Answer: Temperament is a need which drives or motivates a person to act according to their natural, innate tendencies. If the needs are not met, the individual will not feel well about themselves or function efficiently. A temperament need represents what is important and highly desirable in the core of an individual.
Explanation: HOPE THIS HELPS!
A young adult is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. When the LPN/LVN places the client's hand over his head, it remains in that position. The LPN/LVN understands that this is a description of which of the following?a) conversion hysteria.
b) waxy flexibility.
c) dystonic reaction.
d) neurasthenia.
Answer:
b. waxy flexibility
Explanation:
Waxy flexibility -
It is the symptom of catatonia , which is linked with some mental disorder like , bipolar disorder , schizophrenia etc.
In this symptom the person is not able to respond to any external as well as internal stimuli , and remain in a stable and constant posture .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
The correct answer is b. waxy flexibility .
Sylvia is almost nine months pregnant and very close to her delivery date. The doctors have found that she has an active case of genital herpes. Which of the following is the best course of action to prevent Sylvia’s baby from contracting the disease?
a. Perform a cesarean section
b. Terminate the pregnancy
c. Deliver the baby through the birth canal
d. Give the baby blood transfusions
The best course of action to prevent Sylvia’s baby from contracting genital herpes is to [ option a ] perform a cesarean section (C-section).
This methodology lessens the gamble of the child being contaminated during conveyance. Prenatal antiviral medication can assist in reducing outbreaks prior to birth.
This is very important because delivering a baby through the birth canal could put the baby at risk of getting the infection, which can lead to serious problems. Antiviral medication is part of the last month of pregnancy's prenatal care for women with genital herpes to reduce the likelihood of an outbreak at delivery. Notwithstanding, in the event that a flare-up happens during work, a C-segment is firmly prescribed to forestall neonatal HSV.With _____ conflict, team members disagree because their different experiences and expertise lead them to different views of the problem and solutions.
Answer:rr
COGNITIVE CONFLICTS
Explanation:
Cognitive conflict happens when a person is confronted with information or idea that contradicts his or her own beliefs, value and ideas or the emotional discomfort that a person feels when his or her beliefs contradict each other. Example
Cognitive conflict can happen in a workplace when employees has different ideas about how to perform or carry out a given task and they start to contradict each other based on their beliefs , idea or value in order to make a work related decision .
Therefore when team members disagree because their different experiences and expertise lead them to different views of the problem and solutions it is called COGNITIVE CONFLICTS.
Answer:
Cognitive
Explanation:
Cognitive conflict is used to describe a kind of feeling or emotional discomfort whereby an individual's feeling, ideas or emotion goes contrary to their prior knowledge.
In the. situation where each individuals in the team have a different disagree because of their different experience we can say that the conflict experienced there is cognitive conflict.
To remember the four bases found in DNA-thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine-Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself, "The Girl Ate Cookies." Which of the following did Luke use in this scenario?
1. The method of loci
2. A mnemonic device
3. Chunking
4. Rhyming
Answer: 2)
A mnemonic device
Explanation: A mnemonic is a tool or memory aid that helps people to remember or memorize things easily. It helps you to remember an idea or phrase with a pattern of letters, numbers, or relatable associations. Mnemonic devices may include special rhymes and poems, acronyms, images, songs, outlines, and other tools. In the question Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself to help him remember more easily the bases of DNA. In other words Luke formed mnemonics using the first letters of the DNA bases to remember them easily.
"According to the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, what is the ideal treatment plan for individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?"
The nurse is discussing acne vulgaris with a group of adolescents. The teenagers make the following statements regarding the topic. Which statement is the most accurate regarding acne vulgaris?
a) "Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup."
b) "There is a new immunization that you can get to keep from having acne."
c) "My mom says I have acne because I eat too much chocolate."
d) "My next door neighbor told me that acne was caused by a fungus."
Answer:
A. Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's make-up
Explanation:
Acne is as a result of blockage of the pilosebaceous units (hair follicles and their accompanying sebaceous gland).
The make up blocks the pores and allows build up of dead cells which eventually breaks out as acne.
Answer:
a) Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup.
