Answer:
Registered Health Information Administrator (RHIA)
Explanation:
Health information administrators are responsible for the maintenance and security of all patient records. They have to be registered in RHIA for do this job. Recent federal government regulations require that all health care providers keep electronic records of their patients and that those records are safe. As a result, health information managers must keep up to date with information technology, as well as legal requirements. In addition, as patient data is used more frequently for quality management and medical research, health information managers must ensure that the databases are complete, accurate and available only to authorized personnel.
In collective practices, administrators work closely with doctors. While an administrator can deal with business issues in small medical groups, leaving policy decisions to the physicians themselves, larger groups usually employ a full-time administrator to help them formulate the strategies for business and coordinate daily activities.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which statement best indicates that the client understands the need for long-term treatment?
Answer:
The client agrees to detoxification, rehabilitation, and participation in an aftercare program.
Explanation:
The alcohol addiction may be defined as the dependency of the individual on the alcohol. If the individual is not given alcohol he might develop the anxiety or stress.
The alcohol addiction requires proper medical and other rehabilitation treatment. Detoxification removes the harmful substances of the body that might develop due to the alcohol. The proper family support and rehabilitation of the individual is important to remove the alcohol addiction.
The _____ route of contamination states that once food is eaten that a food handler touched with feces on their fingers, a foodborne illness may result.
Answer: Fecal-oral
as gross as it sounds lol
Answer:
The fecal oral route of contamination
Explanation:
For instance, if a food handlers doesn't wash and tidy his/her hands after using the convenience and get contaminants in food and substances from feces from their fingers, and these foods get ingested, it may cause a food borne illness leading to fecal oral contamination.
You come upon a child who has collapsed. The child is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse. You are alone and have no immediate access to a phone or other form of communication. Which action would you do first?
Final answer:
When you find a child collapsed without a pulse and not breathing normally, you should immediately start CPR, if you are trained, and seek emergency help at the first opportunity.
Explanation:
Immediate Action for a Collapsed Child
When you come upon a child who has collapsed and is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse, the first action to take, especially if you are alone without immediate access to communication, is to start Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR). Before initiating CPR, ensure that the area is safe for both you and the child. Once safety is confirmed, begin with chest compressions immediately. If you are trained in providing rescue breaths and feel competent to do so, include them in the CPR sequence. Otherwise, performing hands-only CPR is still beneficial. The goal is to artificially circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs until proper medical help can be obtained. After two minutes of CPR, if there is no response and if it's an option, quickly look for help or a phone to call emergency services, then return to the child and continue CPR.
If the child was found submerged in water, remove them from the water first before starting CPR as performing CPR in water is ineffective. In the case of a choking child, if conscious, administer back blows and the Heimlich maneuver if you are trained. For an infant, follow proper choking protocol, which involves turning the baby upside down and giving back slaps. Remember, fast action and proper technique are critical for increasing the chances of survival.
The early focus of nutrition research was on the ____. Group of answer choices
1. amount of nutrients that help prevent chronic diseases
2. type of nutrients that help prevent chronic diseases
3. prevention of heart disease
4. amount and type of nutrients needed to prevent deficiencies
Answer:
The early focus of nutrition research was on the 4. Amount and type of nutrients needed to prevent deficiencies.!
Explanation:
Nutrition research is relatively young. One of the first developments was the first vitamin isolated in 1926. During this period of time, research was focused on nutrient deficiency diseases. Researching in the field of non-communicable chronic diseases, like diabetes, obesity, Etc. is recent. All these changes obey to the health context and the common diseases of the different periods of time. Option 1, 2 and 3 are examples of these young area of research.
When asked to explain why teenage gang membership is rising, Dr. Yale responds, "Generally speaking, these children are driven by conflicts between what they wish to do and what society wishes them to do." It is most likely that Dr. Yale would be a proponent of ____ theory.A. psychodynamicB. social cognitiveC. ecologicalD. cognitive-developmental
Answer:
A. psychodynamic
Explanation:
The theory of psychodynamics argues that behavior is the consequence of psychological forces inherent in the individual that occurs outside of consciousness. The psychodynamic theory adduces 5 propositions they are.
