The raised red spots are most likely urticaria, a skin condition characterized by itchy red welts caused by an allergic reaction.
Explanation:The raised red spots on the hands, arms, and face of the 8-year-old student who was stung by a wasp are most likely urticaria.
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy red welts or patches that can appear and disappear quickly. It is usually caused by an allergic reaction to certain substances, such as insect bites or stings.
In this case, the red spots are a result of the release of histamine and other mediators in response to the wasp sting, leading to the dilation of blood vessels and fluid leakage.
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Dr. Haxton says the O-O bond is polar and the C-C bond is nonpolar. A good student would say ... a. No, both bonds are highly polar. b. Right! O is electronegative, so O2 is polar. c. Yes. O attracts electrons more strongly than C. d. No way. C is more electronegative than O. d. Wrong again, Ralph. Both bonds are nonpolar.
Answer:
d. Wrong again, Ralph. Both bonds are nonpolar
Explanation:
The bonds in "O-O" and "C-C" are covalent bonds. If one atom has a more tendency to attract the electrons, the bond becomes polar in nature. Here, the bonded electrons are more attracted to the more electronegative atom which in turn imparts it a partial negative charge. The other atom becomes partially positive. In the case of O-O and C-C, the same atoms are bonded together. When a covalent bond is formed between the same atoms, it is always non-polar as the bonded atoms have the same electronegativity.
Another thermophile, Thermus aquaticus, was isolated from a hot spring in Yellowstone National Park. It is the source of the enzyme Taq polymerase, which is used in the molecular technique called polymerase chain reaction (PCR). PCR is used to amplify sequences of DNA. What extremophile characteristic of this enzyme makes it an essential component in a PCR reaction?a. Taq polymerase is stable under acidic or alkaline conditions.
b. Taq polymerase is stable under extremely cold temperatures.
c. Taq polymerase is heat-stable and can withstand high temperatures.
d. Taq polymerase is stable in solutions that are extremely high in salt.
Answer:
c. Taq polymerase is heat-stable and can withstand high temperatures.
Explanation:
The process of PCR amplifies a small amount of DNA into multiple copies. For the purpose, the sample DNA fragments are denatured at higher temperature conditions (around 95 degrees Celsius). This separates the two strands of the sample DNA which in turn serve as a template. Taq polymerase from a thermophile can withstand the extremes of the temperature conditions required for denaturation of sample DNA. Unlike the DNA polymerases from other organisms such as humans, Taq polymerase is not denatured at higher temperatures.
Therefore, Taq polymerase can be used as an enzyme of primer elongation to amplify the DNA by PCR.
) During the germinal period, the fertilized ovum duplicates and forms a blastocyst. This hollow ball of cells ________.
a. fills the amnion with fluid
b. develops a tail for movement
c. contains the embryonic disk
d. shrinks in size and is absorbed by the blood
Answer:
C - Contains the embryonic disk
Explanation:
After an egg is fertilized, it begins to divide into smaller cells, from the 1 cell stage, to 2, to 4 and so on. Then, on the third day, the cells fall within 16-200 cells and it is then called a morula.
On the fifth day, the morula becomes a ball of calls which is now differentiated into an inner cell mass and a trophectoderm. The inner cell mass becomes the embryo as development goes on and the trophectoderm, becomes the placenta.
As development goes on further, the floor of the amniotic cavity is formed by the embryonic disk, a layer of prismatic cells derived from the inner cell mass.
The embryonic disc develops into 3 layers:
EndodermMesodermEctodermThere is a major differentiation of cells which gives a template for the origin of development of specific organs of the embryo.
When Elaine accidentally touched the hot stove, she immediately pulled her hand away without even having to think about it. This seemingly automatic movement of her hand could not have been possible without the effective operation of the ______________ nervous system.
Answer:
somatic
Explanation:
The somatic nervous system is one of the components of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system consists of nerves (sensory and motor nerves) which function in carrying motor and sensory information to and fro the central nervous system. The somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary movements as well as reflex movements.
