Eastman Kodak reported that the cost of its PPE on December 31, 2010 was $6,805 million. On January 1, 2010, it had been $7,327 million. Also, the balance of accumulated depreciation on December 31, 2010 was $5,254 million. On January 1, 2010, it had been $5,516 million. Depreciation expense for the fiscal year 2010 was $420 million. During 2010, the company bought new equipment with acquisition cost of $254 million worth. The company also sold PPE and reported a $14 million gain on selling PPE.

Questions:

How much did Kodak sell its PPE for (sale price)?

Answer:

$11.165 unfavorable

Explanation:

The formula to compute the variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:

= (Actual direct labor hours - standard direct labor hours) × variable overhead per hour

where,  

Actual direct labor hours is 2,975

And, the standard direct labor hours equal to

= 250 units × 9

= 2,250

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= (2,975 - 2,250) × $15.40

= $11.165 unfavorable

Answer:

$1,600 (Not given in the options)

Explanation:

Retained earnings is the accumulated balance of an entity's net income over the years. Change between the opening retained earnings and the closing retained earnings of an entity is due to the net income/loss for the period and amount of dividend declared and paid during the period.

Opening retained earnings + net income - dividend = closing retained earnings

850 + net income - 750 = 1800 (all amounts are in $)

net income = 1800 + 750 - 850

= $1700

Net income is the difference between revenue and expenses.

Hence the expenses for the period

= $3,300 - $1,700

= $1,600

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": morphological analysis.

Explanation:

Morphological analysis is a mathematical approach consisting of solving problems using all variables possible which are to be combined and analyzed. When it comes to business, morphological analysis is helpful to outline several possible outcomes given a product so after combining those variables the best result can be selected. Often, more than one result is chosen to increase the diversity of products from where consumers can select.

In an attempt to improve the product, a company that manufactures screwdrivers discusses the modification of each attribute, such as replacing the wooden handle with plastic, providing torque power, adding different screw heads, and so on. This creativity technique is called attribute listing.

The creativity technique described in the question is called attribute listing. This technique involves brainstorming by listing all the various attributes of a product and then considering how each attribute can be improved or modified.

For example, in the context of manufacturing screwdrivers, the company could list attributes such as the handle material, screw head types, and additional functionalities like torque power.

By evaluating and changing each attribute, they aim to enhance the overall product.

Answer:

The consumption of capital in the production process.

Explanation:

Depreciation can be defined as the decrease of the recorded cost of a fixed asset in a systematic way until the value of the asset becomes zero or negligible.

Depreciation is referred to as 'consumption of physical capital'. It is the difference that exists between gross investment and net investment.

Examples of fixed assets include: buildings, furniture, office equipment, machinery. A land is the only oddity. A land cannot be depreciated as the value of land appreciates with time.

Final answer:

Depreciation is the loss of value in capital goods due to wear and tear or obsolescence. It's measured as the cost of production and subtracted from gross investment to determine net investment, impacting the overall capital stock of an economy. Depreciation also represents a significant percentage of Gross Domestic Income.

Explanation:

Depreciation is an important concept in economics and accounting that refers to the wear and tear or obsolescence of capital goods like machinery and buildings during the production process. As capital is utilized, it gradually loses value due to factors such as physical deterioration and technological advancements. This reduction in value is calculated as depreciation and is reported by entities such as the Commerce Department as the "consumption of fixed capital".

The concept of gross and net investment relates directly to depreciation. Gross investment represents the total amount invested in new capital, while net investment is obtained by subtracting depreciation from gross investment. Positive net investment indicates that the capital stock of an economy is growing, while negative net investment signals a decline in the capital stock.

Depreciation is not just a measure of the decline in value; it also represents the cost of production, as it is part of the price for goods and services. Thus, it contributes to the income generated in the production process. In macroeconomic terms, depreciation helps to understand the lifespan of various capital goods, and it accounted for about 13% of Gross Domestic Income (GDI) in 2008.