1. That we behave unconsciously
2. Conflicts arise in our mind
3. Personality begins to be formed by early childhood experiences.
4. The way we think about ourselves influences how we socialize with others.
5. Having a developed personality influences how we handle sexual or aggressive feelings if we are dependent instead of independent
The psychodynamic orientation in the field of mental health follows a line that includes psychoanalytic thinking, based on the fact that the act of conduct is always an act with meaning and purpose, regardless of whether or not the subject possesses knowledge of same. The methodology derived from this conception points, consequently, to the exploration and objectification of that internal world of which the subject has no knowledge, considering the inadvertent or unconscious behavior as an essential component of it, precisely because it is considered to be the unconscious which gives meaning and support to manifest behavior. This objective marks the difference that distinguishes it from other methodologies, which treat the inadvertent components of behavior in a more marginal way.
By providing benefits that are appealing to employees, Patagonia demonstrates that they view employees as ________ that creates value for the organization.
Answer:
E. Human Capital
Explanation:
Human capital is a unique capital, which is the sum of knowledge, intangible assets, health, personality qualities, skills and experience of an employee that can be of economic value both to an individual and their employer.
Providing benefits that are appealing to employees is a form of investment on employees as human capital, which can increase productivity of employees, thereby creating value for the organization.
A woman is told that her weight has a standard score ( z z ‑score) of − 1.5 . −1.5. This means that:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
2. her weight is 1.5 pounds above average.
3. her weight is 1.5 pounds below average.
4. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations above average.
Answer:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
z score of the weight of the woman = - 1.5
Now,
The relation with the actual value and the z score is given as
x = Average + ( z × Standard deviation )
now,
substituting the value of z = - 1.5
We have
x = Average - 1.5 × Standard deviation
Hence,
z score = -1.5 means a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
Which statement should a nurse include when teaching a class on health promotion related to keeping cells healthy? Select all that apply.
Answer:
....
Explanation:
Baby Billy calls his favorite blanket a "blankie." When he sees other blankets in the house, however, he does not refer to them as a "blankie" because he uses that name only for his favorite blanket. This is an example of _________.a) underextension. b) overextension. c) referential style. d) holophrasic speech.
Answer:
a) underextension.
Explanation:
Psychologically, underextension can be defined as a classification term used in language to account and relate one object or an entity as opposed to all objects or all entity that is linked to that class. This phenomena is rampant in children when beginning to acquire and reinforce a new language.
In the case of Baby Billy, Baby Billy calls his favorite blanket a "blankie.", he has already learns the word(blanket) for something else callled (blankie), without extending it to other things in the same category because when he sees other blankets in the house, he does not refer to them as a "blankie".
A nurse assesses an older adult client who reports a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea. which findings will the nurse expect during the physical exam?
Final answer:
During the physical exam of an older adult client with a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea, a nurse would expect to find signs of dehydration, fatigue, and possible changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
Explanation:
In evaluating an older adult client with a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse can expect to find signs and symptoms that commonly accompany these conditions. Notable findings may include evidence of dehydration, such as decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and possibly an orthostatic (postural) change in blood pressure and heart rate indicating volume depletion. The client may also show signs of fatigue due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes.
In assessing dehydration, the nurse should be vigilant for symptoms like a marked decrease in urination, a very dry mouth and throat, and dizziness or lightheadedness with position changes. Due to the prolonged vomiting and diarrhea, which can significantly affect hydration and electrolyte status, additional findings could include changes in mental status, such as confusion, particularly in older adults.
The nurse is reviewing the history and physical exam of a woman who has come to the clinic for a routine physical. Which factor would the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for breast cancer?
Answer:
A lump or mass in the breast.
Swelling of all or part of the breast, even if no lump is felt.
Skin irritation or dimpling.
Breast or nipple pain.
Nipple retraction (turning inward)
The nipple or breast skin appears red, scaly, or thickened.
Nipple discharge.
A nurse is teaching a client who is awaiting a heart transplant. Which statement indicates the client understands what is required to help minimize rejection?a) "There is no risk of rejection if the donor heart is an exact match."
b) "I will receive medication before and during surgery which will eliminate the risk of rejection."
c) "I will need medication following surgery to prevent rejection and if my body does not reject the new heart I will not have to take any medication at home."
d) "I will need to take three different types of medications for the rest of my life to help prevent rejection."