The automatic movement of Elaine’s hand could only be possible with the effective function of the somatic nervous system.
What happens to contraction of a muscle cell if some of the Ca2+ that was released during a contraction is still in the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) when the next stimulus arrives? Group of answer choices The muscle contracts with the same tension generated as during the first contraction, because muscles contract in an all-or-none fashion. The muscle contracts with the same tension generated as during the first contraction, because the number of cross-bridges formed is always the same during a contraction. The muscle contracts with greater tension generated because there will be more Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm after the second stimulation, which will bind to more troponin molecules. The muscle contracts with greater tension generated because more troponin molecules bound means greater myosin-binding sites (active sites) are revealed on the actin, leading to a larger number of cross-bridges formed.
Explanation:
Calcium stays in the sarcoplasmic reticulum until discharged by an improvement. Calcium at that point ties to troponin, causing the troponin to change shape and expel the tropomyosin from the coupling destinations. Cross-connect stick proceeds until the calcium particles and ATP are never again accessible. ATP is basic to get ready myosin for official and to "revive" the myosin. When the actin-restricting destinations are revealed, the high-vitality myosin head overcomes any issues, framing a cross-connect. When myosin ties to the actin, the Pi is discharged, and the myosin experiences a conformational change to a lower vitality state. As myosin consumes the vitality, it travels through the "power stroke," pulling the actin fiber toward the M-line.Penicillin’s mode of action is to inhibit Choose one: A. cell wall cross-link formation. B. DNA replication by allosterically binding to DNA polymerase. C. translation by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. D. translation by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
Answer:
A. cell wall cross-link formation.
Explanation:
The bacterial cell wall has peptidoglycan which is a heteropolymer of two different monomers. These are N -acetylmuramic acid and N -acetylglucosamine. Peptide cross-links formed by the enzyme transpeptidase join the chains of these monomers together to make multiple layers of the cell wall. Penicillin is an antibiotic that does not allow the enzyme " transpeptidase" to form the cross-linked. The bacteria treated with penicillin lyse in a hypotonic solution.
According to the __________, a species is a group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce viable, fertile offspring—but do not produce viable, fertile offspring with members of other such groups.
Answer:
biological species concept
Explanation:
The biological species concept is the most commonly used and acceptable definition of species, which explains that a group of organisms can be referred to a species if members of the group can interbreed successfully to produce viable offspring that are also fertile. It explains that there tend to be reproduction barriers that would prevent different species of organism from successfully interbreeding. Also, that two organisms have the same appearance, do not necessarily mean they belong to the same species. For example, a horse and a donkey were interbreed to produce an offspring called the mule, but, the mule was found to be infertile. A horse and a donkey are different species, even though they have close appearance.
According to the biological species concept in Biology, a species is a group of populations that can interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring with members of the same species.
Explanation:In Biology, according to the biological species concept, a species is a group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce viable, fertile offspring, but do not produce viable, fertile offspring with members of other such groups. This concept focuses on reproductive compatibility as the defining characteristic of a species.
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Two alleles of a given gene exist in a population: CTGT and TGTC. (Note: The codes given are only for the transcribed strand of the DNA in the two alleles.) Three possible single crossover events are possible between these two alleles. As a result of the three different crossover events, how many total new alleles (new sequences of DNA) could be produced?
A. 3.
B. 4.
C. 5.
D. 6.
E. 12.
Explanation:
D. 6
There are two forms of the gene, CTGT and TGTC, called alleles. These have undergone 3 crossover events, which may create two separate copies.
Thus 2 × 3 (# of events)= 6 new alleles
The interchange of chromosome segments, including homologous non-sister or identical chromatids. Crossing over happens at chiasmata, where non-sister chromosomes are fused together.
Further Explanation:
DNA variants on chromosomes,may have different forms called alleles. DNA, which is a genotype, is transcribed into mRNA and then converted into amino acids that are linked together by rRNA to form proteins that make up the morphology of the individual.
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Final answer:
The total number of new alleles that could be produced from three possible single crossover events between CTGT and TGTC alleles is 6.
