When Mr. T’s blood pressure dropped, his heart rate increased. Which part of his autonomic system was responsible for this response? What other signs of autonomic activity did you observe in Mr. T?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Medulla oblongata is responsible for autonomic regulation system.

Explanation:

Autonomic regulation is a controlling system that regulates different function of body such as heart rate,digestion,blood pressure,urination,respiratory rate,papillary response etc.

Hypothalamus is the main center of controlling this functions.

Autonomic dysfunction occur when autonomous nervous system damages,and the effect may be mild to life threatening.

Autonomic activity may leads to certain kind of side effects like-

Dizziness,faintingexercise intolerance.sweating abnormalities.Diarrhea,constipation,difficulty in swallowing.Urinary problems,incomplete emptying of the bladder.Vision problems,blurry vision,vaginal dryness etc.


Related Questions

Do butterflies remember life as a caterpillar?

Answers

Answer: Yes

Explanation: They have vivid memories of the  cold nights even

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Which organs plays a role in water balance regulation?

Answers

Answer: The kidneys can regulate water levels in the body; they conserve water if you are dehydrated, and they can make urine more dilute to expel excess water if necessary.

When farming, overgrazing, climate change, and/or seasonal drought change farmland into land that cannot support plant life, it is called

a. desertification.

b. depletion.

c. deforestation.

d. monoculture.

Answers

Answer:

a. desertification.

Explanation:

Desertification can be defined as encroachment of deserts to  areas that were not originally deserts which leads to loss of biological productivity. desertification is caused by some factors which are

Climate Changehuman activitiesloss of moisturedrought.

When the above mentioned factors   farming, overgrazing, climate change, and/or seasonal drought  set in then it changed farmland into land that cannot support plant life.

When farming, overgrazing, climate change, and/or seasonal drought change farmland into land that cannot support plant life, it is called a. desertification. option A

What is Desertification?

Desertification is the process through which grasslands and shrublands in drylands, also known as arid and semi-arid lands, decline and eventually vanish. A form of land deterioration known as desertification occurs when biological production in drylands decreases as a result of a combination of natural and human-caused factors, turning productive areas arid.

Desertification is a form of land degradation that takes place in arid regions. It has an impact on the ability of the land to provide ecosystem services, including food production and biodiversity hosting, to name the most well-known ones.

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Glycogen is stored mainly in which tissues

Answers

Answer:

In humans, glycogen is made and stored primarily in the cells of the liver and skeletal muscle.

Insulin converts blood sugar to glycogen and stores it in Liver

Glycogen is primarily stored in the liver and muscles.

How is glycogen stored

In the liver, glycogen serves as a reservoir of glucose that can be released into the bloodstream to maintain normal blood glucose levels between meals. In muscles, glycogen functions as a source of energy during exercise or physical activity.

The liver has the highest glycogen storage capacity among all tissues, allowing it to store and release large amounts of glucose as needed. Muscle glycogen, on the other hand, is primarily used to provide energy for muscle contraction during exercise.

Other tissues in the body can also store small amounts of glycogen, but the liver and muscles are the major sites of glycogen storage.

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A photosystem consists of what structures?

Answers

Answer:

is B

Explanation:

A photosystem consists of two closely linked components that are as follows:

The antenna complex. The reaction center.

What is Photosystem?

Photosystems may be defined as pigment-containing protein complexes that possess reaction centers that convert radiant energy into chemical energy. These systems are considered the functional units for photosynthesis.

Photosystems are typically found in the thylakoid membranes. There are two types of photosystems known till now. They are photosystem I (PSI) and photosystem II (PSII).

Photosystem I works on the wavelength of 700 nm, while photosystem II works on the wavelength of 680 nm.

The antenna complex is formed by hundreds of pigment molecules that capture photons and transfer the harvested light energy. While the reaction center possesses Chlorophyll a molecule in a matrix of protein.

When this excitation energy finally reaches chlorophyll a that is present at the reaction center, electron transfer begins through an electron transport chain.

