your answer an outline of the functions that would likely be performed by computers configured in this way."

Given:

Beginning retained earnings = $217,000

Revenues = $417,000

Expenses = $358,500

Dividends = $12,700

To find:

Ending retained earnings

Solution:

To calculate the ending retained earnings first we have to calculate the net income of the company. The formula to calculate the net income is as follows,

[tex]\bold{\text{Net income = Revenues - Expenses}}[/tex]

On plugging in the values in the above formula we get,

[tex]\Rightarrow \$417,000 - \$358,500 = \$58,500[/tex]

The formula to calculate the ending retained earnings is as follows,

[tex]\bold{\text{Ending retained earnings = Beginning retained earnings + Net income - Dividends}}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \$217,000 + \$58,500 - \$12,700 = \$262,800[/tex]

Therefore, the retained earnings on the balance sheet as of December 31, 2016 will be $262,800 that is option c.

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": are processes that are specialized for relatively few products or customer groups.

Explanation:

Product-focused processes are those that follow a market segmentation. Companies decide to what sector of the market they will drive their efforts towards and specializes in the manufacturing of a determined good.

Production tends to involve high volumes and low variety process but provides manufacturers relatively high facility utilization. Examples of product-focused processes are the production of light bulbs or bolts.

Product focused processes are operations tailored for relatively few products or clients, providing efficiency and specialization, but limited flexibility. These processes are applicable to both manufacturing and service companies. The profitability of these processes depends on the nature of the market demand.

Product focused processes are specialized operations meant for producing relatively few products, or catering to a specific customer group. This method tends to be more efficient than process focused because individual processes are completed by specialized workers using dedicated machinery. However, such type of operations may not provide the same level of customization flexibility because changing the process for a new product or different version can be time-consuming and costly. These processes apply to both manufacturing and service firms.

The profitability of product focused processes depends on the demand of the market. If the market demands a specialized product not offered by many providers, a firm following a product focus strategy can command a higher price for its unique offering. On the other hand, if the market requires flexibility, a process-focused firm, which is generally capable of producing a wider array of products, might be more profitable.

https://brainly.com/question/32277238

#SPJ6

Answer:

Explanation:

For materials:

Units transferred out 381,000*

Add:

Materials 42,000*100% = 42,000

Equivalent units 423,000

*Units transferred out = Units stated+Beg inv-End inv = 350,000+73,000-42,000 = 381,000

For conversion costs:

Units transferred out 381,000*

Add:

Conversion cost 42,000*30% = 12,600

Equivalent units 393,600

Correct answer is 423,000; 393,600

Using the weighted-average method, the equivalent units of production for materials and conversion costs for the month of July are 148,800 units each.

The equivalent units of production for materials and conversion costs can be calculated using the weighted-average method. To do this, we need to consider the units that were started and completed during the period, as well as the units that are still in process at the end of the period.

In this case, we can calculate the equivalent units of production for materials by adding the units from the beginning work in process inventory (60% complete) to the units started during July and multiplying it by the percentage of completion for the units in ending work in process inventory (30% complete). Similarly, we can calculate the equivalent units of production for conversion costs using the same method.

Using these calculations:

Equivalent units for materials = (Units in beginning work in process) + (Units started during July) × (Percentage of completion for units in ending work in process)

Equivalent units for conversion costs = (Units in beginning work in process) + (Units started during July) × (Percentage of completion for units in ending work in process)

Using the given information:

Units in beginning work in process: 73,000 units (60% complete)

Units started during July: 350,000 units

Units in ending work in process: 42,000 units (30% complete)

Equivalent units for materials = (73,000 × 0.6) + 350,000 × 0.3 = 43,800 + 105,000 = 148,800

Equivalent units for conversion costs = (73,000 × 0.6) + 350,000 × 0.3 = 43,800 + 105,000 = 148,800

https://brainly.com/question/29754038

#SPJ3

Answer:

Price of the stock today = $53.14

Explanation:

given data

dividends year D1 = $12

dividends year D2 = $10

dividends year D3 = $9

dividends year D4 = $4

constant growth rate  = 6 percent

required return stock Kk = 15 percent

solution

we get here Price of the stock today that is

Price of the stock = [tex]\frac{D1}{(1+ke)^1}+\frac{D2}{(1+ke)^2}+\frac{D3}{(1+ke)^3}+\frac{D4}{(1+ke)^4}+\frac{P4}{(1+ke)^4}[/tex]   .................1

here P4 =  [tex]\frac{D5}{ke-g}[/tex]   .............2

and  where D5 = D4(1+g)    .............3

so here put value in equation 1

Price of the stock today  =  [tex]\frac{12}{(1+0.15)^1}+\frac{10}{(1+0.15)^2}+\frac{9}{(1+0.15)^3}+\frac{4}{(1+0.15)^4}+\frac{4(1.06)}{(0.15-0.06)(1+0.15)^4}[/tex]    

Price of the stock today = 53.1368

Price of the stock today = $53.14

Tune Store would need to adjust their books for Model B's inventory, writing down the inventory by $500 due to valuation at NRV being less than cost. This is processed by debiting (increasing) an expense account such as Cost of Goods Sold and crediting (decreasing) the Inventory account.

The question regards the year-end adjustment to mark inventory down to the net realizable value (NRV) within the context of the Tune Store. Tune Store uses lower cost and NRV to report its inventory. Therefore, if the cost of an item exceeds the NRV, the business would need to write down the inventory and adjust its books.

In this case, the adjustment applies to Model B. The unit cost is $50, but the NRV is only $40. This implies a $10 write-down per Model B unit. So, for 50 units, the total write-down would be $500. The effects of the adjustment would involve debiting (increasing) an expense account such as Cost of Goods Sold and crediting (decreasing) the Inventory account.

https://brainly.com/question/33722424

#SPJ6

Answer:

agrees to buy shares at a set price if the option holder desires.

Explanation:

In the stock market a put option is the right of a buyer to buy an options contract on an underlying asset at a set price before or on a particular date.

A person will buy a put option if they forecast that the price of an underlying asset will go down. A put owner will only make profit when he sells below the purchase price.

The call option is when a person agree to sell options at a set price where the holder is willing to buy.

Final answer:

The net income of $25,000 is not sufficient to cover the combined allowances for Nabb and Fry, totaling $33,000. Therefore, each partner receives their respective allowances with Nabb receiving $19,000 and Fry receiving $14,000, with no remainder to distribute.

Explanation:

The problem involves distributing net income in a partnership according to agreed allowances and sharing the remainder equally.

Therefore, the distribution of income is as follows:

Since the net income is not enough to cover all allowances, there are no additional amounts to distribute equally between Nabb and Fry.

Answer:

1. Airwings, a commercial airline manufacturer, becomes optimistic about economic conditions after seeing reports of strong growth in consumer spending. Due to Airwings, planned investment will increase.  

2. The Federal Reserve announces an end to accommodative monetary policy, and is now implementing policy tools that will increase the real interest rate. Due to the Fed, planned investment will decrease.

3. In an effort to reduce constant budget deficits, Congress announces plans to increase the corporate income tax rate. Due to the Congress, planned investment will decrease.  

Explanation:

1) Due to Airwings, planned investment will increase.

Since the business has a promising future, it will start capacity expansion to cater to consumer demand.

2) Due to the Fed, planned investment will decrease.

A higher real interest rate suggests that borrowing cost is higher for the firms and so that they will lessen the investment in response to that.

3) Due to the Congress, planned investment will decrease.

A lower tax implies that higher profits and firms can pass these benefits to consumers with lower prices, to employees with higher wages and the government with a tax on profit. However, if the rate of the tax itself has been increased then in that case corporate will see higher tax as a dampener in sentiments and they might curtail investment plans.

