Answer:
b. waxy flexibility
Explanation:
Waxy flexibility -
It is the symptom of catatonia , which is linked with some mental disorder like , bipolar disorder , schizophrenia etc.
In this symptom the person is not able to respond to any external as well as internal stimuli , and remain in a stable and constant posture .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
The correct answer is b. waxy flexibility .
Select the correct text in the passage.
Which of these actions demonstrates unethical behavior?
Why do the amounts of tar and nicotine content reported by cigarette manufacturers not accurately reflect the amounts of these substances ingested by smokers
Answer:
This is due to the manufacturers doing the analytical measurement mechanically. This measurement is done after the cigarette production.
When the cigarettes are lit up and smoked, the nicotine content and tar reduces due to part of it being evaporated into the air. This is the reason why cigarettes that are chewed have a higher percentage of nicotine and tar ingested.
A client is being seen in the pediatric clinic for a middle ear infection. The client's mother reports that when the client develops an upper respiratory infection, an ear infection seems quick to follow. What contributes to this event? a. eustachian tubes.
b. genetics.
c. oropharynx.
d. epiglottis.
Answer: a. eustachian tubes.
Explanation:
An ear infection is usually caused due to viral infection occurring in the upper respiratory tract. The respiratory infection later cause inflammation and swelling in the Eustachian tubes of the ears. The Eustachian tube runs from the ears behind the nose to the upper part of the throat. The Eustachian tube maintains the pressure in the ear.
Due to infection in the Eustachian tubes the tubes appears swollen, blocked and fluid get filled with the eardrum. This results in the infection and inflammation of the middle ear.
When setting up a recurring appointment in an electronic scheduling system, the medical assistant should enter the information __________ and then indicate how often the appointment should recur.
Complete Question:
When setting up a recurring appointment in an electronic scheduling system, the medical assistant should enter the
information __________ and then indicate how often the appointment should recur.
A. repeatedly
B. three times
C. twice
D. once
Answer: Option D . Once
Explanation:
A recurring appointment is an appointment that occurs more than once.
A recurring appointment is used in the field of medicine to set up appointments for patients with their doctors.
A recurring appointment can be set to occur daily, weekly, monthly or yearly.
For a recurring appointment the patients information or details is entered into the system once.
Answer:
it's b
edge
Explanation:
Fernando's favorable attitude toward capital punishment began to change when he was asked to offer arguments opposing it in a class debate. His attitude is best explained by _________ theory.
Answer:
cognitive dissonance theory
Explanation:
Cognitive dissonance theory -
It refers to as the condition involved in some conflicts of beliefs , behavior or ideas , is referred to as cognitive dissonance theory .
The condition gives rise to problem and confusion in the state of mind for the thoughts .
The most common example is , people who smokes , and are aware that smoking causes cancer , and hence are in a state of cognitive dissonance .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
The correct answer is cognitive dissonance theory .
Fernando's changing attitude toward capital punishment due to opposing it in a debate is explained by cognitive dissonance theory, which describes how people resolve conflicts between their attitudes and behaviors.
Fernando's favorable attitude toward capital punishment began to change when he was asked to offer arguments opposing it in a class debate. His attitude change is best explained by the cognitive dissonance theory. This psychological theory, proposed by Leon Festinger in the 1950s, suggests that individuals experience discomfort (dissonance) when they hold two or more contradictory beliefs, attitudes, or values at the same time. To reduce this discomfort, individuals may change their attitudes or beliefs.
In Fernando's case, being required to argue against capital punishment introduced information that conflicted with his existing favorable attitude toward it. To resolve the cognitive dissonance created by this situation, Fernando began to change his attitude to align more closely with the arguments he was making against capital punishment.
A female patient presents to the emergency department with acutely deteriorating asthma. Her husband shows the nurse salme-terol when the nurse asks what medications his wife takes at home. lie then tells the nurse that he gave her three extra puffs when she became ill. What statement is correct in this situation? a. The husband made the correct decision in giving the extra doses. b. The extra doses facilitated bronchodilation and probably saved her life. c. Salmeterol is contraindicated based on his wife's condition. d. The physician will most likely order con-tinuation of the salmeterol with increased dosage.