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The half-life of Carbon-14 is 5730 years. Suppose a fossil is found with 50% of Carbon-14 as compared to a living sample. How old is the fossil?

Answers

Answer:

5732 years

Explanation:

Radioactive decay can be determined by using the equation:

[tex]N_t = N_0e^{- \lambda t}[/tex]

where;

[tex]N_t[/tex] = number of decayed atoms at time (t)

[tex]N_0[/tex] = initial number of decayed atoms

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = decay constant

So, if we equate the natural log of the above; we have:

[tex]In(N_t) = In(N_0)-\lambda t[/tex]

[tex]\frac{In(N_t)} { In(N_0)}} = -\lambda t[/tex]

where;

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = [tex]\frac{0.693}{t_{1/2}}[/tex]

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = [tex]\frac{0.693}{5730}[/tex]

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = [tex]1.209*10^{-4[/tex]

[tex]In(\frac{50}{100}) =-(1.209 *10^{-4})*t[/tex]

[tex]-0.693 = -(1.209*10^{-4})*t[/tex]

[tex]t= \frac{0.693}{1.209*10^{-4}}[/tex]

t = 5732.01 years

t = 5732 years.

Hence, the fossil is 5732 years old.

Answer: 5730 years

Explanation:

Because it takes 5730 years for half of a sample of carbon-14 atoms to decay. It says that 50% of the carbon atoms have decayed so that means that 5730 years have elapsed for that fossil.

A 60-year-old G4P4 woman presents with a two-year history of urine leakage with activity such as coughing, sneezing and lifting. Her past medical history is significant for vaginal deliveries of infants over 9 pounds. She had a previous abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine fibroids. She is on vaginal estrogen for atrophic vaginitis. Physical exam shows no anterior, apical or posterior wall vaginal prolapse. Vagina is well-estrogenized. Post-void residual was normal. Q-tip test showed a straining angle of 60 degrees from the horizontal. Cough stress test showed leakage of urine synchronous with the cough. Cystometrogram revealed the absence of detrusor instability. The patient failed pelvic muscle exercises and was not interested in an incontinence pessary. Which of the following is the best surgical option for this patient?A. Retropubic urethropexyB. Needle suspensionC. Anterior repairD. Urethral bulking procedureE. Colpocleisis

Answers

Answer:

A. Retropubic urethropexy

Explanation:

Since it is stated that the woman has a two-year history of urine leakage and had a previous abdominal hysterectomy. These are indications of GSI i.e. Genuine Stress Incontinence, a condition in which increments of intra-abdominal pressure produce involuntary urine loss.

Both urethral hypermobility and  Intrinsic Sphincteric Deficiency (ISD) are causes of stress urinary incontinence. Only Retropubic urethropexy is best for patients suffering from GSI due to both hypermobility and  Intrinsic Sphincteric Deficiency (ISD). The other options can only address one or none of the specified causes.

What cellular components are responsible for small molecule transport within the cytoplasm?
A.
flagella
B.
mitochondria
C.
proteins
D.
chromosomes
E.
vesicles
Reset

Answers

I believe the answer is c
C proteins

You have 2 there are carrier proteins and channel proteins and deal with transportation

A microbial ecologist wants to study a bacterium that is adapted to growth in lake water containing very low nutrient concentrations. Assuming that a suitable growth medium is available for this organism, which type of culture would be best to use for growing this organism in the lab?
A) this organism cannot be grown in the lab.
B) a batch culture using a low-nutrient medium
C) on Petri plates containing a low-nutrient medium
D) a chemostat using a low-nutrient medium

Answers

Answer is option "D"

Explanation:

The continuous procedure was single-arrange chemostat development without distribution, henceforth the procedure is persistently taken care of with the development medium and the way of life stock is pulled back at a similar rate so as to keep up the bioreactor volume steadyChemostats have for some time been another supported stage for exploratory advancement, and were, truth be told, developed for this application. A chemostat is a development vessel into which a crisp medium is conveyed at a steady rate and cells and spent medium flood at that equivalent rate. In this way, the way of life is compelled to gap to stay aware of the weakening, and the framework exists in a steady-state where information sources coordinate yieldsHence, the right answer is option D "a chemostat using a low-nutrient medium"

For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogenous base of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogenous bases. Thus, labeling the nitrogenous bases would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The aim of the Hershey and Chase experiment was to show that DNA and not proteins are the genetic material.