The planned investment of Airwings, the Federal Reserve, and Congress are likely to increase, decrease, and decrease respectively due to their respective economic and policy contexts.

In each scenario, planned investment could change depending on the economic and policy situations. For option 1, Airwings is optimistic about future economic conditions due to strong growth in consumer spending. Because this optimism will likely lead to increased production and expansion, their planned investment will likely increase.

In the second scenario, the Federal Reserve is ending its accommodative monetary policy and increasing the real interest rate. Higher interest rates make borrowing for investment more expensive, so planned investment is likely to decrease.

Finally, in the third case, Congress is planning to increase the corporate income tax rate. This increase will decrease net corporate profits available for reinvestment, leading to a likely decrease in planned investment.

https://brainly.com/question/31781807

#SPJ3

Answer: a practice in which executives get out of their offices and learn from others in the organization through casual face-to-face dialogue.

Explanation: Management by walking around (MBWA) refers to a practice in which executives get out of their offices and learn from others in the organization through casual face-to-face dialogue.

In this management style, executives pay casual, unplanned visits to staff in their work areas to understand their work environment, experience first hand their status reports instead of waiting for them to be delivered to their office. Management by walking around fosters a better work environment through better communication, a hands-on experience of the conditions of the workplace by managers as well as quick and effective problem solving.

Answer:

C. Emerging market fund

Explanation:

Emerging market fund -

It refers to the amount of funds invested with its major assets in the economies of the emerging countries , is referred to as the emerging market fund .

These funds are in the range of the mutual funds to the exchange - traded funds .

These funds are in higher risk , as are invested in a developing country rather than the developed country .

Hence , from the given information of the question ,

The correct answer is emerging market funds .

Answer:

PART A

A constructive receipt is a term often used in both accounting and taxation to describe the taxation of an income even when the income had not been received by the person being taxed.

IMPORTANCE OF CONSTRUCTIVE RECEIPTS

It guarantees the early payment of taxes without undue delays from the tax payer.

It ensures effective taxation by effective tracking of the tax payers.

PARTB

(B) Under the concept of constructive​ receipt, income is taxed when it becomes available to the tax payer. The taxpayer cannot defer the tax by refusing to accept payment.

Explanation:

Constructive reciept is of great importance and relevance in the field of cost accounting and taxation,it guarantees early payment of taxes and effective tracking of tax payers by the regulatory or taxation bodies.

Under the concept of constructive reciept, income is taxed when it becomes available to the tax payer and it can not be deferred by refusing to accept payment.

Constructive receipt is a tax law concept where income is taxed when it becomes available to the taxpayer, regardless of when it is actually received. This prevents manipulation of tax payment timing by delaying income acceptance.

The term Constructive Receipt is defined under the tax law context. According to this concept, income is considered to be received, and subsequently liable for tax, when it becomes readily available to the taxpayer, irrespective of when it is actually received. In other words, option (B) is the accurate definition of constructive receipt. The taxpayer cannot defer tax by refusing to accept the payment or by directing it to be paid to another party.

The importance of constructive receipt lies in its role in determining the taxation period for any given income. It prevents the taxpayer from manipulating the timing of their tax payment by refusing or delaying the acceptance of their income. Constructive receipt is a critical aspect of income recognition and timing of tax liability for cash-based accounting systems.

https://brainly.com/question/35861655

#SPJ3

Answer:

Explanation:

A) All the weights are equal.

For Firm A, Weighted score = (10 + 7 + 4)/3 = 21/3 = 7

For Firm B, Weighted score = (5+8+6)/3 = 19/3 = 6.3333

Firm A is better preferred

B) Factor 2 being twice important and Factor 3 having four times importance as Factor 1.