Salmeterol is contraindicated based on his wife's condition.
Explanation:
The extra dose that the husband gave would lead to overdose of salmeterol causing serious side effects. Salmeterol is used to treat asthma. However, serious side effects may also happen due to acute overdose leading to worsening of asthma symptoms, breathing problems, sleep disturbances, muscle cramps, irregular rapid heartbeats, chest pain, fainting, seizure etc.
Hence Salmeterol should be given only per physician’s advice. In case of sudden flare-up of asthma or breathing problems, a rescue inhaler can be used instead of overdosing on Salmeterol.
A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?a) "You must have the second one in 1 year and the third the following year."b) "You must have the second one in 2 weeks and the third in 1 month."c) "You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."d) "You must have the second one in 6 months and the third in 1 year."
Answer:
"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."d
Explanation:
The standard dosage of shot duration for Hepatitis B after the first injection dosage assuming 0 is 1 month, and after this 6 months later.This is called the 3-shorts Hepatitis B vaccine.
Thus from 0, followed by 1 month and later to -6(months).This is the intervals for maximum immune response to build up resistance against the virus within limited duration
The primary objective is to get maximum protection within limited duration with a few doses of the vaccine..
A young girl complains of eye pain after having sand thrown in her face by another girl at the park. When assessing her eyes, you note large particles of sand in the right eye. The sand appears to be on the conjunctiva, which also seems to be scratched and irritated. Your initial action would be:______.a. attempt to remove the larger pieces of sand using a cotton swab.
b. gently wipe the inner eye with sterile pieces of gauze.
c. stop the tearing by applying gentle pressure to the eye.
d. flush the eye with clean water from a nearby sink.
Final answer:
The initial action for a girl with sand in the eye should be to gently flush the eye with clean water to remove the particles without causing further harm. Option d.
Explanation:
The initial action to take when a young girl has large particles of sand in her right eye is d. flush the eye with clean water from a nearby sink. Attempting to remove the particles with a cotton swab or gauze could potentially scratch the eye further, and stopping the tearing could inhibit the eye's natural response to remove foreign objects. Flushing the eye with clean water will help to remove the particles without causing additional harm to the eye. It is important to flush gently and avoid putting pressure on the eye, which can help to prevent further injury to the conjunctiva or the cornea.
The LPN/LVN assists in management of the care of a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which statement, if made by the client to the nurse, most indicates an improvement in the client's condition?
Answer: The question is incorrect,below is the correct question.
The LPN/LVN assists in management of the care of a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which statement, if made by the client to the nurse, most indicates an improvement in the client's condition?
1) "I get into trouble because I don't think before I act"
2) My parents have difficulty accepting my independence"
3) "I've spent very little time actually enjoying my life"
4) "It's sad that others don't recognize my potentials"
The correct answer is option (1)
"I get into trouble because I don't think before I act"
Explanation: This is an introspective remark that shows that the client is beginning to realize that she acts out of anxiety or tension without realizing the consequences of her actions.
*Gotten from Quizlet*
Answer:
Option 1==> . "I get into trouble because I don't think before I act."
Explanation:
When someone lies a lot or use some kind of deceit to manipulate other people and he or she does this more often, this disorder is known as Antisocial personality disorder. This kind of disorder (that is Antisocial personality disorder) do start usually at young age in which one manipulate or have no regard for others.
So, let us take a look at the first option right there which says, '' . "I get into trouble because I don't think before I act." This option is right because now the client now knows what he or she is doing wrong and this is an improvement mark.
The anatomy and physiology instructor is discussing the reactions of the body to stress. According to the instructor, what is responsible for the release of cortisol (hydrocortisone) during times of stress?
Answer:
The adrenal glands are responsible for the release of cortisol.