Explanation:
Acne vulgaris is a skin disease involving the sebaceous glands found at the root of hair follicles. It commonly occurs during the pubertal phase of growth when the oil glands are active. Acne vulgaris is characterized by pimples, blackheads, cysts, and spots which are mostly found on the face, back, neck, chest and shoulders.
Acne occurs when sebaceous glands are blocked and infected by a bacteria called propionibacterium acnes.
Risk factors and causes of acne vulgaris include; genetic factors, hot climate, oily and greasy makeups, menstruations and hormonal changes.
It can be treated by using over-the-counter medications such as benzoyl peroxide, sulfur, salicylic acid, azelaic acid, antibiotics and also soaps and gels etc.
Dr. Frank is a therapist who believes that psychological disorders can be caused by neurotransmitter imbalances in the brain. Dr. Frank takes which perspective on human behavior?
Answer:
Biological
Explanation:
Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from ______ syndrome.
Answer:
Turner syndrome.
Explanation:
Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.
Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.
Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.
Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from Turner syndrome.
What is Turner syndrome?
Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. It may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.Learn more:
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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
Select the phrase that correctly completes the statement. Please Help me its for a test!!
(Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella,Shigella ) ____________ is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.
Mike ate plain deli meat from the refrigerator and then got sick. _________( Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella ) made him ill.
Pathogens are those organisms which are capable of releasing toxins in the body.
What are toxins?Toxins are those dangerous substances which are capable of causing damages in the body. They may be released by pathogens.
The organism Clostridium botulinum is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.
The microorganism which is commonly reputed to cause food poisoning is Clostridium perfringens which must be contained in the meat which Mike ate.
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Answer:
Not sure about the first one; might be Clostridium perfringens, second one is Listeria monocytogenes
Explanation:
this is what i got
Which theory would suggest that watching a horror movie late at night could make you more likely to interpret unfamiliar, faint sounds in your home as threatening as you subsequently tried to fall asleep?
Answer: Signal detection theory
Explanation:
Signal detection theory is the concept that defines about ability to distinguish between information contained stimulus and random stimulus pattern that disturbs the focus from information. Distraction can be created through noise-like factors.
According to the question, horror movie can induce random pattern which makes a person interpret about noises or sound while falling asleep because of distractions which does not happen while sleeping normally (without watching horror movie) as information-oriented pattern .Thus, it depicts signal detection theory.
A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?
A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis-This is an example of Internal evidence.
Explanation:
Internal Evidence refers to the practice data that is found in the health care records of a nursing home/clicnic.
On the other hand ,the external evidence are based on the information that is collected from various scientific research
In the statement -(A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis) the information related to the pilot program was obtained through internal evidence .
so we can say that the internal evidence factor has proven most effective in this decision
Internal evidence
Explanation:
Evidence-based practice is very crucial in healthcare services like nursing. This involves using the right evidence to make medical decisions regarding patient care. This is done by the combination of research, clinical expertise and patient preference.
This provides better healthcare outcomes, reduces healthcare costs, and also serves the healthcare professionals’ career.
Internal evidence includes clinical expertise, healthcare institution practice initiatives like quality improvement or outcome management project initiatives. The patient data collected through patient assessment and evaluation are also part of internal evidence .
The given case is a pilot program from the healthcare institution which provides data for internal evidence.
All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates EXCEPT _________?
A) Bread
B) Soft drinks
C) Pasta
D) Rice
Answer:
the answer is soft drinks
Explanation:
Because Carbohydrates are essential to the body. They are sugars or starches that provide energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.
There are two different types of carbohydrates: simple and complex. People should limit their intake of simple carbohydrates, such as white bread, pasta, and rice. However, the body needs complex carbohydrates to support the following:
the immune system
brain function
the nervous system
energy to perform tasks
digestive function
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a person consumes 45–65% of their daily calories from complex carbohydrates.
The following foods contain complex carbohydrates:
quinoa
brown rice
vegetables
whole grain pasta, bread, and other baked goods
oatmeal
fruits
barley
People should avoid overly processed products that contain bleached, white flour, and foods with added sugar.
Learn the difference between good and bad carbs here.
All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates except soft drinks, hence option B is correct.
What are the sources of carbohydrates?The body needs carbohydrates to function. They are sugars or starches that supply energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.