Answer:

D. unanswered Sales revenue at split-off point.

Explanation:

Product contribution margin is the economic term used to describe a situation where a product sold generates revenue large enough to pay for all its production and distribution costs and expenses and still generate a profit for the company. In other words, this term refers to the money that is left over from the revenue generated from the sale of the product, after all of your production expenses have been paid. Sales revenue not being answered at the point of separation.

Answer:

nope

Explanation:

nope

Explanation:

April 16: Dr Short-term investment (6000*24) 144000

                                                                  Cr Cash 144000

(To record purchase of shares of Gem co)

July-7: Dr Short-term investment (3000*55) 165000

                                                            Cr Cash 165000

(To record purchase of shares of pepsico)

July-20. Dr Short-term investment (1500*15) 22500

                                                              Cr Cash 22500

               (To record purchase of shares of Xerox)

Aug-15. Dr Cash (6000*.95) 5700

                       Cr Dividend income 5700

                  (To record cash dividend of Gemco)

Aug-28. Dr Cash (3000*30.75 ) 92250

                       Cr Short-term investment (3000*24) 72000

                       Cr Gain on sale of investment(3000 * 6.75 N#1) 20250  

           (To record sale of shares of Gemco ).

Oct-1. Dr Cash (1.60 *3000) 4800

Cr Dividend income 4800

       (To record cash dividend of pesico)

Dec-15. Dr Cash ( 6000*1.60) 9600

                     Cr Dividend income 9600

        (To record cash dividend or remaining shares of gemco)

Dec-31. Dr  Cash (3000*1.00)   3000

                Cr   Dividend income          3000

         (To record cash dividend )

[N#1: 24-30.75= 6.75 *3000 = 20250]

Answer:

A. Churning

Explanation:

Employee Churning is also known as employee turn-over which is an act of laying off employees while recruiting new ones. It is a measure always taken to conserve a company's limited resources. The turnover rate is given as the percentage of employees being laid off or leaving workers over a period of time. There are a lot of factors contributing to churning such as downsizing through attrition either due to recession or scarcity of company's resources.

Answer:

Right choice: d.

Explanation:

As the George's area of expertise had effectively fulfilled the requirements of the new evolved Trout , Inc. IT may happen that work will be expanded. This will require Goerge to build the workforce those are having ranges of abilities that coordinates the Trout, Inc. needs. Hence, while enlisting and selecting for the new position Georgy will apply HRM objective of finding the correct arrangement of individuals for the necessary undertaking.  

Answer:

1. New CM RATIO =  0.4

2. BEP (unit sales) =  21,000 units

   BEP (in dollars) =  $630,000

Explanation:

The original data table is attached.

1. CM Ratio:

The contribution margin is what is left after all variable expenses is subtracted from sales.

The CM Ratio is that amount divided by sales. So we can say:

CM Ratio = (Sales - Var Expenses)/Sales

From the table, we see sales as 585,000 and variable expenses as 409,500

This is original data, but we are given that $3 variable expense per unit is LESS. So, we take that into account and find new variable expense.

Since 19,500 units accounts to variable expense of 409,500:

Var Exp Per Unit = 409,500/19,500 = 21

Now, $3 less per unit, so Var Exp Per Unit (NEW) = 21 - 3 = 18

So, total Var Exp (NEW) = 19,500 units * 18 per unit = 351,00

New CM RATIO = (585000 - 351000)/585000 = 0.4

2. BEP (units) and BEP (dollars)

The Break-Even Point has formula:

BEP (units) = Total fixed cost/ CM Per Unit

Fixed Cost previously was 180,000. Now, 72,000 increased because of automation. Hence,

Fixed Cost (NEW) = 180000 + 72000 = 252,000

Also:

CM Per Unit is Sale Price Per Unit - Var Cost Per Unit

We know Sale Price is $30 and NEW VAR COST PER UNIT is 18

So, CM Per Unit = 30 - 18 = 12

BEP (units) = 252,000/12 = 21,000 units

BEP (in dollars) = Total Fixed Cost/CM Ratio = 252000/0.4 = $630,000

Answer:

Income statement

revenue         78000

expenses  (25000 )

insurance  (7000 )

depreciation  (9000 )