Explanation:
Cortisol also known as hydrocortisone is a stress hormone which helps the body cope with stressful events and situations. It's release is triggered when the body finds itself in a stressful environment or in the presence of stress factors.
The release of cortisol from the adrenal glands involves various physiological activities which involves various important organs. These organs are the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland and the adrenal gland. This pathway is usually referred to as the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis.
When the body experiences a stressful event, corticotropin-releasing hormone is released from the hypothalamus. This hormone acts on the pituitary gland and causes it to release another hormone called the adrenocorticotropic hormone into the blood. The adrenal cortex detects the high levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone which acts on it to release cortisol for various metabolic processes particularly in stressful moments.
It is acceptable for a counselor to discuss a client with a supervisor and other members of a treatment team when it is for the client’s treatment benefit.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
A counselor's advice is highly confidential and should not be discussed with any one except with the permission of the client
The nurse is counseling a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Complete Question:
The nurse is counseling a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Explanation:
2. "I can safely have a-n-a-l s-e-x without any barriers"
The client must use the barrier and protection for any kind of s-e-x involving oral, vaginal and a-n-a-l. This must be followed up by the nurse as correct information must be passed on to client.
Do you think Tom Robinson’s testimony helps or hurts his chances with the jury? Did you feel more confident that he would be acquitted before or after this chapter? Why?
Do you think Tom Robinson’s testimony helps or hurts his chances with the jury?
His testimony helps his case and at the same instance, it hurts his chance with the jury
Tom Robinson's testimony helps his case because he explains that he has very good intentions and wouldn't hurt anyone. This gives his case credibility because he gives a decent explanation as to what happened; his testimony also shows him to be a nice guy who has compassion for others
Lastly, when Tom Robinson takes the stand, he has to guide his useless left arm onto the Bible in order to be sworn in. However, when doing this, his hand slips off and when he tries to put it back, it slips out again, these shows the Judge that he is innocent, and shouldn't be charged with this accusation.
However,His kindness is what damages his chances of an acquittal. When asked about his relationship and attitude toward her and why he would continually help her (Mayella),Tom makes the mistake of saying,
I felt right sorry for her, she seemed to try more’n the rest of ‘em(Lee, 201)
This makes the person that was cross examining him to immediately capitalizes on this mistake by emphasizing his answer because his relationship with Mayella in a segregated Southern town was against the norms of that time and expressing vividly that he feel pity for her makes the Jury think that Tom puts himself above Mayella.
the white jury believes that Tom thinks he is better than a white person they might punish him partly to put him back in his place
The nurse is preparing to discharge a patient home. In providing instruction about the patient’s medications, which would be the best statement made by the nurse?
Answer:
Make sure you use your medication correctly at the prescribed time.
Explanation:
This is so because, no matter how much information given to the patient about the medication, the most important thing the patient had to adhere strictly to is the correct dosage use and the timing.
This is very important for all patients.
The nurse is providing teaching to a client diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). What will the nurse include in the teaching on the pathophysiology of the disease?
Answer:
The nurse include in the teaching on the pathophysiology of the disease the following statement :
"Uncontrolled growth of blood cells causes the marrow to expand to organs".
Explanation:
It is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by increased proliferation of the granulocytic cell line. As a result, the peripheral blood cell profile shows an increased number of granulocytes and their immature precursors, including occasional blast cells thus resulting in expansion of the bone marrow to organs.
Hence the following statement should be given by the nurse :
"Uncontrolled growth of blood cells causes the marrow to expand to organs".
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) arises in the bone marrow affecting the myeloid lineage and is characterized by the Philadelphia chromosome, resulting in the production of an abnormal enzyme that causes unregulated cell growth.
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is a type of blood cancer that originates from a bone marrow stem cell. This stem cell is responsible for creating all types of blood cells, but CML primarily affects the myeloid lineage which produces granulocytes and macrophages. During the early or chronic phase of CML, there may be moderately elevated numbers of leukemic cells without severe symptoms.