Answer:
d) "I will need to take three different types of medications for the rest of my life to help prevent rejection."
Explanation:
Clients who have had heart transplants depends on many factors, including age, health, and response to the transplant and they are constantly balancing and trying to cope with the risk of rejection and with the risk of infection.
They are needed to take follow up measure which involves usage of varieties of complex medications, biopsies of the transplanted heart (to diagnose rejection), and clinical visitations.
They need to understand that there are 'three classes of medications prescribed for a transplant client to help minimize rejection': these are corticosteroids, calcineurin inhibitors, and antiproliferative agents.
Although the phospholipid molecules can be in constant lateral movement, they very rarely flip from one side of the bilayer to the other. Which of the following could explain this?
A., The molecular attraction between the fatty acid tails is too strong.
B., The head groups are too large to fit between the interior fatty acid tails.
C., The head groups are repelled by the hydrophobic membrane interior.
D., The cholesterol keeps the phospholipids on the correct side.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The cell membrane of the organism are semipermeable which means it allows only some of the molecules to pass through the cell membrane. It structure of the cell membrane is made of phosphorous and lipids.
The two main regions of cell membrane is polar head region which is hydrophillic in nature and other region is the tail region which is non polar hydrophobic region.
The tail regions repeals the head region of the cell membrane.
After teaching the pregnant woman about ways to minimize flatulence and bloating during pregnancy, which statement indicates the need for additional teaching?a) "I'll try to drink more fluids to help move things along."b) "I'll switch to chewing gum instead of using mints."c) "I'll increase my time spent on walking each day."d) "I'll stay away from foods like cabbage and brussels sprouts."
Answer:
d) "I'll stay away from foods like cabbage and brussels sprouts."
Explanation:
During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggests to Mr. and Mrs. Gallo that they each restate their spouses comments before making their own. The therapist was applying a technique most closely associated with _________.A. EMDRB. psychoanalysisC. cognitive-behavioral therapyD. systematic desensitizationE. client-centered therapy
The technique of having Mr. and Mrs. Gallo each restate their spouse's comments is closely associated with client-centered therapy. This approach encourages active listening, reduces misunderstandings and promotes understanding between the partners.
Explanation:During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggested that Mr. and Mrs. Gallo each restate their spouse's comments before making their own. This strategy of active listening is most closely associated with client-centered therapy.
Client-centered therapy was developed by Carl Rogers, and is based on the belief that clients have an innate capacity for personal growth and healing. In this framework, the therapist acts as a supportive facilitator, rather than an authority figure, aiding the client's exploration of their feelings, thoughts and behaviors.
In the context of marriage counseling, having each spouse restate the other's comments encourages empathetic listening, reduces misunderstandings, and validates each person's perspective.
Learn more about Client-centered Therapy here:https://brainly.com/question/33448111
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The technique of restating comments before making one's own, as suggested by a therapist to Mr. and Mrs. Gallo, is most closely associated with client-centered therapy, specifically active listening developed by Carl Rogers. This approach maintains emphasis on acknowledging, restating, and clarifying what clients express.
Explanation:During a marriage counseling session, the therapist asked Mr. and Mrs. Gallo to each restate their spouses comments before making their own. This technique is most closely associated with client-centered therapy, specifically active listening. This therapeutic approach, developed by Carl Rogers, involves the therapist acknowledging, restating, and clarifying what the client expresses, and emphasizes unconditional positive regard and self-acceptance.
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is also often used in couples therapy, focusing on current conflicts and issues rather than past experiences or childhood traumas. The goal is to understand how individual behaviors, beliefs, and backgrounds are impacting the relationship. However, in this case, the technique of restating the partner's comments is clearly related to client-centered therapy.
Learn more about Client-Centered Therapy here:https://brainly.com/question/30751900
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The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breast feeding for the first _______ and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least ________.
A) 6 weeks; 6 months.
B) 4 months; 6 months.
C) 6 months; 1 year.
D) 1 year; 2 years.
Answer:
C) The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breast feeding for the first 6 months and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least 1 year.