Proteins are made up of amino acids which also has a nitrogenous base. Since the whole point of the experiment was to differentiate between the two i.e. show which one is the genetic material, it would be impossible to differentiate between DNA and proteins if the nitrogenous base was labelled.

Systematists have used a wide variety of traits to reconstruct the phylogenies of particular groups of organisms. Which one of the following traits produces a good estimate of phylogeny?
1. molecular traits
2. gross morphological traits
3. behavioral traits
4. biochemical traits
5. all of the above traits combined

Answers

Answer:

5. all of the above traits combined

Explanation:

Phylogeny has to do with the study of evolutionary relationships among living organisms based on the premise of the theory of organic evolution that states that all living organisms came from a common ancestor.

Phylogeny incorporates molecular, morphological, anatomical, biochemical and behavioural traits in order to arrive at a phylogenetic tree that represents ancestral lineages.

Hence, the correct option is option 5.

Answer:

5-All of the above

Explanation:

A phylogenetic tree is a diagram that shows the evolutionary relationships between various biological organisms. During the construction of the phylogenetic tree systematists observe different types of traits, such as:

Derived traits-A trait found in the present organism, but was absent in the ancestor organism.Ancestral trait- A trait that the present organism inherited from their ancestral organism.

A concept that there is a specific time in an organism's development during which external factors have a unique and irreversible impact is:

A. ethology
B. equifinality
C. critical period
D. zone of proximal development

Answers

Answer:

C. Critical period.

Explanation:

Critical period:

In developmental biology, ciritical period is also known as sensitive period which is defined as a period or stage of maturation in the organism's lifespan in which nervous system is more sensitive to various environmental stimulus. Means, brain cell connections are more receptive to influence from surrounding environmental factors. Our body's many cruical functions including behavior are established during critical period with irreversible impact.

Cells grown in laboratory culture dishes undergo only a fixed number of division before dying. The number of possible divisions drops depending on the age of the donor organism. This phenomenon is called the

Answers

Answer:

Hayflick limit

Explanation:

The Hayflick limit, or Hayflick phenomenon, is the number of times a normal human cell population will divide before cell division stops. It was postulated by Leonard Hayflick in 1961,

Select the best description of the negative selection process of lymphocyte maturation.
A) teaching a lymphocyte to recognize "self" from foreign antigens
B) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells
C) removal of lymphocytes that fail to recognize "self" cells
D) allowing the survival of lymphocytes that cannot bind to MHC proteins

Answers

Answer:

B) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells

Explanation:

By negative selection, we mean to say that the lymphocytes which are reacting with self cells too strongly must undergo apoptosis otherwise they will cause auto-immunity which will lead to destruction of self cells.

Before negative selection, the naive lymphocytes undergo positive selection during which they are allowed to interact with MHC-I or MHC-II. This kind of selection is necessary so as to ensure that the selected lymphocytes have affinity towards MHC molecule for generation of effective immune response whenever it is required. All those cells that do not recognize self antigen undergo apoptosis because they are useless and the lymphocytes which recognize MHC moderately are selected for the next stage which is negative selection.

Once these lymphocytes have passed test for positive selection, they have to undergo test for negative selection. All those lymphocytes which are interacting very strongly with self antigen are rejected and finally undergo apoptosis.

Final answer:

Negative selection in lymphocyte maturation refers to the removal of lymphocytes that react with the body's own cells to prevent potential auto-immune diseases.

Explanation:

The best description of the negative selection process of lymphocyte maturation is B) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells.

During maturation, lymphocytes undergo a process whereby those that recognise and therefore would react to "self" antigens, are eliminated. This is a crucial part of immune system development because if these "self-reacting" cells were allowed to remain, they could potentially attack the body's own cells, leading to auto-immune diseases.