However, the disease can progress to an accelerated phase and eventually lead to a "blast crisis." During the blast crisis, there is a significant increase in the leukemic granulocyte-macrophage progenitors, and these cells lose the ability to differentiate properly.
A client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and have an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which oxygen delivery method would give the greatest level of inspired oxygen?
Answer:
a. Non-rebreather mask
Explanation:
The Non-rebreather mask is a mask that has a reservoir-like bag attached to it. It enables for the free delivery of high concentration of oxygen. It also have a reservoir where the patient can exhale carbon dioxide.
It delivers oxygen concentration between 60% to 80%.
Answer:
Non-breather masks.
Explanation:
If the client could have percentage saturation of oxygen at 88%, it indicate active breathing by the client, and he/she did not need to be assisted with breathing. Therefore to sustain her oxygen saturation pressure high percentage of oxygen must be given to the client. This is the uses of Non-breather mask to deliver oxygen at high concentration to patients in chronic conditions but still capable of self breathing.
The mask is worn around the nose and mouth, and held by plastic cord around the head. It is directly connected to a 1 liter reservoir of oxygen for continuous supply. .And exhaled air is empty through a valve with one opening to the surrounding environment with no infiltration from surrounding oxygen.
it is applicable to patients with CO gas poisoning, smoke inhalation, and physical trauma.
What is temperament and what does it have to do with getting our needs met? Give two examples.
Answer: Temperament is a need which drives or motivates a person to act according to their natural, innate tendencies. If the needs are not met, the individual will not feel well about themselves or function efficiently. A temperament need represents what is important and highly desirable in the core of an individual.
Explanation: HOPE THIS HELPS!
A child will not obey his mother. When threatened with punishment, he swears, throws things, and threatens to break everything in the house. His outbreaks seem to be restricted to his parents, but he is almost completely unmanageable. This is an example of: A. childhood schizophrenia. B. conduct disorder. C. oppositional defiant disorder. D. juvenile delinquency.
This is an example of ODD or Oppositional Defiance Disorder.
This is a diagnosis where a child just blatantly disobeys and has issues with being told what to do by anyone; especially authority figures.
You are conducting a multisite trial for a large pharmaceutical company, one requirement of which is to select a scale that will consistently provide objective data, on a weekly basis, for depression. You need the scale to be consistent and change gradually only in response to the positive effects of the drug being tested. You need a scale with good:
Answer:
You need a scale with good reliability
Explanation:
Reliability is defined as the consistency of a research study or measuring test. A reliable test produces the same repeated results under the same or consistent conditions.
Since one of the criterias is to select a scale that will consistently provide objective data, on a weekly basis, for depression and change gradually only in response to the positive effects of the drug being tested. You need a scale with good reliability.
To measure depression effectively in a pharmaceutical trial, a scale with high reliability and validity is essential, ensuring consistent and accurate assessment of the drug's impact on patients.
Explanation:Choosing a Scale for Measuring Depression in Clinical Trials
For a multisite trial in a pharmaceutical study, selecting a scale that provides objective data for depression with consistency and sensitivity to changes due to drug effects is crucial. The desired scale needs to have good reliability and validity. Reliability ensures that the measurement of the construct remains consistent over time, much like a weight scale giving the same reading consistently unless the actual weight changes. Validity, on the other hand, ensures that the scale accurately measures what it's intended to measure, despite the possibility of respondents trying to present themselves in a more favorable light, known as "faking good".
Therefore, the selected scale must be able to gradually reflect changes in the patient's condition, indicating the drug's effect. Such scales often utilize a multidimensional approach to capture various aspects of depression.
Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Make certain each sentence is complete before submitting your answer. ResetHelp 1. : Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells 2. : Slows or stops the immune response 3. : Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen 4. : Forms antibody producing cells 5. : Absence results in no immune response
Answer:
The question is not complete, below is the complete question:
Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Make certain each sentence is complete before submitting your answer. ResetHelp
1. : Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells
2. : Slows or stops the immune response
3. : Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen 4. : Forms antibody producing cells
5. : Absence results in no immune response
words in the left column:
a. Helper T cell
b. Cytotoxic T cell
c. B cell
d. Memory cell
e. Regulatory T cell
The answer is:
1. Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells (Cytotoxic T cells)
2. Slows or stops the immune response ( Regulatory T cell )
3. Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen (Memory cell)
4. Forms antibody producing cells (B cell)
5 Absence results in no immune response (Helper T cell)
Explanation:
The question is just to test your knowledge of the functions of the various cells in the cell-mediated acquired immune responses.