For Firm A, Weighted score = (10 + 7*2 + 4*4)/7 =40/7 =  5.7143

For Firm B, Weighted score = (5+8*2+6*4)/7 = 45/7 = 6.4286

Firm B is better preferred

Based on the weights applied and the factors given per firm, the firm that is best would be Firm A.

Factor 1 will be x.

Factor 2 will be 2x

Factor 3 will be 3x.

Total weights are:

= x + 2x + 3x

= 6x

Factor A is therefore = 1/6

Factor B is = 2/6

Factor C is = 3/6

Firm A weighted score is:

= ( (10 x 1/6) + (8 x 2/6) + (9 x 3/6))

= 8.83

Firm B weighted score:

= ( (5 x 1/6) + (8 x 2/6) + (6 x 3/6))

= 6.5

Firm A is therefore better with 8.83.

Find out more on weighted averages at https://brainly.com/question/18554478.

Answer:

(a) $93,000

(b) $55,600

(c) $54,600

(d) -$1,000

Explanation:

An explicit cost refers to the costs that are incurred to run a business such as rent, wages and materials.

Explicit costs:

= Rent + supplies + Office staff + salary + Telephone expenses

= $18,000 + $1,000 + $50,000 + $20,000 + $4,000

= $93,000

Implicit cost is also known as opportunity costs.

Implicit cost:

= (Amount of saving × Rate) + Salary from consulting firm

= ($12,000 × 0.05) + $55,000

= $600 + $55,000

= $55,600

Accounting profit = Revenues - Explicit cost

                             = $147,600 - $93,000

                             = $54,600

Economic profit = Accounting profit - Implicit costs

                           = $54,600 - $55,600

                           = -$1,000

Answer:

Explicit Costs = $ 73000 ; Implicit Costs = $ 67600

Accounting Profit = $ 74600 ; Economic Profit = $ 13000 loss

Explanation:

Explicit Costs are real cash outflow expenses, paid for hiring productive factor inputs from outside. Implicit Costs are imputed costs of entrepreneur provided unpaid productive factor inputs  and opportunity cost of money & time invested in business.  

Accounting Profit is excess of Total Revenue over all Explicit Costs. Economic Profit is excess of Total Revenue over Total Explicit & Implicit costs.

Answer:

The Cost of good sold will decrease by 10,000

The other accounts balance will be the same.

Missing Information:

Ending balances in the relevant accounts were:

Work-in-Process            40,000

Finished Goods             80,000

Cost of Goods Sold     680,000

Explanation:

The company applied overhead for the amount of 435,000

This was charged into finished good which latter become cost of goods sold.

Then, as the actual overhead was 425,000 we have to adjust for the over-applied overehad. We applied more than it cost so we have to reduce it.

435,000 - 425,000 = 10,000

We will decrease our COGS against the factory overhead account.

COGS 10,000 debit

  factory overhead 10,000 credit

Final answer:

Moira Company needs to adjust its inventory accounts by recognizing an over-applied manufacturing overhead of $10,000, due to a discrepancy between the budgeted indirect-cost rate and the actual cost incurred, to ensure accurate financial statements.

Explanation:

Moira Company should adjust its inventory accounts after discovering a discrepancy between the budgeted indirect-cost rate and the actual amount incurred. The company used a budgeted indirect-cost rate for manufacturing operations, which led to an allocation of $435,000 to the cost of goods sold. However, the actual amount incurred was $425,000. To reconcile this discrepancy, the company should adjust its inventory account by recognizing the over-allocated amount of $10,000 as an over-applied manufacturing overhead and adjust the cost of goods sold accordingly. This adjustment will ensure that the financial statements reflect the actual costs and improve the accuracy of the profit calculation.

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

The change model was developed by Kurt Lewin. The model is divide into three steps: unfreezing, changing and refreezing.

According to this three-step model of Kurt, the step that represents the 'unfreezing' stage is option C.

The unfreezing stage of the change model helps people to gain an overview of daily life. It helps to unlearn the bad habits and adopt new and innovative ways to reach the goal or objectives.