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Which of the following is the earliest step in transcription? A. RNA polymerase encounters a termination signal, and the DNA molecule is released. B. Complementary RNA nucleotides are synthesized and added to the mRNA molecule. C. Introns are excised from the pre-mRNA strand. D. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter on the template strand of DNA.

Answers

Answer:

D.

Explanation:

Transcription is the first step in gene expression. It involves duplicating a gene's DNA sequence to make an RNA molecule.

It is performed by enzymes called RNA polymerases, which link nucleotides to form an RNA strand (using a DNA strand as a template)

Answer: D. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter on the template strand of DNA.

Explanation: The first step in transcription is termed initiation step. In this step, the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a region or section of a gene called the promoter. This specific action results to the signalling of the DNA to unwind so the enzyme can decode the bases in the DNA strands. The enzyme now make a strand of mRNA with contemporary bases.

After teaching a class about the endocrine system, the instructor determines that the students need additional instruction when they identify which of the following as an endocrine gland?
A)
Pancreas
B)
Adrenal gland
C)
Testes
D)
Kidneys

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is D)  Kidneys

Explanation:

The endocrine system contains the glands which secrete their secretion called hormone directly in the blood because their target organs are situated distantly from them where the hormone reach through blood.

Pancreas, adrenal gland, and testes are the endocrine glands which secrete hormones directly in the blood. The kidney is not an endocrine gland and does not secrete any hormone. The kidney is responsible for filtering blood and removal of nitrogenous and other waste from the body. Therefore the correct answer is D.

Why is scarcity the basis of all economic decisions? Describe how the role of the government in a society influences the three economic questions. (Site 1)

Answers

Answer:

Scarcity is the basis of all economic decision because it will not go away. No matter what there will always be scarcity. It is impossible for the government to provide everything for their people. There are costs for every economic choice the government makes. There is a limit on what we need to produce product whether it is time, money or effort. The government decides the budget of something to be produce. They decide how to make things a certain way. And they choose the how the resources are beneficial to the environment. Scarcity will always be here so we have to learn to make decisions with it.            

Explanation:

I put this on edge and got it right

Scarcity is the basis of all economic decision because it will not go away. No matter what there will always be scarcity.

What is the impossible task of the government?

It is impossible for the government to provide everything for their people. There are costs for every economic choice the government makes. There is a limit on what we need to produce product whether it is time, money or effort. The government decides the budget of something to be produce. They decide how to make things a certain way.

They choose the how the resources are beneficial to the environment. Scarcity will always be here so we have to learn to make decisions with it. Goods and services are produced through natural resources, which are mostly scarce. In this way, economic theory aims to rationalize the production and distribution of these goods and services to satisfy the demands of society.

Therefore, Scarcity is the basis of all economic decision because it will not go away. No matter what there will always be scarcity.

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Overactive sebaceous glands can cause:________a) fine hairs on the forehead to become brittle. b) the forehead's skin to become dry. c) bacteria on the forehead's skin to grow and multiply freely. d) seborrhea, a disease characterized by red, itchy lesions on the scalp.

Answers

Answer:

d) seborrhea, a disease characterized by red, itchy lesions on the scalp.

Explanation:

Sebaceous gland are the glands which are usually present beneath the skin and with the hair follicles. They are also known as oil-producing glands as they released sebum.  

If the sebaceous gland becomes too active and secrete extra sebum than it can cause a condition called Seborrhoea. In Seborrhoea microbe  like Malassezia fungi species colonizes the area where sebum is produced and initiates local inflammatory response which causes scaly patches,  itchy lesions, and red skin. So the correct answer is d.

Final answer:

Overactive sebaceous glands primarily cause seborrhea, which is characterized by red, itchy lesions on the scalp. The glands produce excessive sebum resulting in this condition, while options a, b, and c are not direct consequences of overactive sebaceous glands.