EBIT          37000

TAX                  (11000)

net income  26000

EPS                    3.25

STATEMENT OF STOCKHOLDER'S EQUITY

  Common stock  retained earnings  additional paid in capital  

opening  8000                   9000                57000  

net income                     26000    

closing  8000                    35000                  57000

BALANCE SHEET  

assets    

non current assets   154000

machinery           77000

accum depreciation  (20000)

carrying value   57000

current assets   36000

prepaid insurance   3000

cash                   18000

accounts receivables  15000

total assets            190000

Equity and liabilities    

stockholdr's equity  100000

common stock   8000

Retaine earnings   35000

paid in capital           57000

Liabilities           90000

current liabilities   90000

Accounts payable   11000

wagages payable   4000

income tax payable  75000   balancing figure

Explanation:

missing information;

Other data not yet recorded at December 31 include:

Insurance expired during the current year, $7.

Wages payable, $4.

Depreciation expense for the current year, $9.

Income tax expense, $11.

Required:

1. Using the adjusted balances, prepare an income statement for the current year. (Round "Earnings per share" to 2 decimal places. Enter your answers in thousands.)

2. Using the adjusted balances, prepare statement of stockholders’ equity for the current year. (Amounts to be deducted should be indicated with a minus sign. Enter your answers in thousands.)

3. Using the adjusted balances, prepare balance sheet for the current year. (Amounts to be deducted should be indicated with a minus sign. Enter your answers in thousands.)

Answer:

1 unit of X must be sacrifised to gain a unit of Y, with satisfying Budget Constraint .

Explanation:

Budget Line shows the product combinations that a consumer can buy with given prices & money income (spending all) . Equation : P1X1 + P2X2 = M

Price ratio slope of the budget line i.e = P1/P2 : shows the amount of a good needed to be sacrifised to gain a unit of the other good , given prices & income.

So, Price Ratio : PX / PY = 2 / 2 = 1 in this case; implies 1 unit of Good X is needed to be sacrifised to gain a unit of good Y with given prices & income.

Final answer:

Mitchell must give up 2 units of X to consume an additional unit of Y, due to the equal prices of goods X and Y ($2 each) and his Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) being 2 at bundle J. This satisfies his budget constraint without altering his total spending.

Explanation:

In the context of consumer choice theory, when a consumer like Mitchell faces a budget constraint, he must decide how to allocate his income across different goods to maximize his utility. Given that Mitchell's money income is $150, the price of good X is $2, and the price of good Y is also $2, Mitchell initially chooses to buy 50 units of X and 25 units of Y, forming bundle J.

At bundle J, Mitchell's Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) is given as 2. This means that Mitchell is willing to give up 2 units of X for every additional unit of Y he consumes in order to maintain the same level of utility. To satisfy the budget constraint, the consumer must adjust consumption when the price or budget changes. If Mitchell wants to increase his consumption of Y by 1 unit without changing his spending, he must calculate how many units of X to forgo.

Given that the price of X and Y are the same, which is $2, and the MRS is 2, Mitchell must give up 2 units of X to gain 1 additional unit of Y to remain on his budget line. Therefore, the budget constraint and the MRS together determine that Mitchell will consume 2 fewer units of X. This allows Mitchell to reallocate the resources spent on X to purchase an additional unit of Y.

Answer:

The effective growth rate daily is 0.1455%

Explanation:

The effective growth rate daily can be computed using the below daily growth rate formula:

effective daily rate=(1+annual rate)^1/365-1

annual growth rate as given in the question is 70%

effective daily growth rate=(1+0.70)^(1/365)-1

effective daily growth rate =1.001454833 -1

effective daily growth rate=0.001455

effective daily growth rate=0.145483327  %

effective daily growth rate =0.1455%  approximately

The fact that the business is growing at this rate on daily basis is good indicator of business success which must be leveraged upon in the future in order to take the business even to greater heights.

However,the validity of the annual rate of 70% is also very important,whatever parameters used in arriving at 70% needs to be rechecked in order to be on the safe side.

To convert the past growth rate into a daily rate, we divide the average annual growth rate by the number of days in a year. The effective daily growth rate is approximately 0.51%.