Explanation:
The total number of new alleles that could be produced from three possible single crossover events between CTGT and TGTC alleles is 6.
To calculate this, we need to consider all possible combinations resulting from each crossover event:
New allele 1: CTGT - TGTC
New allele 2: CCGT - TTTC
New allele 3: TCGT - CGTC
New allele 4: CTTC - TGCC
New allele 5: TTGT - CGTC
New allele 6: CCGT - TGTC
Therefore, a total of 6 new alleles can be produced from these crossover events.
Two populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees.What keeps the two populations separate?A. temporal reproductive isolation B. lack of hybrid viability C. behavioral reproductive isolation D. spatial reproductive isolation
Answer: D. spatial reproductive isolation
Explanation:
The spatial reproductive isolation can be defined as the reproductive isolation in which populations are separated by great distances, this can also occur when the members of the same population inhabit to different parts of the same area.
According to the given situation, the birds of the two populations have been separated by the peninsula. This is creating a spatial reproductive barrier between the two populations. When the members of the spatially separated populations brought together they will not be able to produce offspring. Due to the fact that the members of the population might have developed traits which get expressed in the progeny. Thus the offspring appears to be the intermediate of the two.
7.
What are the 3 checkpoints normal cells go through to prevent unregulated cell division?
Answer:
The three cell cycle checkpoints are:
G1 CheckpointG2 CheckpointSpindle CheckpointExplanation:
Cell Cycle Checkpoints:
Cell cycle checkpoints are regulatory points at which the current state of the cell is assessed to determine whether the cell cycle can continue or not.
The G1 checkpoint confirms the cells entry into the mitotic phase; it commits the cells for division. If a cell passes G1 checkpoint, it will continue in the cell cycle until it divides into two daughter cells. This checkpoint checks DNA damage, the presence of adequate nutrients and suitable cell size. The G2 checkpoint operates at the G2/M transition. It checks DNA damage and assesses whether DNA has completely and successfully replicated during the S-phase. If DNA damage is detected, DNA repair mechanisms are activated.The spindle checkpoint assesses whether all chromatids have successfully attached to the spindle fibers. This is a crucial checkpoint as the integrity of cell division depends on the correct number of chromosomes received by each daughter cell.true or false? Stratified squamous epithelium forms the surface of the skin, the lining of the mouth, and the lining of the esophagus.
Answer: True
Explanation:
The type of epithelium well suits the areas where there is a constant abrasion, and due to this fact the toughest and the thickest layer can be sequentially sloughed off and will be replaced before the layers in the basement will be exposed.
It is the outermost layer of the skin, lining of the mouth, vagina and esophagus.
The given statement is true, that the area like esophagus, vagina and mouth are covered with stratified squamous epithelium.
Use caution and arrange to reduce the dose if a monoclonal antibody is combined with any other ________________ drug because severe immune suppression with increased infections and neoplasms can occur.
Answer: Immunosupressant
Explanation:
The use of monoclonal antibody along with the immunosupressant is used in such a way so that that the disease is cured without having more side effects.
The immunosupressant if given on a regular basis can cause many side effects on the body.
There are increased chances of infections in the body so monoclonal antibodies is used along with the immunosupressants.
Every person begins life as a single cell, which is called a _____. A. chromosome B. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) C. zygote D. genotype
Answer:
The correct answer is C. zygote
Explanation:
Every person begins life as a single cell, which is called a zygote
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Which of the following ancillary or supportive criteria is addressed in this statement: Infants who are put to bed prone less than half the time have an increased incidence of SIDS compared to those who are never put to bed prone. Those who are always put to bed prone have an increased incidence of SIDS compared to those who are put to bed prone less than half the time.
A. Consistency.
B. Biological plausibility.
C. Strength of the association.
D. Dose-response relationship.
Answer:
The answer is D- Dose-response relationship
Explanation:
A dose-response relationship is an association between dose and incidence in which an increasing level of exposure will either lead to an increase or decrease of an incident or outcome. For instance, in the scenario given the dose or exposure will be the time the infants are put to bed prone while the response is the level of incidence of SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome).