So, according to the definition of the 'unfreezing' stage of the change model, the correct answer is option C as in this step, Kotter is creating a new vision or ways to reach the goal or vision.

In John Kotter's change model, the 'unfreezing' stage in Lewin's model corresponds to the first few steps, encapsulated best by the step that involves creating a new vision to direct change and strategies for achieving that vision.

In John Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change, the equivalent to the 'unfreezing' stage in Kurt Lewin's three-step model would most fittingly be 'Create a new vision to direct the change and strategies for achieving the vision'. This is because the unfreezing stage in Lewin's model entails getting ready to change, which involves making individuals or organizations aware of the necessity and impending nature of change, a criterion that aligns with creating a new vision for change.

However, it's important to note that Kotter's model is a more granular expansion on Lewin's model, and so doesn't map directly onto the three stages of Lewin's model. The unfreezing stage corresponds to the first few steps of Kotter's model, which collectively articulate the need for change and pave the way for it.

https://brainly.com/question/34706729

#SPJ6

Answer:

A.) Firm B must have a higher ROE than first A.

Explanation:

Debt ratio is defined as percentage of a company's assets that is made up of debt and so it is calculated as a ratio of debt to assets of a company.

Interest expense is the amount that is paid to service a loan.

This implies that company B has higher loan portfolio than Company A.

Considering the accounting formula

Equity= Asset- Debt

So an increase in debt will result in a decrease in equity.

Return on equity= Net income/Equity

It follows that as debt increases and equity reduces, the ROE will increase since a shrink in the ROE denominator (Equity) will lead to an increase in the ratio.

Answer:

If Caro outsources only the Maintenance department, she should pay not more than $11,000, the avoidable Fixed Costs is incidental to her operations and not that of the outsource partner thus the $5,000 shouldn't be included as a payment due the Outsource Partner.

Caro decision case

Maintenance department total costs:

Variable - $11,000

Avoidable fixed costs - $5,000

Total costs (if not outsourced) = $16,000

Explanation:

Final answer:

The maximum amount Caro can pay to outsource the Maintenance Department without increasing total costs is the sum of avoidable fixed costs and variable costs, which is $16,000.

Explanation:

The question asks for the maximum amount Caro can pay an outside vendor to outsource the Maintenance Department without increasing total costs. Caro's current costs for the Maintenance Department consist of variable costs totaling $11,000 and avoidable fixed costs of $5,000. To determine the maximum amount for outsourcing, we add these costs, giving us a total of $16,000. This is the maximum that Caro can pay to an external vendor without incurring additional costs beyond what is currently being spent internally.

Answer:

Hi, you haven't provided the options to the question, so I will just give the answer in my own words and you can check with the options.

The answer is: TECHNICAL REASONING.

Explanation:

Technical reasoning is a learning pattern that in which one tends to enjoy problem solving, building, or doing things hands on to experience what is going on, more like a visual learner.

Technical reasoning refers to the pattern which describes the way we seek relevant real world experiences and practical answers. This pattern is a pattern of fewest words. It emphasizes the ability to solve problems using independent private thinking and hands-on interaction.

Since Bill tends to skim through resources for assignment and approaches writing with a preference for demonstrating what he knows, rather than putting it into words, therefore, it means he uses TECHNICAL REASONING.

Answer:

You need to deposit $735.03 today

Explanation:

Future Value (FV): $1,000

Rate: 8% pa

Tenor: 4 years

Present value is the amount of deposit today?