To convert the past growth rate into a daily rate, we need to divide the average annual growth rate by the number of days in a year.

First, we need to calculate the effective annual growth rate. Since the company has been growing at an average rate of 70% per year for the past 4 years, we can use the compound interest formula:

Effective rate = (1 + Growth rate) ^ Number of years - 1

Using the formula, we can find the effective annual growth rate:

Effective rate = (1 + 0.70) ^ 4 - 1 = 2.8704 - 1 = 1.8704

Next, we divide the effective annual growth rate by the number of days in a year (365) to find the effective daily growth rate:

Effective daily growth rate = 1.8704 / 365 = 0.0051166 (approximately 0.51%)

https://brainly.com/question/32268079

#SPJ3

Answer:

A. Contribution Margin Ratio = 25%

B. Break even point (In dollars) = $960,000

    Break even point (in units) = 16,000

Explanation:

The computation of Contribution Margin Ratio and break-even point both in total units and total sales dollars is given below:-

A. Contribution Margin Ratio = Contribution ÷ Sales × 100

= $300,000 ÷ 1200,000 × 100

= 25%

B. Break even point (In dollars) = Fixed cost ÷ Contribution margin ratio

= $240,000 ÷ 25%

= $960,000

Break even point (in units) = Break even point ÷ price per unit

= $960,000 ÷ $60

= 16,000 Units

Final answer:

The Contribution Margin (CM) Ratio for Voltar Company is 25%. The break-even point is 16,000 units or $960,000 in sales dollars, essential for understanding financial planning and strategy.

Explanation:

Answering the question provided by the student about Voltar Company's telephone answering machine, we first address part (a) which asks for the Contribution Margin (CM) Ratio. The CM ratio is calculated by dividing the contribution margin by total sales. In this case, the contribution margin is $300,000, and total sales are $1,200,000, making the CM ratio 25% (300,000 / 1,200,000).

For part (b), finding the break-even point involves calculating both the number of units and the total sales dollars needed to cover all expenses. The break-even point in units is found by dividing the total fixed expenses by the contribution margin per unit, which in this case would be $240,000 / $15 = 16,000 units. To find the break-even point in sales dollars, multiply the break-even units by the sale price per unit, resulting in 16,000 units * $60 = $960,000.

These calculations help businesses understand how many units they need to sell to cover their costs and start generating profit, a crucial aspect of financial planning and strategy. The CM ratio and break-even analysis are fundamental concepts in business operations.

Answer:

A Recession happened.

Explanation:

When the market sees a recession we see an increase in the unemployment rate due to cyclical unemployment whenever there in a business cycle even though the labor force was constant but in a recession companies face a lot of costs which become higher than their revenue so for example when there is a recession the cost of producing 1 more unit is actually higher than the revenue a firm gets from producing that 1 unit because marginal cost increases at a decreasing rate so they have to lay off people at a firm on that unit of production to maximize revenues.

Answer:

Explanation:

Sales revenue                                                                               = 2696200

less: sales discount                                                                      = (195200)

                Net sales                                                                        2501,000

Less: Cost of goods sold                                                             = (1204,140)

                  Gross profit                                                                   1296860

Less: Operating expense                                                          

             salaries & wages expense   567300

             Utilities expense                   134200

             Depreciation expense          378200

                                                                                                       =(1079700)

           Profit before interest and taxes                                          217160

Less: Interest expense                                                                = (86620)

                                                                                                       130540

Less: tax expense                                                                        =(30500)

          Profit after interest and taxes                                            100040

jj

To prepare a multiple-step income statement, categorize revenue and expenses and calculate the gross profit, operating income, and net income.

To prepare a multiple-step income statement for Blossom Company, we need to categorize the revenue and expense items into different sections. First, we calculate the gross profit by subtracting the cost of goods sold from the sales revenue. Then, we subtract the operating expenses such as salaries and wages expenses, depreciation expense, and utilities expense from the gross profit. Next, we add the interest revenue and subtract the interest expense to calculate the operating income. Finally, we subtract the income tax expense and any other non-operating expenses, such as the loss on disposal of plant assets, to arrive at the net income.

https://brainly.com/question/33969244

#SPJ3

Answer and Explanation:

In Microsoft Office Excel, changing the order of the worksheets in a workbook only takes to left-click on the page the user wants to move, hold the left click and drag it to the position of the workbook desired. The user can also right-click on the worksheet and select "Move or copy" from the window dialog displayed then select where the worksheet should be placed.