Final answer:
The statement refers to the dose-response relationship in the context of SIDS incidence related to infants being put to bed prone.
Explanation:
The statement you’ve provided addresses the dose-response relationship, which is option (D). This criterion refers to the association between the frequency or intensity of exposure to a certain factor and the likelihood of a particular outcome. In this case, the factor is infants being put to bed prone (on their stomachs), and the outcome is the incidence of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). The statement suggests that there is a dose-response effect, where the more frequently infants are put to bed prone, the greater their risk of SIDS. Those put to bed prone less than half the time have an increased incidence compared to those who are never put to bed prone, and those who are always put to bed prone have an even higher incidence of SIDS.
What type of stress is most likely to occur at this
boundary?
O shearing
syncline
tension
compression
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
'The San Andreas Fault is the boundary between two of Earth's tectonic plates: the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate. This boundary is a transform boundary. The Pacific Plate is moving to the north and west, while the North American Plate is moving to the south and east."
What type of stress is most likely to occur at this boundary?
(1) shearing
(2) syncline
(3) tension
(4) compression
Answer:
Option (1)
Explanation:
Shear stress is usually defined as stress that occurs due to the force acting on the rocks that allow the material to get deformed. This takes place because of the slippage taking place along the planes or the planes that are parallel to the applied stress. This results in the downward movement of fault blocks and leads to the occurrence of earthquakes.
This shear stress occurs in the transform type of plate boundary where the two plates slide past one another. For example, the San Andreas fault.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
The answer is A. Good luck!
~ V.
The ____ monitors all the information about eye, head, and body positions and passes it on to brain areas that control movement. Select one: a. occipital lobe b. central sulcus c. precentral gyrus d. parietal lobe
Answer: Parietal lobe
Explanation:
The parietal lobes are one of the four main lobes of the cerebral cortex. It is positioned above the temporal lobes and behind the frontal lobes.
These lobes serves many important functions such as functioning and processing of the sensory information, body's awareness and spatial orientation.
This lobe processes the information about eye, head and body position.
Hence, the correct answer is parietal lobe.
The parietal lobe is responsible for monitoring the positions of eyes, head, and body, integrating sensory information, and contributing to motion perception and control.
The structure that monitors all the information about eye, head, and body positions and passes it on to brain areas that control movement is the parietal lobe. The parietal lobe interacts with the somatosensory cortex and is involved with motion perception, responding to both visual and vestibular motion cues. Cortical regions like the posterior parietal cortex and other areas receive vestibular signals which are essential for spatial orientation and navigation, coordinating movement with the visual perception of space.
Sandy has a huge crush on Casey. When he is nearby, Sandy doesn't pay attention to anything or anyone else. Psychologist Donald Broadbent explained that we selectively attend to the most important information in _________ model he developed.
Answer:
The most important information in this model he developed is the "filter theory."
Explanation:
Filter theory is a description of desirability planned by Kerchoff and Davies (1962). This concept proposes that individuals advance associations by smearing a sequence of filters, such as resemblance of communal demographic issues and arrogance and complementary of wants to slender down the pool of obtainable candidates. Filter theory is a sociological theory concerning dating and mate selection. It proposes that social structure limits the number of eligible candidates for a mate. Most often, this takes place due to homogamy, as people seek to date and marry only those similar to them.
You have a U-shaped tube with a selectively permeable membrane that allows water to pass but not solutes. On the left side of the tube you have a 40% NaCl solution and on the right a 15% NaCl solution.
The NaCl in this example is considered the __________.
Answer:
Soulte
Explanation:
The compund which is in smaller amount in solution is considered as solute.NaCL is soulte and water is the solvent in the solution. The water moves from an area of higher potential to lower potential.The greater the solute in the solvent the lower the potential will be.40% NaCL have greater solute than 15% NaCL, So the water will move from left side towards the right side of tube.An 8 hour exposure to a sound intensity level of 95.0 dB may cause hearing damage. What energy in joules falls on a 0.850 cm diameter eardrum so exposed?