There are two different forms of carbohydrates: simple and complicated. Simple carbs, such as white bread, pasta, and rice, should be consumed in moderation.
The macronutrient category of carbohydrates includes a wide variety of foods and beverages. The majority of carbohydrates are found naturally in foods made from plants, such grains. Additionally, processed food makers add carbs in the form of starch or extra sugar.
Therefore, option (B) Soft drinks is correct.
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Weight gain occurs when a person consumes too much/many
A. calories
B. fat
C. carbohydrates
D. protein
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
Oo oo
In the "permission theory" of mood disorders, low ______ activity opens the door to a mood disorder and permits other neurotransmitters to define the form of the disorder.
Answer:
physical
Explanation:
What is the main nutrition-related problem likely to be encountered by a vegan if his or her diet is not carefully selected? high cholesterol level insufficient intake of vitamin B-12 insufficient intake of complex carbohydrates insufficient intake of fibe
Answer: insufficient intake of vitamin B-12
Explanation:
The vegan diet is devoid of Vitamin B-12 which can lead to serious health complications like anemia. The Vitamin B-12 is found in animal derived food products for example, dairy, meat and eggs. There are no plant derived food which can provide sufficient amount of B-12.
Vegetarians must ensure to obtain the adequate amount of Vitamin B-12 each day to avoid a deficiency of this vitamin.
You arrive at a local community center for a 56-year-old woman complaining of chest discomfort. The women tells you that she took one of her nitroglycerin tablets about 15 minutes ago, but she still has chest discomfort. Responding paramedics are approximately 10 minutes away. You should:
A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen
B. Assume that she is experiencing angina pectorals, administer oxygen, and perform a thorough physical exam.
C. Give her up to tow more nitroglycerin tablets, place her supine and elevate her legs, and update the responding paramedics
D. Place her in a semi sitting position, assist her in taking up to 3 more nitro tablets, and administer oxygen.
Answer:
A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen
Dr. Doolittle is the veterinarian at an animal hospital. She is trying to decide whether to perform surgery on a golden retriever. She asks for advice from her two veterinary assistants. She tells one assistant, David, that of the 100 dogs who have had the same surgery, 60 survived. She tells another assistant, Judy, that of the 100 dogs who have had the same surgery, 40 died from the surgery. According to research on framing effects, what will the assistants recommend
Answer:
The correct answer would be : David would be in the favor of the surgery and Judy will not.
Explanation:
Framing effect suggests that framing any situation is play a major role over the chances of taking risk. If someone frame any situation in positive way there are more chances that the other person will take risk and if the negatively frame it one should most likely to avoid risks.
David get the information in positive way, however Judy would be affected by the negative influence.
Thus, the correct answer is - David would be in the favor of the surgery and Judy will not.
Final answer:
Research on the framing effect suggests individuals are influenced by how information is presented, with positive framing leading to more favorable recommendations and negative framing leading to more cautious recommendations.
Explanation:
The question pertains to the psychological concept known as the framing effect, which is relevant to decision-making processes. According to research on framing effects, individuals are influenced by the way information is presented to them. In this scenario, Dr. Doolittle has presented the surgery's success and failure rates in two different ways to her assistants, which might lead to different recommendations based on the positive or negative framing. It is likely that the assistant who received the information framed positively (60 survived) would recommend proceeding with the surgery, while the assistant who received the information framed negatively (40 died) might be inclined to advise against it.
The nursing student is learning about the metric system and how it is the most commonly used system of measurement in medicine. The student demonstrates an understanding of the metric system when stating which:______.
Answer:
"In the metric system, the liter is a unit of volume."
A thanks would be appreciated. Hope this helped! Have a nice day! :D
A nursing instructor is teaching pre-nursing students in a pathophysiology class. What would the instructor teach the students about Ménière's disease?
Answer:
The instructor should teach students about endolymphatic hydrops in the pathophysiology of Ménière's disease.
Explanation:
The options for this question are:
A) It is referred to as endolymphatic hydrops.
B) It originates in the middle ear.
C) It is referred to as lymphatic hydrops.
D) It originates in the outer ear.