Explanation:

Overactive sebaceous glands in the skin can lead to various outcomes, but the most corresponding answer to this question is option d) seborrhea, a disease characterized by red, itchy lesions on the scalp. The sebaceous glands produce an oily substance called sebum, which plays a critical role in the protection and nourishment of skin. However, when these glands become overactive, they generate excessive amounts of sebum. This excess sebum can result in a condition known as seborrhea, displaying symptoms of redness, itchiness, and flaky skin particularly on the scalp. Options a, b, and c are not direct effects of overactive sebaceous glands.

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________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. ________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. Dendritic cells Melanocytes Merkel cells Squamous cells Basal cells

Answers

The cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system are called dendritic cells. Dendritic cells are specialized antigen-presenting cells that play a crucial role in initiating and regulating immune responses.So option a is correct.

Dendritic cells are a type of antigen-presenting cell (APC) that are essential for the initiation and regulation of immune responses. They are widely distributed throughout the body, including the skin, where they are referred to as Langerhans cells. In the skin, dendritic cells, specifically Langerhans cells, are found in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. They have long, branching extensions called dendrites, which resemble the branches of a tree. These dendritic extensions are crucial for capturing and processing antigens.

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________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. Dendritic cells

Melanocytes Merkel cells

Squamous cells

Basal cells

Final answer:

Langerhans cells are part of the immune system and are found in the epidermis. These dendritic cells take up antigens and present them to the immune system. Melanocytes produce melanin, while Merkel cells respond to touch, and squamous and basal cells have other functions related to skin integrity and regeneration.

Explanation:

The cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system are known as Langerhans cells. These dendritic cells are located within the stratum basale layer of the epidermis and act as sentinels to protect the skin. Langerhans cells are responsible for taking up antigens, which are molecules that induce an immune response, and presenting them to T cells, a crucial function in the body's defense system.

As for the other cells mentioned, melanocytes are responsible for producing the pigment melanin which protects the skin from UV light, while Merkel cells respond to light touch and are connected to nerve endings in the dermis. Squamous cells, or keratinocytes, make up about 90% of the epidermal cells and are involved in creating a barrier against environmental damage. Lastly, basal cells are found in the stratum basale and are responsible for the production of new keratinocytes.

What are the two groups that are adapted to anaerobic conditions and contain modified mitochondria that lack dna?

Answers

The Diplomonads and Parabasalids are the two groups that are adapted to anaerobic conditions and contain modified mitochondria that lack DNA.

Explanation:

The existence of a mitochrondrial-remnant organelle and nonfunctional, named a mitosome distinguishes diplomonads. Parabasalids are distinguished by a semi-functional mitochondria termed as hydrogenosome; they are made up of parasitic protists, including Trichomonas vaginalis.

Diplomonads function in anaerobic circumstances, and use alternate pathways to generate energy, like glycolysis. Growing cell of the diplomonad has two identical nuclei and utilizes multiple locomotive flagella. Trichomonas vaginalis, a parabasalid that induces a human sexually transmitted infection, uses these pathways to pass via the urogenital tracts of males and females.

Coral bleaching, which causes high coral mortality, has been occurring widely in coral reefs. Coral bleaching actually refers to the death of symbiotic dinoflagellates living within the corals. Why does coral bleaching cause the corals to die

Answers

Coral Bleaching

Explanation:

Coral bleaching, which causes high coral mortality, has been happening broadly in coral reefs. Coral  bleaching really alludes to the  death of symbiotic dinoflagellates living inside the corals. Dinoflagellates give supplements from the results of photosynthesis which are fundamental for zooxanthellae endurance.  Coral reefs are vital to the science of our planet, however in the previous scarcely any decades, they have endured a serious decay because of an assortment of common and anthropogenic unsettling influences. Natural effects of coral blanching and related mortality Bleached corals are probably going to have diminished development rates, diminished regenerative limit, expanded powerlessness to maladies and raised death rates. Decreases in hereditary and species assorted variety may happen when corals pass on because of dying.
Final answer:

Coral bleaching causes corals to die by disrupting the symbiotic relationship between the corals and the algae within them. The algae provide the corals with food through photosynthesis, so when they are expelled, the corals lose their source of nutrition and eventually die.