Answer:
[tex]E=5.0662\times 10^{-3}\ J[/tex]
Explanation:
Given:
time of exposure of eardrum to the specific sound, [tex]t=8\ hr=28800\ s[/tex]intensity of the sound, [tex]\beta=95\ dB[/tex]diameter of the eardrum, [tex]d=0.85\ cm=0.0085\ cm[/tex]We have the relation between the flux density of the sound energy as:
[tex]\beta=10\log_{10}(\frac{I}{I_0} )[/tex] ................(1)
where:
[tex]I_0=[/tex] the minimum flux density of sound energy just audible to human ears [tex]=10^{-12}[/tex] [tex]W.m^{-2}[/tex]
[tex]I=[/tex] the flux density of the sound energy due to the given intensity of sound
[tex]\beta=[/tex] given intensity of sound in decibels
from eq. (1) we've:
[tex]95=10\times \log_{10} (\frac{I}{10^{-12}} )[/tex]
[tex]I=0.0031\ W.m^{-2}[/tex]
The above value is Power per unit area.
We now find the area of eardrum:
[tex]A=\frac{\pi.d^2}{4}[/tex]
[tex]A=\frac{\pi\times 0.0085^2}{4}[/tex]
[tex]A=5.67\times 10^{-5}\ m^2[/tex]
Now the energy reaching the eardrum per second is:
[tex]P=I\times A[/tex]
[tex]P=0.0031\times 5.67\times 10^{-5}[/tex]
[tex]P=1.7591\times 10^{-7}\ W[/tex]
Now the total energy reaching the eardrum in the given time:
[tex]E=P.t[/tex]
[tex]E=1.7591\times 10^{-7}\times 28800[/tex]
[tex]E=5.0662\times 10^{-3}\ J[/tex]
Which disease is distinguished by the presence of reed-sternberg cells?
Answer:
Hodgkin lymphoma is a disease which is distinguished in the presence of reed-sternberg cells.
Explanation: Hodgkin lymphoma is a kind of cancer disease in which cancer disease grows from a special type of white blood cells known as lymphocytes. Sweat at night, high fever and reduction of weight are symptoms of this disease. Reed-sternberg cells are a type of abnormal lymphocytes having more than one nucleus.
Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and is diagnosed by a biopsy and microscopic examination.
Explanation:The disease distinguished by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is Hodgkin lymphoma. These are distinctive, large cancer cells that may contain more than one nucleus. To diagnose this condition, a biopsy of lymphatic tissue is typically performed, and the sample is examined under a microscope for the presence of these cells.
Hodgkin lymphoma is one of two main types of lymphoma, the other being non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), which has various subtypes. Hodgkin lymphoma can occur in both older individuals and younger adults, and timely diagnosis and treatment are important for the most effective outcomes.
Why is it helpful for scientists to compate substrate samples in the arson case discussed in the video
Answer:
because they need to check if the burnt substrate had a gasoline or other flammable material.
Explanation:
Scientists need to compile substrate samples in the case of arson, because by analyzing the burnt substrate and analyzing the deepest substrate (which may not be burned), scientists can see if the fire started naturally or if it had human influence . This is because, if in the burned substrate they find substances of flammable material, such as gasoline, they will be able to prove that the fire was initiated by the action of human beings on purpose.
In 1944 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed transformation experiments using live, harmless bacteria and extracts from virulent bacteria treated with various enzymes. Which of the following enzymes were used and why? (A) Proteases and RNases to rule out protein and RNA as the transforming factors (B) Lipase (an enzyme that facilitates the breakdown of lipids) to rule out lipoproteins as the transforming factor (C) Kinase (an enzyme that facilitates transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate molecule) to show that transformation is phosphorylation dependent (D) ATPase to show that transformation is not dependent on ATP
Answer:
Option-A
Explanation:
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed the experiment on the strains of S. pneumoniae used by the Griffith in the reformation experiment.