Ménière's disease is a pathology that causes dizziness, motor instability and progressive hearing loss, as a result of disorders in the inner ear.
In the inner ear, the endolymphatic system is one of the main structures involved in the sense of balance. Obstruction of the snail aqueduct or inflammation of the labyrinth produces increased endolymphatic volume and pressure. This produces dilation of the endolymphatic duct and the symptoms of the disease.
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For individuals with cancer who are undergoing chemotherapy, bone marrow suppression places these individuals at risk for life-threatening infections. What is the most common cause of these infections?
Answer:
Overgrowth of the client's own normal flora.
Explanation:
The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is overgrowth of their own normal flora. Hand hygiene, careful preparation of food, and avoiding exposure to individuals harboring an infection help to decrease the risks secondary to external organisms. These actions however, do not affect the risk of normal flora overgrowth.
Bacterial overgrowth syndrome (BOS) is a term that describes clinical manifestations that occur when the normally low number of bacteria that inhabit the stomach, duodenum, jejunum, and proximal ileum significantly increases or becomes overtaken by other pathogens.
Aplastic anemia.
The bone marrow failure syndromes comprise a group of disorders than can be either inherited or acquired. These diseases are intrinsic disorders of the bone marrow involving disruption in the homeostasis and function of hematopoietic stem cells, resulting in inadequate production of either a single or multiple cell lines (erythroid for red cells, myeloid for white blood cells, megakaryocytic for platelets). The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is aplastic anemia and overgrowth of their own normal flora.Learn more:
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A group of students is reviewing information about the liver and associated disorders. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as a primary function of the liver?
a) Convert urea into ammonia
b) Excrete bile
c) Breakdown amino acids
d) Break down coagulation factors
Answer:
b) Excrete bile
Explanation:
The primary function associated with the liver includes to excrete bile, also helps to convert ammonia into urea, it is also associated with synthesizing the factors needed for blood coagulation and synthesizes amino acids from the breakdown of proteins.
What type of lifespan developmentalist is interested in how a person who experiences a significant or traumatic event early in life would remember that event later in life?
Answer:
Cognitive
Explanation:
Cognitive has to do with how a person perceives, remembers, thinks, judges or reasons in a particular situation.
A cognitive developmentalist is a person who studies how a child can perceive situations, process his or her thoughts, make appropriate decisions and remember certain situations that they have been in, from their childhood to their adulthood.
A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to
Answer:
Control or minimize the risk of intentional contamination.
Explanation:
A food defence plans helps to document the processes or procedures on how to control, minimise and totally stop if possible the risk associated with contaminating food intentionally.
It gives detailed procedure on how this can be achieved.
A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to:
Protect food from intentional contamination. Ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.Explanation:A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to protect food from intentional contamination by an individual or group.
It is designed to prevent acts of food terrorism and ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.
Examples of procedures in a food defense plan include implementing access controls, conducting background checks on employees, and monitoring and documenting inventory.
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A group of nursing students is reviewing information about the older adult and mobility. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which statement as accurate?
Answer:
Falls are the leading cause of death due to injury in individuals who are over the age of 75 years
Explanation:
Falls are the leading cause of deadly injury and the most common cause of nonfatal trauma-related hospital admissions among older adults. Risk factors for falls in the elderly include increasing age, medication use, cognitive impairment and and also sensory deficits.
A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?
Answer:
internal evidence
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the factor that has proven most effective in this decision was internal evidence. This factor refers to information that has been gathered from the internal sources in which the contents have been discussed. Which in this scenario were the staff of an acute medical unit within the pilot program.
Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?
ability to avoid seasonal illnesses
ability to go many years without seeing a doctor
ability to heal following injury
ability to run a marathon
The health benefit that is most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to go many years without seeing a doctor
Explanation:
Physical resilience is the ability of an individual to cope up with stress, adapt to various external and internal changes, at the same time maintain the body’s health and stamina.
Physical resilience is directly linked with a healthy body, overall well being, and a long healthy life which reduces the need for visits to a doctor or a healthcare facility to take care of any medical illness.
Healthy eating of nutritional foods, healthy mind with good mental stability, performing endurance exercises and resistance training will increase the physical resilience.