First, it is important to note that immune response mechanisms is broadly divided into; innate and acquired (or adaptive) immune responses. Innate responses are those that occur naturally by birth, example, skin barriers, mucous membranes e.t.c., while acquired immune responses are those developed by the body in response to invading antibodies. The acquired immune responses can be further divided into two categories; the humoral and cell-mediated responses. The humoral responses have to do with responses with chemical intermediates or means other than cells, example is antibodies, while cell-mediated responses have to do with cells.
Now, let me explain each of my answer choices by giving brief details on each of the cell types mentioned above:
1. Cytotoxic T cells: These cells go by various other names including; cytolytic cells, Killer T-cells, CD8+ T-cells, Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes e.t.c. They are a type of T-lymphocyte that destroys cancer cells, virus-infected cells and other damaged cells. This destruction is brought about by their possession of T-cell receptors that recognize specific antigens on the surface of viral particles and cancer cells, after binding, these cells have the ability to produce cytokines which are used to kill the cells.
2. Regulatory T-cells: T Regulatory cells are cells that have immunosuppressive functions, i.e, they down regulate the activation and proliferation of the T-cells in immune response or that they slow or stop the immune response. This is important to prevent intolerance against self antigens, which can lead to autoimmune reactions.
3. Memory cells: Memory cells also known as memory B-cells are sub-types of B lymphocytes that are responsible for rapid response in an individual in the case of a re-infection or a secondary infection. During a primary or first time infection, it takes the B cells a while to manufacture antibodies to neutralize antigens in the body making the individual to come down with the effect of the antigen within this period, but after the antigens have been synthesized, the patterns are stored by the Memory cells, which can survive for decades in an individual, and if the individual is faced again with the same antigen after the first encounter, the Memory cells recognize the antigens whose complementary antibody patterns are stored, and synthesis is faster, enabling a quick and rapid response to secondary infections.
4. B cells: B cells are the chief humoral cells of the acquired immune responses. They differentiate and forms cells that produce antibodies called plasma cells. Antibodies are molecules that are produced in response to antigens, they are usually complementary to the antigens and they neutralize the effects of the antigen upon binding to it.
5. Helper T-cells: Helper T-cells can be considered to be the most important cells int he adaptive immune response, as they are essentially the activator cells in immune responses, by activating B cells to secrete antigens, Macrophages to engulf microbes, and Cytotoxic T cells to begin their immune response. The Helper cells themselves are activated by the Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs).
Final answer:
The exercise involves matching terms related to the immune system, such as 'Killer T cells' and 'Memory cells,' with their correct functions like killing infected cells and providing a rapid response to pathogens upon re-exposure, respectively.
Explanation:
When exploring the immune system, it's essential to understand the specific functions of various cells and responses to pathogens. The student's exercise is to match the correct terms with their definitions in the context of the body's immune system:
Killer T cells: Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells.Suppressor T cells: Slows or stops the immune response.Memory cells: Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen.Activated B cells -> Plasma cells: Forms antibody producing cells.If there is an absence of these cells: results in no immune response.Immunology, especially adaptive immunity, details the processes these cells and responses undergo to protect our bodies from pathogens.
You want to teach your dog to stop scratching at the door when he wants to go out. You do so by swatting his nose with a newspaper each time he scratches the door. By creating consequences for your dog’s behavior, you have used ________ to train him.
The method used to discourage a dog from scratching the door is called operant conditioning, which is a method of learning that involves rewards and punishments for behavior. In this scenario, a type of positive punishment is implemented to decrease the undesired behavior.