To know the chemical nature of the transforming principle which was expected to be a protein at that time, the solution was treated with a variety of biomolecule degrading enzyme-like RNases, DNases and proteases.
They found that the treatments with proteases and RNases has no effect on the process of transformation but the treatment with DNAses has stopped the process of transformation as it degraded the transforming principle and confirmed that DNA is the transforming material and is the heredity material.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty used enzymes including (option A) proteases and RNases to degrade proteins and RNA, showing that neither were the transforming principle. When DNA was degraded with DNAase, the transformation did not occur, identifying DNA as the carrier of genetic information.
Explanation:
In 1944 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed transformation experiments to determine the nature of the "transforming principle" that allowed non-virulent bacteria to become virulent. They used specific enzymes to degrade different molecular components of the virulent bacteria. Proteases and RNases were used to rule out protein and RNA as the transforming factors, as treatments with these enzymes did not prevent the transformation. However, when the extracts were treated with DNAase, which degrades DNA, the transformation did not occur. This indicated that DNA was the necessary component for transformation and thus the carrier of genetic information.
A hypothetical endangered species of wildflower has been reduced to a single small population in a mountain meadow. A rare early spring blizzard kills all but 3 of the remaining plants, one of which has a rare mutation. This is an example of:
A. genetic drift (bottleneck).
B. disruptive selection.
C. natural selection.
D. stabilizing selection.
E. gene flow.
Answer:
A. genetic drift (bottleneck).
Explanation:
Genetic drift can cause big losses of genetic variation for small populations. In our case, we already had a small population so killing further reduced the genetic variation in the population.
Disruptive selection is not correct because the plants died randomly (particular phenotype were not favored). Natural selection and stabilizing selection are not correct for same reason.
Gene flow is incorrect because we did not have any individuals coming in into the population!
Which of the following statements is true? a. The right brain helps people analyze and verbalize. b. Right and left brain concepts are meaningless. c. The left brain helps people understand analogies and imagine things. d. The right brain helps people understand analogies and imagine things.
Answer: The answer is D. The right brain helps people understand analogies and imagine things.
Explanation: The brain when divided symmetrically from the middle can be categorized as right and left cerebral hemispheres. The two hemispheres have different functions.
The right cerebral hemisphere is responsible for the coordination of the left body. It is also responsible for the artistic, creative and imaginative functions. Ability to understand analogies and imagine things is a result of a well developed right cerebral hemisphere.
DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. What would need to be true for pest eradication efforts to have been successful in the long run?
Answer:
4. None of the individual insects should have possessed genomes that make them resistant to DDT
Explanation:
DDT became ineffective in the eradication of insect pests because insects evolved by natural selection.
Some insects had genes that made them to be resistant to the effects of DDT. Hence, these few usually survive whenever DDT is applied to their environments. The few surviving ones thus reproduce in the environment, pass the DDT-resistant gene on to their offspring and give rise to a population of insect that are resistant to DDT.
Hence, if none of the earlier insects possessed the DDT-resistant gene, it would not have been possible for the insect population to evolve and pest eradication efforts using DDT would have been successful in the long run.
The correct option is option 4.
DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects, the option that needs to be true for pest eradication efforts to have been successful in the long run - All individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them susceptible to DDT.
DDT is a pesticide used to eradicate pests but due to its overuse pest developed genes that are resistant to DDT and it became ineffective as insects evolved by natural selection.
The genes that help them to make them be resistant to the effects of DDT would always help them survive whenever DDT is applied to their environments.If all the insects in this environment have only DDT susceptible genes in their genome then DDT would be able to eradicate them as they lack the resistant gene.If there will be no resistant gene then DDT would be effective in the long run.Thus, DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects, the option that needs to be true for pest eradication efforts to have been successful in the long run - All individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them susceptible to DDT.
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What concept, inspired by the work of Charles Darwin, proposes that the diversity of human cultures represent different stages of development, from simple to complex?