Answer:

A) drag and drop

Explanation:

To rearrange the order of the sheets in a workbook, simply click on the workbook, hold, and drag it to its desired location.

Answer:

1.19

Explanation:

The beta of a portfolio can be simply determined by a weighted average of each individual investment's beta. Thus, the portfolio beta after selling $10,000 of a stock with beta equal to 1.4 is:

[tex]B_1 = \frac{150,000*1.2-10,000*1.4}{140,000}\\B_1 =1.185714[/tex]

The beta of a new portfolio after purchasing $10,000 worth of a new stock with beta equal to 1.3 is:

[tex]B_2 =\frac{1.185714*140,000+1.3*10,000}{150,000}\\B_2=1.1933[/tex]

The beta of the new portfolio is 1.19.

Answer:

$1,147.20.

Explanation:

The total amount accrued for principal plus interest in the calculation simple interest

= principal * (1+ rate * number of years)

= $800 *(1+ 6.2% * 7)

= $1,147.20.

Answer:

The optimal order size is 654.

Explanation:

As we know that: EOQ = Squareroot (2DS/H)

 where :

S= ordering cost = $25 per order

H = Holding cost per unit = 0.70 per unit

D= Annual demand,sales = 60000/10 = 6000 units

        Solution:

                        =  Squareroot ( 2 * 6000 * 25 ) / 0.70

                        =  Squareroot (300000/0.70)

                         = Squareroot (428571)

              EOQ = 654

Final answer:

The optimum order size is 6000 units.

Explanation:

To determine the optimum order size, we need to consider the total cost and the quantity of units. The formula for total cost is (ordering cost + inventory cost), and the formula for quantity of units is (total sales / price per unit).

In this case, the ordering cost is given as $25 per order, and the inventory cost is $0.70 per unit. The total sales are $60,000, and the price per unit is $10.

Using the formulas, we can calculate the optimum order size:

Therefore, the optimum order size is 6000 units.

Answer:

The money which the person have in account today amounts to $8,073.91

Explanation:

The amount of money which the person have in account today is computed as:

Future Value = {Present Value × (1+ Percent) ^ Number of years }+ {Present Value × (1+ Percent) ^ Number of years}

where

Present value is $3,200

Percent is 9.2%

Number of years is 4 years

Present value is $1,000

Percent is 5.5%

Number of years is 7 years

Putting the values above:

Future value = {$3,200 × (1+ 0.092) ^ 4 }+ {$1,000 × (1+ 0.055) ^ 7}

Future value = $8,073.91

Answer:

C) three-hit theory

Answer:

The question says ; Determine the total interest expense for Year 1, using the interest method.

Explanation:

Plugging the values in the equation ;

Total interest expense = $1491282.48

Answer and Explanation:

1.

A is semi annual coupon=43.75

B is par or face value=1000

C is semi annual required return=5.25%

2.

Reasonable because coupon rate is less than ytm

3.

=(8.75%*1000)/11.75%*(1-1/(1+11.75%/2)^6)+1000/(1+11.75%/2)^6=925.95

4.

Less than

5.

Discount

For variable A

coupon rate = 8.75%

semiannually = [tex]\frac{8.75}{2}[/tex] = 4.375%

Semiannual coupon rate = 4.375% * 1000

= $43.75

For variable B

Bond par value = 1000

For variable C

Coupon rate = 10.5% annually

Semiannually = [tex]\frac{10.5}{2} =5.25[/tex]%

She wants a rate of 11.75% annually

Semiannually = [tex]\frac{11.75}{2} = 5.875%[/tex]

The time to maturity = 3 years

Semi annual period rate to maturity = 5.25

[tex]\frac{43.75}{1.05875} +\frac{43.75}{1.05875^2} +\frac{43.75}{1.05875^3} +\frac{43.75}{1.05875^4} +\frac{43.75}{1.05875^5} +\frac{43.75}{1.05875^6} +\frac{1000}{1.05875^6}[/tex]

= 41.32+39.029+36.8634.82+32.88+31.07+709.9

= 925.948

From the data and the calculation above we can see that the intrinsic value is $925.9 which is less than the par value of $1000.