The correct option is 3. The health benefit most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to heal following injury.
Physical resilience refers to the capacity of the body to recover from or adjust easily to misfortune or change. In the context of health, this typically means the ability to bounce back from illness, injury, or other physical stressors.
Let's consider the options provided:
1. Ability to avoid seasonal illnesses: While this is a positive health outcome, it is more closely related to a strong immune system rather than physical resilience per se.
2. Ability to go many years without seeing a doctor: This could be indicative of good health, but it doesn't necessarily reflect physical resilience. It could also be due to a lack of access to healthcare services or a tendency to ignore health issues.
3. Ability to heal following injury: This is a direct measure of physical resilience. It reflects how well the body can repair itself and return to its previous state of health and functionality after suffering damage.
4. Ability to run a marathon: This reflects cardiovascular endurance and muscular fitness, which are components of physical fitness rather than resilience. While being fit can contribute to overall resilience, the ability to run a marathon is not as direct a measure of resilience as the ability to recover from injury.
The correct question is:
Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?
1. ability to avoid seasonal illnesses
2. ability to go many years without seeing a doctor
3. ability to heal following injury
4. ability to run a marathon
Studies show that _____________ is the optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being
Eustress is the optimal amount of stress that people need to promote their health and well-being.
Explanation:The optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being is called eustress. Eustress is a type of positive stress that can motivate individuals to achieve their goals and perform well. Unlike negative stress, which can be harmful to health, eustress provides a sense of excitement, energy, and fulfillment.
An example of eustress is when a student prepares for an important exam. While there may be some pressure and nerves involved, the anticipation and motivation to succeed actually enhance their performance and overall well-being. It is important to note that the optimal amount of eustress may vary for each individual, as what may be motivating and beneficial for one person may be overwhelming for another.
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A client is caring for an 8-year-old child who weighs 30 kg. The health care provider orders gentamicin IM for the client. The recommended dosage range is 2-2.5 mg/kg q8h. What is the maximum amount of gentamicin the client will receive in a day
Answer:
According to the weight of the 8-year-old child and the dose of Gentamicin recommended by the medical provider, the maximum amount of Gentamicin that the client will receive in a day is 225 mg.
Explanation:
Gentamicin is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria, such as otitis media. For a child of the age and weight range, the usual dose of Gentamicin is 2 to 2.5 mg/kg/dose.
Data:
Recommended dose of Gentamicin: 2 - 2.5 mg/Kg dose. Interval between doses: 8 hours Child weight: 30 kg.Number of doses in a day = 3 (24 hours / 8 hours = 3=Maximum daily dose = 2.5 mg X Weight X number of doses/24 h.
Maximum daily dose = 2,5 mg X 30 X 3 .
Maximum daily dose = 225 mg / 24 h .
The maximum dose of Gentamicin that the child will receive in a day is 225 mg.
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The health care provider has prescribed amiodarone for a patient with ventricular dysrhythmias. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, which statement by the patient would lead the nurse to notify the health care provider?
Answer:
I take a blood thinner so I don't get clots.
Explanation:
A ventricular dysrhythmia is the disturbance in the typical rhythm of the electrical movement of the heart which arises in the ventricles while Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medicine utilized for treating and preventing different of types of irregular heartbeats. This includes ventricular fibrillation (VF), ventricular tachycardia (VT), and wide complex tachycardia, as well as paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and atria fibrillation.
From the patient's medical history it is not advisable to prescribe an amiodarone dosage.
Answer:
I do take blood thinners , to prevent clotting.
Explanation:
Amiodarone as oral or intravenous intake is used to slowdown or prevent excessive excitation of the heart to reduce irregular heart beats.(arrhythmia), They are therefore commonly refers to as anti-arrhythmia drugs.
Arrhythmia causes accumulation of blood in the vascular system, leading to blood clotting. Therefore blood thinners are usually used by patients with arrhythmia to prevent clot.
However,usage of amiodarone and blood thinner e.g heparin, will make the blood too thin, which may lead to lysis of blood cells and profuse bleeding.
Therefore the nurse should alert the health care provider immediately, she noticed this in medical history, to review the prescription.
Why is it important to try and determine what type of snake caused the bite?