Explanation:
When it comes to breastfeeding, breast milk is the best option for the new born baby, It provides not only all the nutrients needed to grow healthy and the development of every part of their bodies, but also is the best protection, reducing the risk of having allergies, asthma, diarrhea and many infections and deseases. This is due to the fact that Breast milk provides Immunoglobulines which play an essential role in the baby's inmunity. During these first 6 months, breast milk is much more easy to digest than formula, though they have made huge improvements. After those first 6 months, the baby is ready to include some vegetables, cereals, fruits and water while the still drink breast milk too.
Celia spends a good deal of her time worrying, is easily fatigued, and often has difficulty concentrating, which is affecting her grades. Her symptoms may characterize:_________.
A professor at Big State University proposes to study attitudes about obesity in Chile by giving subjects in Chile surveys to complete. Which is a question that the Big State University IRB should ask the researcher in order to determine if this study should be reviewed by a local Chilean IRB or ethics committee, as well as the Big State University IRB? Will the researcher have collaborators at the research site abroad?
Answer:
The obesity may be defined as the deposition of the excessive fat layer on the specific body parts. Obesity occurs due to the increase in the body weight and increases the risk of heart related disease.
As the information given in the question, the university must ask the researcher about the collaboration of the research at the research site in the abroad. The survey must include the individual from the different states and countries. All these surveys must be complied at the different research site present in abroad.
Sean Brown is a new care provider and has never before used Prime Suite. He is frustrated, and though you have been trying to help him, he is still having difficulty. What would be sound advice to give to Dr. Brown?
Answer:
The best advice to give would be to direct him to the PrimeSUITE User Guide and show him the index, content and search functionality
Jennifer and Nate are seeing Dr. Becker for their marital issues. Neither one of them has a psychological disorder, but they are interested in strengthening their relationship. Dr. Becker is most likely a _________ psychologist.a. social
b. developmental
c. clinical
d. counseling
Answer:
The correct option is D: Counseling Psychologist
Explanation:
Counseling Psychology is referred to an applied psychology aimed at helping people to gain absolute control of their feelings. A counseling Psychologist is simply a practitioner who helps people make changes in the manner of thinking, behaving, and feeling, without being judgmental. Jennifer and Nate needs a counseling Psychologist to help them keep their feelings in check. Marital issues are as a result of a death in feelings of a partner and the best person to handle this is a counseling psychologist.
A study by Walline et al., (2009) randomly assigned one group of children to wear contact lenses and another group to wear glasses to correct myopia. Did the results of the study indicate any differences between the two groups?
Final answer:
The study by Walline et al. (2009) did not indicate any significant differences between the group of children wearing contact lenses and the group wearing glasses to correct myopia. Both methods showed similar outcomes in terms of visual acuity, comfort, and satisfaction.
Explanation:
The study by Walline et al. (2009) aimed to compare the outcomes of wearing contact lenses versus glasses to correct myopia in children. The researchers randomly assigned one group of children to wear contact lenses and another group to wear glasses. The results of the study showed that there were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of visual acuity, comfort, or overall satisfaction with the vision correction methods.
The health care provider has prescribed lidocaine with epinephrine for injection to be administered before obtaining a biopsy. The nurse would question the prescription after the patient makes which statement?
Answer:
"I am taking a new medicine for high blood pressure."
Explanation:
Lidocaine and epinephrine mixture dose is used to source numbness or loss of sensation for patients taking certain medical actions (by obstructive certain nerves by means of the brachial plexus, intercostal, lumbar, or epidural blocking techniques). Lidocaine and Epinephrine Vaccinations deliver an regular pulp anesthesia of at minimum 60 minutes with an normal period of soft tissue anesthesia of about 2.5 hours. The accumulation of epinephrine 5 micrograms/ml (1:200 000) as a vasoconstrictor to local anaesthetic results reduces systemic fascination and extends the anaesthetic result.
According to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, one illogical thought process regularly found in depression is _____, the drawing of broad negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event.
The question is incomplete asit does not have the options which are:
a. overgeneralization
b. catastrophizing
c. dichotomous thinking
d. selective abstraction
Answer:
Overgeneralization
Explanation:
During the time period when a person feels depressed, the mind is occupied by the negative thoughts which make a person feel bad about his or her life.
Many psychiatrists has given the theory to solve the psychic problem in which one of the psychiatrists was Aaron Beck who gave the cognitive theory of the depression.