This is reasonable given that the coupon rate is lower. Rounding up the intrinsic value we see that it is lower than the par value. Therefore this is a discount.

Read more on par value here https://brainly.com/question/25562729

Answer:

See attached picture for detailed answer.

Explanation:

See attached picture.

Journal Entries for recording the Merkley Company's transactions are as follows:

January 1:

Debit Sales/Disposal of Assets $5,250

Debit Accumulated Depreciation $15,750

Credit Equipment (Machine A) $21,000

To transfer the assets and accumulated depreciation to Sales/Disposal Account.

Debit Cash $5,000

Credit Sales/Disposal of Assets $5,000

To record the cash receipts from the disposal.

December 31:

Debit Sales/Disposal of Assets $13,200

Debit Accumulated Depreciation $36,800

Credit Equipment (Machine B) $50,000

To transfer the assets and accumulated depreciation to Sales/Disposal Account.

Debit Cash $2,500

Debit Notes Receivable $8,000

Credit Sales/Disposal of Assets $10,500

To record the cash receipts and notes receivable from the disposal.

January 1:

Debit Sales/Disposal of Assets $21,000

Debit Accumulated Depreciation $64,000

Credit Equipment (Machine C) $85,000

To transfer the assets and accumulated depreciation to Sales/Disposal Account.

Data Analysis:

Asset           Original Cost      Residual Value    Estimated Life  Accumulated                              

                                                                                                       Depreciation

                                                                                                       (straight line)

Machine A      $21,000                 $3,000             8 years            $15,750 (7 years)

Machine B       50,000                   4,000             10 years            36,800 (8 years)

Machine C      85,000                   5,000             15 years            64,000 (12 years)

Machine A on January 1:

Sales of Assets = $5,000 (cash)

Book value = $5,250 ($21,000 - $15,750)

Loss on sale = $250 ($5,250 - $5,000)

Sales/Disposal of Assets $5,250 Accumulated Depreciation $15,750 Equipment (Machine A) $21,000

Cash $5,000 Sales/Disposal of Assets $5,000

Machine B on December 31:

Sales of Assets = $10,500 (Cash $2,500 Notes Receivable $8,000)

Book value = $13,200 ($50,000 - $36,800)

Loss on sale = $2,700 ($13,200 - $10,500)

Sales/Disposal of Assets $13,200 Accumulated Depreciation $36,800 Equipment (Machine A) $50,000

Cash $2,500 Notes Receivable $8,000 Sales/Disposal of Assets $10,500

Machine C on January 1:

Sales of Assets = $0

Book value = $21,000 ($85,000 - $64,000)

Loss on sale = $21,000 ($21,000 - $0)

Sales/Disposal of Assets $21,000 Accumulated Depreciation $64,000 Equipment (Machine A) $85,000

Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/22054937

Answer:

Price of the bond is $1,757

Explanation:

Coupon payment = 2000 x 6.4% = $128 annually

Number of periods = n = 20 years

Yield to maturity = 7.6% annually

Price of bond is the present value of future cash flows, to calculate Price of the bond use following formula

Price of the Bond = C x [ ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n ) / r ] + [ F / ( 1 + r )^n ]

Price of the Bond = $128 x [ ( 1 - ( 1 + 7.6% )^-20 ) / 7.6% ] + [ 2,000 / ( 1 + 7.6% )^20 ]

Price of the Bond = $128 x [ ( 1 - ( 1.076 )^-20 ) / 0.076 ] + [ 2,000 / ( 1.076 )^20 ]

Price of the Bond = $1295.03 + $462.15

Price of the Bond = $1,757.18

To calculate bond's market price, plug in the coupon rate, yield to maturity rate, number of periods (years till maturity), and the face value into the bond value formula. The outcome will give you the market price of the bond. The market price of the bond may be different from its face value depending on the prevailing interest rates and the creditworthiness of the issuing company.