Explanation:

Coral bleaching is a serious issue threatening the survival of coral reefs, primarily caused by rising ocean water temperatures due to climate change and human activities. The phenomenon of bleaching occurs when corals, stressed by the heat, expel the symbiotic dinoflagellates, known as zooxanthellae. These zooxanthellae are crucial as they provide the corals with essential nutrients through the process of photosynthesis, having a mutualistic relationship with the coral polyps. Without these dinoflagellates, the corals lose their vibrant colors and, more significantly, their main source of energy, leading to mortality if the stress conditions persist.

Further exacerbating the situation, increased levels of atmospheric CO2 are absorbed by ocean waters, causing a decrease in pH and leading to ocean acidification. This acidification hampers the coral's ability to perform calcification, which is necessary for building their calcium carbonate skeletons. Without the ability to maintain their skeletons, the corals become weak and more susceptible to death. The decline of coral reefs has a profound impact on marine biodiversity, ecosystem services, and the economies that rely on them.

What are the small channels which connect osteocytes within an osteon?

Answers

Answer:

Haversian canals

Explanation:

Osteoblasts are the cells which form a mature bone and the osteocyte cells which helps in the resorption and deposition in the cell. The osteocytes are also involved in calcium removal and help remove the skeletal deformations.

The outer side of the bone is connected with each the blood vessels and the nerves through which osteocytes are also connected is known as the Haversian canals. The Haversian canals are the tubes which are microscopic present in the bone.

Thus, Haversian canals are correct.

Answer: Haversian canals

Explanation:

The haversian canals are the microscopic tubules or tunnels in the cortical bone of the nerve fibers that have few capillaries. These canals helps to provide the oxygen and nutrition to the bones. The haversian canals forms a channel within the osteon or bone cells which keeps the bone cell together.

These haversian canals helps in communication within the cells that occur through connections called as canaliculi.

What is the importance of manipulation and control in the experimental method?

Answers

This is an experiment where the researcher manipulates one variable, and control/randomizes the rest of the variables. It has a control group, the subjects have been randomly assigned between the groups, and the researcher only tests one effect at a time.

The following data were obtained from pour plates used to test the effectiveness of a food preservative. Two samples of cottage cheese were inoculated with bacteria; the preservative was added to one sample. After incubation, samples of the cottage cheese (control) and samples treated with the preservative (experimental) were diluted and plated on nutrient agar. Calculate the number of bacteria. Was the preservative effective

Answers

Answer:

The colony-forming unit includes the fungal or the bacterial cells and can be used for the cell counting. The colony forming unit is used for the viable cells.

The cfu/ ml can be calculated as follows:

cfu/ml=(no. of colonies × dilution factor)/volume of culture plate

In control:

We have given, the no. of colonies=160

, dilution factor=400  and volume=1ml

The cfu of the control is

cfu/ml(control)=(160 × 400)/1=64000 cfu/ml

For the experimental data,

We have given the no. of colonies=32

, dilution factor=200  and volume=0.1 ml

.

cfu/ml=32 × 200/0.1=64000 cfu/ml

.

Since, the cfu of the control and the experiment is equal, the preservative is of no use.

Final answer:

To determine the effectiveness of a food preservative, the number of bacteria can be calculated by counting the colonies on the pour plates. By comparing the number of colonies in the control and experimental samples, the effectiveness of the preservative can be determined.

Explanation:

The number of bacteria can be calculated by counting the number of colonies on the pour plates. The control sample represents the growth of bacteria without the preservative, while the experimental sample represents the growth of bacteria with the preservative. By comparing the number of colonies in each sample, you can determine the effectiveness of the preservative. If the experimental sample has significantly fewer colonies than the control sample, it suggests that the preservative is effective in inhibiting bacterial growth.

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A grasshopper jumps along a line. His first jump takes him 1 cm., the second 2 cm, etc. Each jump can take him to the right or to the left. Prove that after 2017 jumps, the grasshopper cannot be in the same location it started.