Explanation:By addressing your dog's behavior of scratching the door by swatting his nose each time he does so, you are employing a psychological model known as operant conditioning. This concept was developed by B.F. Skinner and involves training an individual or animal to understand the consequences of their behavior, associating actions with outcomes - desirable or not.
In your case, the dog learns to associate the uncomfortable sensation of the nose swat with the act of scratching the door, hence eliciting a change in behavior. This form of training is a type of positive punishment, adding an aversive stimulus to decrease a behavior. Though effective in some cases, constant use might have negative effects, and it's recommended to use positive reinforcement whenever possible.
Remember that this form of conditioning requires consistent application of consequences to be effective and might take time to result in a noticeable change in behavior.
Learn more about Operant Conditioning here:https://brainly.com/question/36677939
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Experiments on subliminal perception commonly use an instrument to flash images too quickly for conscious recognition but slowly enough to be registered by the brain; this instrument is called a(n)_____.
Answer:
tachistoscope
Explanation:
Tachistoscope -
It is a type of instrument , which is capable to show an image for some specific time period , is referred to as tachistoscope .
It helps to show something at a higher speed .i.e. , to increase the recognition speed .
The main advantage of this instrument is to flash any image very quickly .
Hence , from the given information of the question ,
The correct answer is tachistoscope .
A superficial puncture wound from a needlestick injury leads to a small amount of bleeding in a healthy person. Seconds after this injury occurs, the bleeding stops. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to stop small arteriolar blood loss from this injury?
a. Fibrin polymerization
b. Neutrophil chemotaxis
c. Platelet aggregation
d. Protein C activation
e. Vasoconstriction
Answer:
E. Vasoconstriction.
Explanation:
Vasoconstriction is narrowing or constriction of the blood vessels. It happens when smooth muscles in blood vessel walls tighten. This makes the blood vessel opening smaller. Vasoconstriction may also be called vasospasm.
Vasoconstriction is a normal process. It helps keep your body in healthy balance.
Vasoconstriction may occur to:
stabilize blood pressure or raise blood pressure
reduce loss of body heat in cold temperatures
control how blood is distributed throughout your body
send more nutrients and oxygen to organs that need them
protect your body against blood and fluid loss
Answer:
Vasoconstriction.
Explanation:
In order to prevent excessive blood loss or to cut shut blood flow from injured blood vessels the smooth muscles on the walls of large arteries and veins usually undergo involuntary contraction, so that the sizes of diameter is decreased, and therefore blood loss is stopped.
This natural blood loss preventing mechanism is called Vasoconstriction.It can be triggered by both external and internal factors, but coordinated by combination both hormonal and nervous system.
An 18-month-old child is admitted to the hospital. When her parents leave her, she starts to cry loudly; the LPN/LVN attempts to console her. After a while the child stops crying and becomes quiet and withdrawn. The LVN/LPN thinks the child has accepted her parent's leaving and has adjusted well to the separation. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the LPN/LVN's interpretation of the child's behavior?
1. The LPN/LVN is correct and has acted appropriately.2. The LPN/LVN fails to see that the child has entered the second stage of separation anxiety.3. The LPN/LVN fails to see that the child has entered the third state of separation anxiety.4. The LPN/LVN is falsely interpreting undesirable behavior.
Answer:
2.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario the statement that is true is that the LVN fails to see that the child has entered the 2nd stage of separation anxiety . That is because the second stage of separation anxiety is characterized by despair. In this stage the child stops crying and begins to become depressed, apathetic and withdrawn from those around them. Which is exactly what the 18-month-old child is demonstrating.
______ statements explain your feelings and allow you to take ownership of your opinions and feelings without putting down others for how they feel and think.
Answer:
I statements
Explanation:
An "I statement" is a statement that begins with the word "I". In inter-personal communication, communicating effectively is paramount, especially in solving conflicts and when handling tense situations. I statements can be used to explain ones feelings. It allows one to take responsibility of their feelings, emotions and opinions without making others feel down or less for having diverse opinions and feelings.