Answer:
cultural evolutionism
Explanation:
The evolutionary theory of cultural change can be described as cultural evolutionism. English anthropologists Tylor and Frazer and American anthropologist Morgan suggested that the vast diversity of cultures represented different stages in the evolution of human culture and were influenced by Charles Darwin.
These theories were of the idea that just as the theory of natural selection proposed by Darwin, the cultures also originated from a single one and divided into many forms with the passage of time.
Darwin and Wallace developed similar theories of evolution independently; Newton and Leibnitz developed the calculus independently; Twitmyer discovered "Pavlovian" conditioning before Pavlov did. Such independent discoveries are attributed to which theory?a. syncopated
b. personalistic
c. naturalistic
d. Ortgeist
e. evolution
Final answer:
Independent scientific discoveries, such as those by Darwin and Wallace or Newton and Leibnitz, are attributed to the naturalistic theory, suggesting that the environment guides multiple individuals to the same conclusions. The correct option is c.
Explanation:
The phenomena of similar theories or discoveries being made independently by different people at around the same time can be attributed to the naturalistic theory. This theory suggests that scientific discoveries and advancements are largely influenced by the natural and social environment, leading multiple people to the same conclusions independently. Examples of this include Darwin and Wallace's development of theories of evolution, Newton and Leibnitz's development of calculus, and Twitmyer's discovery of "Pavlovian" conditioning before Pavlov.
You observe two groups of frogs that are closely related. Males from each group "sing" with a species-specific song to attract a female frog. Females only respond to songs sung by males of their species. This is an example of _____ separation and _____ reproductive isolation between two species.
Answer:behavioral pre
Explanation:because their used to thier kind
A researcher is comparing the sequences of genes encoding cell wall proteins in archaeons with those coding cell wall proteins in bacteria. How similar do you expect these sequences will be?
Answer:
These sequence with not be similar because, the archaeons cell wall lack peptidoglycan.
Explanation:
The peptidoglycan is made up of peptide chain and polysaccharide. They are mostly found on bacterial cell. It gives structure to the organism and provide strength to the outer structure of the organism as well.
The cell wall of most archae are composed of S-layer protein. The cell wall also composed of other sugar proteins like pseudomurein, heteropolysaccharide and methanochondriotin.
In this case, the sequences will be different , simply because of the difference in the composition of their cell walls.
Final answer:
Archaeons and bacteria have some similarities in their cell structures, but there are distinct differences, such as the composition of their cell walls and plasma membranes.
Explanation:
Archaeons and bacteria have some similarities in their cell structures, such as containing a cell wall, cell membrane, nucleoid region, and often a capsule, flagellum, and pili. However, there are distinct differences between the two. One major difference is that bacteria have cell walls made up of peptidoglycan, while most archaeons do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
Another difference is that the plasma membranes of archaeons are made up of lipids that are different from those in bacteria. Additionally, the ribosomal proteins of archaeons are more similar to those in eukaryotic cells, not those in bacteria.
When an enzyme is involved in a catabolic reaction A. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, lowering the activation energy, and breaking the bond. B. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together, lowering the activation energy, and creating a bond. C. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, increasing the activation energy, and breaking the bond. D. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, creating a bond by increasing the activation energy. E. None of the above.
Answer:
Option-A
Explanation:
Enzymes are the protein molecules which speed up the chemical reaction in the organism and thus are known as the biocatalyst.
The enzymes are the tertiary structure of the proteins that is they are the globular form of the proteins. The globular structure contains an active site which is a pore-like structure to which the substrate molecules bind by forming a weak bond. This state is known as the transition stage which is higher in energy.
The formation of this transition state or enzyme-substrate complex lowers the threshold energy of reaction called activation energy and thus speed the reaction.
In the given question since the catabolic reaction involves the breaking of the bonds of the large molecules therefore the enzymes facilitate the breaking of the bond.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.
In catabolic reactions, enzymes bind substrates and change shape, bringing them close together.
Explanation:When an enzyme is involved in a catabolic reaction, its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together. This proximity of the substrates lowers the activation energy required for the reaction, facilitating the formation of a bond. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together, lowering the activation energy, and creating a bond.
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