The cognitive theory of the depression states that the negative feelings, behaviour and experience to the environment are the cause of the depressive symptoms.
In the given question, the given condition is a type of cognitive therapy distortion called overgeneralization in which one event or experience is applied to generalize all the experiences of the past and future.
Thus, Overgeneralization is the correct answer.
The illogical thought process found in depression, according to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, is 'overgeneralization,' where one draws broad negative conclusions from a single event. This cognitive distortion leads to feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. Cognitive-behavioral therapy aims to address these negative thought patterns.
According to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, one illogical thought process regularly found in depression is overgeneralization. In this cognitive distortion, a person draws broad negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event. For example, if someone fails an exam, they might think, "I am a total failure; I will never succeed in anything," instead of acknowledging the failure as a one-time event.
Overgeneralization is a common cognitive distortion seen in those suffering from depression, leading to feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. Cognitive-behavioral therapy often focuses on identifying and reframing such negative and pervasive thought patterns to alleviate depressive symptoms.
Examples of Cognitive Distortions:
All-or-nothing thinking: Viewing situations in black-and-white categories.Jumping to conclusions: Making negative interpretations without definite facts.Overgeneralization: Drawing broad conclusions based on a single event.
Willianne is training to run in a half-marathon (13.1 miles). She has run in 5K and 10K races before, but never in a half-marathon. To prepare, Willianne has been following a training plan for the past several months. What are some of the specific effects of endurance training on carbohydrate metabolism?
Answer:
Endurance training promotes adaptations and shifts in substrate utilization and increases the maximal capacity for carbohydrate oxidation (as well as fat oxidation).
Explanation:
Endurance training reduces the reliance on carbohydrate as a source of energy during submaximal excercise. There is an increased effectiveness of insulin to stimulate glucose transport, there’s also an enhanced glucose uptake. Trained muscles are also characterized by increased concentration of glycogen, which is an important factor in the decreased rates of fatigue with prolonged exercise. As it was said, exercise training can increase insulin sensitivity and improve overall glucose homeostasis, which are important in cases of metabolic deseases.
Final answer:
Endurance training enhances glycogen storage and efficiency of use in the muscles, increasing available energy through improved carbohydrate metabolism and delaying fatigue during extended exercise such as a half-marathon.
Explanation:
Endurance training has a significant impact on carbohydrate metabolism, particularly in how the body stores and uses glycogen. During intensive training, such as preparing for a half-marathon, the muscles adapt by increasing their capacity to store glycogen. Glycogen is a form of stored glucose, derived from carbohydrates, which serves as a readily available source of energy for muscle contraction during prolonged exercise.
As the endurance athlete trains, their muscles become more efficient at utilizing glycogen, ensuring that there is a sustained release of glucose to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the biochemical way to store and use energy. This process happens through cellular respiration, a metabolic pathway that converts glucose to ATP in the presence of oxygen, which endurance athletes heavily rely on during a race. The practice of carbohydrate loading before an event further maximizes glycogen stores, making more energy available and potentially enhancing performance and delaying fatigue.
Moreover, consistent endurance training can alter fuel utilization, increasing the muscle's ability to oxidize fatty acids. This shift could spare glycogen during exercise, preventing the runner from “hitting the wall,” a state where glycogen stores are depleted, and the body has to rely on less efficient energy sources like fats. Therefore, combined with a strategic diet, endurance training profoundly affects carbohydrate metabolism.
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of hishead. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
a."You must be under a lot of stress lately."
b."It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?"
c."The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism."
d."We’ll have to do some tests."
Answer:
The correct option is C) "The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism."
Explanation:
Alopecia areata can be described as an autoimmune disorder which is characterized by hair loss. For some people, only some hair might be lost in patches but for other people the hair loss might be severe. In severe conditions, all the hair from the head and even from the entire body can be lost. Alopecia areata is a common disorder and every one in five peoples experiencing the disorder also has another member of the family with the same disorder.
Mr. Garcia has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. As it progresses, the ____ cell(s) lining his brain's blood vessels will shrink, and harmful chemicals will enter the brain.