I statements clarify your sentiments as well as help users to take responsibility for your thoughts.
I statement:
Effective communication would be critical throughout inter-personal information exchange, and even more so just before resolving confrontations as well as dealing with stressful circumstances.
I statements could be utilized just to express one's emotions. It lets one assume responsibility regarding their experiences, sentiments, as well as ideas without making other people experience inferiority or less because they have different thoughts and sentiments.
Thus the above answer is correct.
Find out more information about I statement here:
https://brainly.com/question/25220385
A young adult is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. When the LPN/LVN places the client's hand over his head, it remains in that position. The LPN/LVN understands that this is a description of which of the following?a) conversion hysteria.
b) waxy flexibility.
c) dystonic reaction.
d) neurasthenia.
Answer:
B- Waxy Flexibility
Explanation:
Waxy flexibility occurs when a patient's limb or hands maintain any position into which they are been placed by the examiner until they are moved again by the examiner.
Example
If an examiner places the patient's hand over his head , the patient will maintain this position until it is moved again.
Six-year-old Mora regularly complains of nausea and stomachaches in the morning before school. She cries and refuses to get on the bus. In one-third of children like Mora with school refusal, the real fear is __________.A) maternal separation
B) the possibility of personal harm
C) an overly critical teacher
D) academic failure
Answer:
The correct answer is A) maternal separation.
Explanation:
The mother is undoubtedly the person that children turn to most in their first stage of life, and some develop it more than others due to various issues: attachment and consent at an early age ends up inducing them to this type of actions. At the time of changes such as going to school, they develop a feeling of fear because they get used to motherly love. Over the years they tend to leave that fear, which is why it is considered to be a normal stage in people's lives.
Answer:
The answer is A) maternal separation.
Explanation:
Studies have proven that whenever kids anticipate that they will go to school and be separated from their mothers for some period of a day, it causes them to have nausea, and pains in their tummies, or stomachaches: generally, even though kids could be excited about going to school, the fear of maternal separation and leaving the house causes them to have anxiety about having to be away from their mothers.
The nurse is conducting a presentation for a group of nurses who work with adolescents. The group of nurses discusses dysmenorrhea. Which statement is most accurate related to dysmenorrhea?
a) A contributing factor in dysmenorrhea is the increased secretion of prostaglandins.
b) Genetic abnormalities are the most common cause of dysmenorrhea.
c) Common symptoms of dysmenorrhea are weight gain and mood swings.
d) Dysmenorrhea can result from diaphragms or tampons being left in place too long
Answer:
a) A contributing factor in dysmenorrhea is the increased secretion of prostaglandins
Explanation:
Increased secretion of prostaglandins is a contributing factor in dysmenorrhea as in the primary dysmenorrhea, there is increased prostaglandin production by the endometrium in an ovulatory cycle which cause contraction of uterus thus resulting in pain.
All the other options are wrong, hence option a) A contributing factor in dysmenorrhea is the increased secretion of prostaglandins is the right option.
Thomas is an adolescent who often seeks out potentially harmful situations without thinking about the consequences. Which of the following factors is most likely influencing his decision to drink alcohol?A. hereditary B. environmental C. expectations D. risk-taking
Answer:
sfgh
Explanation:
Michael and Jill live together and are planning to marry once they graduate from college. They also would both like to have children–but not right away. Michael has a history of genital herpes and is concerned about not transmitting this infection to Jill. Of the following methods of contraception, which might be the best choice for them?a) withdrawal.b) female condoms.c) a fertility awareness method.d) female or male sterilization.
Answer:
Female condo.ms.
Explanation:
The sexually transmitted disease can be transmitted through the sexual contact from an affected partner to the unaffected partner. The common sexually transmitted disease are gonorrhea and syphilis.
These diseases can be prevented by the use of the condo.ms. The condom.s acts as mechanical barrier that prevent the infection and can also prevent the unwanted pregnancy as the semen or body fluid can not be transmitted from one partner to the next partner.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).