Answers

Answer:

The grasshopper cannot be in the same location it started because by 2017, it would have covered a distance of 1017576.5 to either left or right. and that distance is not an integer.

Explanation:

The grasshopper jumps in integer of 1 cm to either right or left

Calculating for the total distance covered in 2017 jumps

Total Distance = (2017 x 2018)/2 = 2035153 cm

To either right or left: this implies that the total distance be divided by 2

=> 1017576.5 cm

It shows that at some point, the grasshopper will not be in a position of integer on either right or left.

Therefore, it can not get to its initial point of start.

Final answer:

To prove that after 2017 jumps the grasshopper cannot be in the same location it started, we can calculate the total distance covered by the grasshopper. By using the formula for the sum of an arithmetic series, we find that the grasshopper would have covered a total distance of 2036171 cm after 2017 jumps. Therefore, the grasshopper cannot be in the same location it started.

Explanation:

To prove that after 2017 jumps the grasshopper cannot be in the same location it started, we need to consider the distance covered by each jump. The grasshopper jumps 1 cm in the first jump, 2 cm in the second, and so on. We can observe that the distance covered in each jump is increasing by 1 cm. Therefore, after 2017 jumps, the grasshopper would have covered a total distance of 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 2017 cm.

To find this total distance, we can use the formula for the sum of an arithmetic series: S_n = (n/2) * (a_1 + a_n), where S_n is the sum of the first n terms, a_1 is the first term, and a_n is the nth term. In this case, n = 2017, a_1 = 1, and a_n = 2017.

Substituting these values into the formula, we get S_n = (2017/2) * (1 + 2017) = 2017/2 * 2018 = 2036171 cm.

Based on this calculation, we can conclude that after 2017 jumps, the grasshopper would have covered a total distance of 2036171 cm. Since this distance is greater than zero, it is impossible for the grasshopper to be in the same location it started.

Glucose is the primary fuel for cellular respiration. Which molecules can also be used by cellular respiration to generate atp?

Answers

Lipids and proteins
(however our bodies mostly break down sugars e.g. glucose and are the only molecules we can break down without the need for oxygen)
Final answer:

Besides glucose, cellular respiration can use starch, sucrose, galactose, lactose, mannitol, fats, and the carbohydrate portion of amino acids for ATP generation.

Explanation:

While glucose is the primary fuel for cellular respiration, other molecules can also be utilized to generate ATP. In addition to glucose, substances like starch, sucrose, galactose, lactose, and mannitol can be used in glycolysis. Fats and the carbohydrate portion of amino acids from proteins can also serve as fuel for cellular respiration. These compounds are metabolized within various pathways in the cell such as glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. The ability of the cell to use alternative sources for ATP synthesis is critical for organisms to maintain energy balance and adapt to varying nutritional availability.

Joan goes to a therapist to learn how to become more assertive. The therapist uses a training technique in which he portrays a social antagonist and Joan portrays herself. Together, they act out the problem situation. This therapeutic technique is called ______.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: role-playing.

Explanation:

Role-playing is a technique used in psychotherapy for the treatment of phobia.

Phobias are a learned response to a stimulus that must be unlearned in order to overcome it.

In role-playing therapy, the therapist acts as the person who the patient is afraid to confront, and then the patient responds with the techniques learned in the sessions.

Answer:

Joan goes to a therapist to learn how to become more assertive. The therapist uses a training technique in which he portrays a social antagonist and Joan portrays herself. Together, they act out the problem situation. This therapeutic technique is called role-playing

Explanation:

Role play is an educational technique in which people spontaneously act-out problems of human relations and analyse th eneactment with the help of the oher role players and observers. Educational roleplay asks each student to take the role  of the person affected by an issue and studies the impacts of the issues on human life and the effects of human activities on the world around us from the perspective of that person.

Hence in the above scenario, Joan is using role-playing.