FV = PV * (1+ rate) ^ tenor

⇔ 1000 = PV *(1+8%)^4

⇒ PV = 1000/(1+8%)^4 = $735.03

Answer:

Pv = $1000 (1.08)^-4

Explanation:

Compounding is the computation of the future value of $1 invested today while discounting is the determination of the present worth of $1 in the future. Both are related by the equation

Fv = Pv ( 1 + r )^n

where Fv = Future amount

Pv = Present value

r = rate of return

n = time in years

Hence the formula required

$1000 = Pv (1 + 0.08)^4

Pv = $1000 (1.08)^-4

Answer:

Explanation:

First,since the Burchart Gardens charges an admission fee of $30 for each visitor,anyone who has not paid the fee cannot or will not be able to have access inside the garden.Therefore,it is currently not a free service for all the visitors.In this sense,a visit to the Butchart Garden is excludable.It can be assumed that any visitor who wishes to come inside the garden and have a visit will have to mandatorily pay the admission fee.

Secondly,as Butchart Garden is a public area and anyone who pays the admission fee can officially gain access to the garden,enjoyment of the natural and aesthetic beauty of the garden by any one visitor does not reduce the simultaneous enjoyment of any other visitor who has paid the admission fee and hence,gained access to the garden.In economic language,if we consider the garden visit as a particular commodity,then the consumption of the commodity by any one visitor or consumer does not reduce the simultaneous consumption of any other visitor/s or consumer/s,provided that they have all paid the admission fee to gain access to the commodity or garden in this case.Therefore,visits to the Butchart Garden can be considered as non-rivalrous.

Now,since the visit to the Butchart garden is both excludable and non-rivalrous in nature,it can be considered as an example of a Club Good.

Final answer:

Visits to Butchart Gardens are excludable and nonrival in consumption, making them a club good.

Explanation:

Visits to Butchart Gardens are excludable because they can be prevented from those who have not paid the admission fee. Since the garden charges a fee and can limit access based on whether an individual has paid, it fits the criteria of an excludable good.

Furthermore, visits are nonrival in consumption, at least until the point at which additional visitors would begin to diminish the experience for others. Given the scenario described, that point is not reached, as the garden can hold many more visitors than it currently does.

Therefore, Butchart Gardens represents a club good, which is excludable but nonrival in consumption up to a certain capacity.

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Expected sales= 2,000 units

Selling price= $400​

Unitary variable cost= $300

Fixed costs= $100,000.

First, we need to calculate the break-even point both in units and dollars:

Break-even point= fixed costs/ contribution margin

Break-even point= 100,000/ (400 - 300)= 1,000 units

Break-even point (dollars)= fixed costs/ contribution margin ratio

Break-even point (dollars)= 100,000/ (100/400)= $4,000,000

Now, we can calculate the margin of safety in units, dollars and as a percentage:

Margin of safety (units)= (current sales level - break-even point)

Margin of safety (units)= 2,000 - 1,000= 1,000 units

Margin of safety (dollars)= 8,000,000 - 4,000,000= $4,000,000

Margin of safety ratio= (current sales level - break-even point)/current sales level

Margin of safety ratio= 4,000,000/8,000,000= 0.5= 50%

Answer:

Explanation:

1.

Gross profit is Net Sales - Cost of goods sold(COGS). So in order to calculate COGS:

Direct materials used $87,200

Direct labour 60,000

Variable manufacturing overhead 25,000

Fixed manufacturing overhead 44,100

Total cost $216,300

Violins produced 2,100

Cost per violin $103

Sales [(2100-550)*122.50] 189,875

Cost of goods sold [(2100-550)*103] 159,650

Gross profit 30,225

2. Contribution margin = Sales - Variable expenses

So to calculate variable expenses, cost per violins multiplied by violins sold and then variable  selling and administrative expense of 8,000 is added.

Direct materials used $87,200

Direct labour 60,000

Variable manufacturing overhead 25,000

Total cost $172,200

Violins produced 2,100

Cost per violin $82

Variable expenses = (2100-550)*82 +8000 = $135,100

Contribution margin = 189,875 - 135,100 = $54,775

3.

Variable selling and administrative expense 8,000

Fixed selling and administrative expense 13,900

Total expenses shown below the gross profit line 21,900

4.