The subject of this question pertains to the financial topic of bond pricing. Gugenheim, Inc., a fictional company, has a bond with a 6.4 percent annual coupon rate and a yield to maturity rate of 7.6 percent. The bond is set to mature in 20 years and has a par value, also known as face value, of $2,000.

To calculate the current market price of the bond, we have to take into account the bond's face value, coupon rate, maturity rate, and yield to maturity. The coupon payments would be $128 per year (6.4% of $2000) for the next 20 years and the return of the face value at the end of maturity. The yield to maturity, which is the rate of return anticipated on a bond if it is held until maturity, is 7.6%.

The formula for the value of a bond is C (1-(1 / (1+ r) ^n) / r) + FV / (1 + r) ^n, where C is coupon payment, r is yield to maturity, n is the number of periods, and FV is face value.

Applying the given numbers:

PV = $128 [1-(1/(1 + 0.076)^20) / 0.076] + $2000 / (1 + 0.076)^20

Therefore, the market price or present value of this bond would be the computed price from the above formula, concluding our explanation on bond pricing.

https://brainly.com/question/28489869

#SPJ11

Answer:

Total Value                      =5563.131709

Explanation:

using the annuity formula to find out the present value of lease rentals

p=R*(1-(1+i)^-n)/i

Total rental monthly =5*60 = 60

I=7.32% monthly

R=385$ monthly

Since we have:

Value of the first is same i.e $385

Value of remaining 59 payments as follows

P=385*(1-(1+7.32%)^-59)/7.32%

P=385*(1-0.015482491 )/7.32%

P=385* 0.984517509 /7.32%

P=385*13.44969275

P=5178.131709

Value of 59 rental          = 5178.131709

Add: Value of 1st rental  = 385

Total Value                      =5563.131709

Answer: $303,500

No

Explanation: Qualified business income QBI allows sole shareholders of eligible businesses (S corporations, sole proprietorship) such as Robert to lessen their tax burden by up to 20 percent. In this case, 20% of $303,500 can be deducted.

QBI will not change as reasonable compensation is not actual compensation, so this does not apply to QBI.

However, If his salary increases to $181,050, this would make Robert ineligible to qualify for the deduction as his income is more than the $157,500 threshold that makes a single taxpayer eligible for QBI.

This amount is $315,000 for a married couple filing a joint return.

Answer:

The appropriate journal entry to record the March purchases of shares under the employee share purchase plan are as follows:

Debit: Cash ($12 × 85%) × $50,000 = $510,000

Debit: Compensation Expense ($12 × 8%) × $50,000 = $90,000

Credit: Common Stock = $50,000

Paid in Capital – Excess of Par ($50,000 × $11) = $550,000

Answer:

Selling price = $20.05

Explanation:

The break even point is the level of activity where the total cost of is exactly equal to the total revenue. At this point, the business makes no profit and no loss, because the total contribution is also equal to the total fixed costs.

Contribution is the excess of sales revenue over variable cost

Total contribution = (S.p - VC per unit) × unit sold

So we can determine the selling price per unit by equating the total contribution to the the total fixed cost as follows:

Step 1

Determine the total contribution

= ( S.P - 6.80) × 900

Step 2

Equate the total contribution to the total fixed cost and solve for S.P

(S.P - 6.80) × 900 = 11,925.    Lets substitute S.P with x

(X-6.80) ×  900 = 11,925

900X -6,120 = 11,925

900X =  11,925 + 6,120

900X = 18045

X = 18,045/900

X = $20.05

Selling price = $20.05

This evaluation categorizes shipping, beads, and hourly labor as variable inputs, while chairs, upper management salary, computers, and 2 year lease on office and rental space are classified as fixed inputs in a jewelry shop's production.

In the context of business and economics, variable inputs are those that can be adjusted or changed based on the production needs, while fixed inputs are those that remain constant regardless of the production level. In the long run, all factors of production are variable. However, for the exercise, we consider a certain level of fixedness.

https://brainly.com/question/32601953

#SPJ12