Four of the five processes listed below will disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Select the exception. a. natural selection b. genetic drift c. punctuated equilibrium d. non-random mating e. migration

Answers

Answer:

B, C, D, and E

Explanation:

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is defined as the model that explains the relationship between phenotypic and genotypic frequencies relationship, using the five assumptions of:

No mutationNo migrationNo selectionRandom matingInfinite population

Answer:

natural selection, genetic drift, non-random mating, and migration (option A, B, D, and E)

Explanation:

In the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle, the frequencies of alleles and genotypes remain the same in a population, from generation to generation, with no net change in allele or genotype frequencies. This means, no evolutionary change is occurring in the population. However, for this principle to hold, the following conditions must be present, which are:  

There must be random mating, that is every individual of the population has an equal chance of mating with any other member the population There must be no net mutation  The population size must be large enough to reduce the probability of the allele frequencies to change by genetic drift caused by random fluctuations, as common in a small population size Absence of migration of individuals into the population or outside the population Absence of natural selection which can cause some phenotypes to be selected against others

Therefore, the 4 processes, out of the 5 processes listed, that can disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in a population are natural selection, genetic drift, non-random mating, and migration (option A, B, D, and E)

A punctuated equilibrium would not, as the population is said to be stable or become stable over a long period of time with little evolutionary change in the course of life.

In the example of adrenaline signaling used in the animation, suppose each amplification step produces hundredfold active molecules. How many total modified protein target molecules result from a single activated signal receptor? A. 300 B. 900 C. 10,000 D. 1,000,000 E. 100,000,000

Answers

Answer:

Option D. 1000000

Explanation:

Adrenaline signaling occurs when the the hormones clings to the cell surface of the Adrenaline receptor.

The total modified protein target molecules resulting from a single activated signal receptor is 1,000,000 and this results in the consumption of 100 molecules of Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and 1,010,000 molecules of Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Why are we more vigilant about zoonotic diseases for the gametogenesis lab?

Answers

Let's add the missing piece of information:

In this part of the lab we'll be taking some reasonable precautions to make sure that we don't allow undue contact between cat/dog parasites and the interior of our bodies.

Why are we more vigilant about zoonotic diseases for the Gametogenesis lab?

[Please remember to wash your hands!]

- The samples are fresh (they were very recently a part of a living organism.)

- The samples are from warm-blooded animals which have similar diseases to ours

- The samples are from mammals, so their parasites are closer evolved to us

- We are using sharp tools and razor blades, making access into our bloodstream potentially easier

All answers indicates the need for necessary precautions in the course of the experiment.

Explanation:

A zoonosis (plural zoonoses, or zoonotic diseases) is an infectious disease which originated from bacteria, viruses, or parasites that moves from non-human animals (mainly vertebrates) to humans. Major contemporary diseases like Ebola virus disease and salmonellosis are zoonoses.

Zoonoses have varying forms of transmission. In direct zoonosis the disease is mainly transmitted from other animals to humans via media e.g. air (influenza) or via bites and saliva (rabies).

Transmission could also be through an intermediate species (known as a vector), that serve as host for the disease pathogen as it is not affected by the diseases presence.

The need to be vigilant in the course of the lab experiment to avoid infection and transmission from one Hunan to another.

Answer:

Diseases which are spread from animals( higher animals )other than man  to  human  being are called zoonosis. They are caused by bacteria, viruses,  fungi and parasites in theses animals, and through bites, domestication, droplets contacts, farming, and hunting are passed to human. Some are also transmitted as vectors.

Statistically, they  represented  61%  of  thousands of pathogens known to have infected human.

Answers.

Therefore during process of Gametogeneis and other experiemntal procedures in the laboratory,  a lot of vigilance is needed because,

→In most cases to guarantee the experimental success, they are needed fresh to be used in the laboratory, thus careful measures not to have contact with the possible infected fluid and blood of these animals  is needed.

→Human shared the almost same  physiological make up with these animals, thus it is easy for human to also serve as host for the same pathogens that they harbour, thus during lab.preparations necessary protection to guide against these  should be taken

→Experimental procedures may involved laceration, and which involved blood spillage and contacts.Therefore necessary measures is needed to avoid unnecessary cuts which may lead to infections transmission and possible  contamination.

Explanation:

D

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