Fixed manufacturing overhead 44,100

Fixed selling and administrative expense 13,900

Total expenses shown below the contribution margin line 58,000

5. Ending inventory = unsold inventory*Cost per violins = 550*103 = $56,650

6. Ending inventory = unsold inventory*Cost per violins = 550*82 = $45,100

Answer:

True

Explanation:

This will not accomplish the senator's goal because payroll taxes work in the same way as taxes on goods. Labor is the good here and wage is the price that is being paid for it. Tax is a wedge between what firms pay and what workers receive. When a payroll tax is enacted the wage received by workers falls and that paid by firms rises. The payment of taxes will be made by the firm according to the legislation and the wages for the workers will decrease according to the elasticity of demand and supply of labor market and ultimately the tax paid by the firms and the workers will not change.

Answer: True

Explanation: The tax wedge here is the difference between the wages employees take home and how much employers actually pay to employ them. It is also the difference in the market forces of demand and supply due to imposing tax on goods and services.

Firstly, the burden of tax will not rest with firms but will be transferred to consumers through goods and services which will affect demand. Also increasing the payroll tax paid by employers will make employees worse off as the burden of payroll tax still rest on the employees, it will only decrease  take home wages.

Answer:

The costs of goods sold is $80,500

Explanation:

Cost of goods sold is defined as the cost which a company incurs to acquire or manufacture a product and selling it to the customer. The selling price doesnot have any effect on the cost of goods sold. The formula for COGS is,

Cost of goods sold = Beginning inventory + Purchases - Ending inventory

Here,

Beginning Inventory = $13,500

Purchases =  $84,500

Ending inventory = $17,500

COGS = 13,500 + 84,500 - 17,500 = $80,500

Answer:

$80,500

Explanation:

Cost of goods sold is defined as the cost of acquiring the goods sold during a period, and not the price for which goods are sold to the customer. In this problem, it is stated that inventory worth $80,500 was sold. Therefore, the cost of goods sold is $80,500.

Cost of goods sold can also be calculated as the initial inventory added to purchases minus ending inventory:

[tex]COGS =13,500+84,500-17,500\\COGS=\$80,500[/tex]

Final answer:

a. The dividend for the 1st year is 2.7095. b. The dividend for the 2nd year is 3.41787. c. The dividend for the 3rd year is 4.101444. d. The dividend for the 4th year is 4.101444. e. The dividend for the 5th year is 4.101444. f. The present value of the dividends, with a required rate of return of 14 percent, is 14.09.

Explanation:

a. What is the dividend for the 1st year?

To calculate the dividend for the 1st year, we need to multiply the last dividend paid by the growth rate for the 1st year. The growth rate for the 1st year is 26%, so the dividend for the 1st year would be 2.15 * 1.26 = 2.7095.

b. What is the dividend for the 2nd year?

Similarly, to calculate the dividend for the 2nd year, we multiply the dividend for the 1st year by the growth rate for the 2nd year. The growth rate for the 2nd year is 26% as well, so the dividend for the 2nd year would be 2.7095 * 1.26 = 3.41787.

c. What is the dividend for the 3rd year?

For the 3rd year, we multiply the dividend for the 2nd year by the growth rate for the 3rd year, which is 20%. So the dividend for the 3rd year would be 3.41787 * 1.20 = 4.101444.

d. What is the dividend for the 4th year?

The dividend for the 4th year would be the same as the dividend for the 3rd year, as the growth rate for the 4th year is also 20%. So the dividend for the 4th year would be 4.101444.

e. What is the dividend for the 5th year?

Similarly, the dividend for the 5th year would be the same as the dividend for the 3rd and 4th years, as the growth rate for the 5th year is also 20%. So the dividend for the 5th year would be 4.101444.

f. Compute the present value of these dividends if the required rate of return is 14 percent.