Answer: Endothelial
Hope this helps! :)
Final answer:
In Alzheimer's disease, shrinking endothelial cells in the brain's blood vessels lead to harmful chemicals entering the brain, with amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles causing neuronal death and shrinkage of brain regions like the cerebral cortex and hippocampus.
Explanation:
Mr. Garcia has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder marked by cognitive decline and personality changes. As the disease progresses, the endothelial cells lining his brain's blood vessels will shrink, facilitating the entry of harmful chemicals into the brain. This condition is characterized by the buildup of amyloid plaques between brain cells and neurofibrillary tangles inside neurons, leading to synaptic loss and neuronal death. The loss of neurons causes significant cell loss and shrinkage in brain regions like the cerebral cortex and hippocampus, while the ventricles within the brain enlarge due to this cell loss.
The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is also affected in Alzheimer's disease, which impairs neuron communication, further reducing brain functionality. The comparison of brain cross-sections from patients with Alzheimer's disease to healthy individuals illustrates the severity of neurodegeneration, with marked differences in brain volume and structure.
Litigation resulting from improper restraint use is a common nursing legal issue. A nursing student is listing points related to the use of restraints. Which factor needs correction?1. Restraints can be used when less restrictive interventions are not successful.2. Restraints can be used when all other alternatives have been tried and exhausted.3. Restraints can be used only to ensure the physical safety of the resident or other residents.4. Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Answer:
Litigation may be defined as the process of setting any problem or dispute in the court. The litigation must be follow in the health and medicine as well for the proper justice with people.
The restraints is used in the case when no positive response is obtained even after complaining. If the other alternatives are not in use then the restraint is important. The restraints always require the written order that can be given to the health care provider.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).
During the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, intense arousal occurs as the body mobilizes internal physical resources to meet the demands of the stress-producing event.A) alarmB) resistanceC) plateauD) alert
Answer: Alarm stage
Explanation:
The alarm stage of the body involves the flight or fight response. When the body is exposed to the stress conditions, the typical reactions of the body is stimulated by the help of the hormones like epinephrine and nor epinephrine.
Epinephrine hormone helps in the transportation of the glucose and fatty acid molecules from the fatty cells.
Both of the above hormone helps in increasing the heart rate at the time of stress.
Due care and due diligence require that an organization make a valid effort to protect others and continually maintain this level of effort, ensuring these actions are effective.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
An organization is required to make a valid effort to show due care and due diligence towards its employees and other stakeholders so that they could limit their chances of liability in unethical and socially unacceptable scenarios. Due care steps are taken by an organization to draw a line between what is acceptable and what is unacceptable while dealing with employees. Due diligence is to create awareness about the consequences of unethical or illegal actions taken by management or employees.
Due Care and Due Diligence are essential business practices that involve reasonable efforts to prevent harm and conduct thorough investigations before taking actions, respectively. They apply across different domains, ranging from academia to corporate governance, and are often reinforced by legal requirements.
Explanation:Understanding Due Care and Due Diligence in Business Practices
Due care and due diligence are critical concepts in business and other organizational activities that denote the effort an organization must make to protect stakeholders and continually ensure the effectiveness of these efforts. Due care implies that an organization must act with a level of reasonable care while performing any acts that could foreseeably harm others. It encompasses a variety of responsibilities, from ensuring the safety of participants in a study to respecting human rights and exercising fair labor practices as highlighted by corporate governance strategies. Conversely, due diligence is the investigative process that precedes an action, such as assessing risks associated with business decisions or evaluating the qualifications of potential employees to fulfill their duties.
To contextualize, academia mandates informed consent for study participants, as a part of due care. Similarly, Open Educational Resources (OER) stewards strive to improve access through persistent effort and due care towards education. In the corporate realm, companies are expected to uphold human rights and ethical labor practices, showcasing their due diligence in governance. Legal frameworks also extend the notion of due diligence through laws such as truth-in-lending and Sarbanes-Oxley, mandating transparency and ethical corporate conduct.
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Answer:
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Explanation:
A ball squats activity is the dorsoflexion of ankle and contraction of muscles around the joint to produce maximal contraction. People who have an unstable knee shall not perform ball squat in depth and shall decrease the range of motion. These people with knee instability shall have a knee flexion restricted to 50-60° so that shear forces applied on posterior joints are minimized.