To compute the present value of the dividends, we need to discount each future dividend to its present value. We can use the formula:

PV = D / (1 + r)t

Where:

PV = Present Value

D = Dividend

r = Required rate of return

t = Number of years

Using this formula, we can calculate the present value of each dividend and then sum them up to get the total present value. To calculate the present value for each dividend, we need to divide the dividend by (1 + r)t. For example, the present value of the dividend for the 1st year would be 2.7095 / (1 + 0.14)1 = 2.3696.

Repeating this calculation for each dividend and summing them up, we get the total present value. However, since the question specifies to round intermediate calculations and final answer to 2 decimal places, we'll round each present value to 2 decimal places and then sum them up. Using this method, the total present value of the dividends would be 2.37 + 3.82 + 3.15 + 2.60 + 2.15 = 14.09.

Answer:

It endures over the lifetime of a third person, after which the property passes from the tenant holder to the original grantor

Explanation:

"Pur autre vie" is a French phrase which refers to "for another's life".  In such cases, the grantor passes on a property to a party, the duration of which is dependent on the life of a third person.

Upon the demise of such a third party, the estate in such a property gets reverted to the original grantor.

For example, A grants an estate in property to B, the duration of which is limited till the lifetime of C. In the event of C's death, the property reverts back to A i.e the original grantor.

Answer:

Cost of capital=11.18%

Explanation:

First We will calculate the Equity of firm:

Equity= Number of share* Book value per share

Equity= 10,000* $25

Equity= $250,000

Long-term debt=$300,000

Expected rate of return=15%=0.15

Current yield to maturity (rdebt)=8%=0.08.

Value of firm=Equity+Long-term debt

Value of firm= $250,000+$300,000

Value of firm= $550,000

Formula:

[tex]Cost\ of \ Capital=\frac{Equity}{Value\ of\ firm}* Rate\ of\ return+\frac{Debit}{Value\ of\ firm}* yield\ to\ maturity[/tex]

[tex]Cost\ of\ Capital=\frac{\$250,000}{\$550,000}*0.15+\frac{\$300,000}{\$550,000}*0.08\\ Cost\ of\ Capital=0.1118[/tex]

Cost of capital=11.18%

Answer:

At May 31​, Austin's Tavern should recorded of $5,500 for the period January 1 through May 31 by the entry:

Debit Rent Expense $5,500

Credits Prepaid rent $5,500

Explanation:

On  January 1, Austin​'s Tavern prepaid rent of $ 13 comma 200 for the full year. The company records the insurance as the prepaid Insurance:

Debit Prepaid rent $13,200

Credit Cash $13,200

On May 31, the last day of the following 5 months, the company records an adjusting entry that Credits Prepaid rent for $5,500 ($13,200 divided by 12 months times the 5 months that will be prepaid as of May 31) and Debits Rent Expense for $5,500

Debit Rent Expense $5,500

Credits Prepaid rent $5,500

Answer:

Explanation:

Present value of Annuity will be used for this as the future payments are given  after equal intervals.

PV of an Annuity = C x [ (1 – (1+i)^-n) / i ]

Where,

C is the cash flow per period

i is the rate of interest

n is the frequency of payments

add given Values in the formula:

$1,000 x [ (1 – (1+4%)^-12) / 0.04 ]= $9387.5 is the Answer

Explanation:

1. The Alaska Native Regional Corporations (ANCSA) and the Native corporation system have been good for Alaska Natives.

First, rework your argument to demonstrate the significance of the historical events underlying this issue. Provide particular examples of the influence of ANCSA and the indigenous community structure on Alaska Natives, or probably both.  

To further explain the significance of this problem, demonstrate how at least three historical events rely on ANCSA's passage

The ANCSA and the Native corporation system have brought about significant economic and social opportunities for Alaska Natives, exemplified by the creation of profitable businesses and the preservation of cultural heritage;

To illustrate the positive impacts, one can point to the economic development spurred by ANCSA.

Conversely, the passage of ANCSA has also had negative consequences.