6 yd
11 yd
16 yd
5 yd
13 yd

The answer is 70.

The given pattern seems to follow the rule of multiplying the first number by the sum of its digits and adding the result to the second number:

For example:

4 + 2 = (4 x (4+2)) = 26

8 + 1 = (8 x (8+1)) = 79

6 + 5 = (6 x (6+5)) = 111

Therefore, for 7 + 3:

7 + 3 = (7 x (7+3)) = 70

Answer: It is 4/5 x 45

Step-by-step explanation: Hope i helped please mark brainliest!

I know there is suppose to be no multiplying but if you mulitply in your head 4/5 x 45 is 36 and 2/3 x 45 is 30

therefore, 4/5 x 45 is greater!

also, if not multiplying 0.8(5/4) is greater than 0.667(2/3). Therefore, 4/5 is greater than 2/3.

Without multiplying, 4/5 x 45 is greater than 2/3 x 45 because the fraction 4/5 is greater than 2/3 when both are compared using a common denominator.

To answer which is greater without multiplying, we can look at the fraction multiples of 45 in the problems 4/5 x 45 and 2/3 x 45. Since both expressions involve the same whole number (45), we can compare the fractions 4/5 and 2/3 to determine which product is greater. By converting the fractions to have a common denominator, we can see that 4/5 is equivalent to 24/30, and 2/3 is equivalent to 20/30. Therefore, 4/5 is greater than 2/3, meaning that 4/5 x 45 is greater than 2/3 x 45.

Answer:

24 :)

Step-by-step explanation:

2 / 3  x  36 = ?

First of all, note that 36 is the same as 36/1 since 36 divided by 1 is 36. Therefore, start by setting up the problem like this:

36 / 1  x  2 / 3

Multiply the numerators together (36 x 2 = 72) and multiply the denominators together (1 x 3 = 3) and make it into one fraction like so:

72 / 3

The greatest common factor of 72 and 3 is 3. Minimize the fraction by dividing the numerator and the denominator by its greatest common factor to get:

24 / 1

Convert the improper fraction above to a whole number to get the answer:

24

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

5 1/3= (3*5+1)/3=16/3

3 3/4=(4*3+3)/4=15/4

16/3: 15/4=16/3*4/15=64/45=1.422

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1.422

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the point is 3 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B   y=-1/2x -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:3

Step-by-step explanation: So if we start by breaking it down -5+ (5+3) we do the parentheses first (5+3) which equals 8. Then we are left with (-5)+8 and it would equal 3.

Final answer:

The expression -5 + (5 + 3) simplifies to 3 by first evaluating the expression inside the parentheses to 8, and then subtracting 5 from 8 to get the final result.

Explanation:

The given expression is -5 + (5 + 3). To simplify this expression, we can use the Associative Property of addition, which allows us to change the grouping of the numbers. We will also use the properties of addition and subtraction. Here is the step-by-step process:

Therefore, the simplified expression is 3.

Answer:

The correct answer is A.

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

4 + 2(7)

This equation can be rewritten like this: 4 + 2 x 7

According to the order of operations, multiplication comes before addition.

So, we can go ahead and multiply 2 and 7 out:

4 + 2 * 7

4 + (2 * 7)

4 + (14)

Then, our second step is to add.

4 + 14 = 18

So, 4 + 2(7) = 18.

18 is your answer.

Please mark as Brainliest! :)

Answer:18

Step-by-step explanation:do parentheses. 4x7=14+4=18

Answer:

1,228 yards

Step-by-step explanation:

I think the photo below is your full question

And here is my answer:

Area of a rectangle = bh

60,000 = 300h  

<=> h = 200

and the Circumference + 300 + 300 +πd + 300 + 300  + 3.14 x 200 + 300 + 300 = 1,228 yards

Answer:

y = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 2y from either side. It'll cancel out both of them. Then the equation is 8y = 40.

Divide both sides by 8 and you get y=5

Pretty sure that's right. I have a dad who has a math degree so I think it would be right because he helps me every time.

Step-by-step explanation:

As shown first you combine like terms then you subtract 2y from both sides to get 40 by it self then you divide 8 by 40 to get y by itself hope this helps this answer is 100% correct and i was glad to help please give brainliest!

[tex]8y+2y=2y+40\\10y=2y+40\\ -2y -2y\\8y=40\\y=5[/tex]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

You have to have x to answer this question

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

A shipping company charges $6 to ship a package that weighs up to 1 pound and $2 for each additional pound or portion of a pound.

lets make an assumption that the total weight of the shipment is x pound and cost for shipping is y.

the shipping company charges $6 for the first pound.

Up to now the charge is y=6

After 1 pound, i.e for the remaining (x-1) pounds, they charge $2 per pound.

So, the total charge will be, y=6+2(x-1)

weight is always starting from zero as there is no negative weight.so X>0

so the equation is 6(2x-1), where X is more than 0

Answer:

Its A on edge, f(x)=6+2[x-1], the brackets are rounding up

Answer: -121

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Option A, (-7, -3)

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is:  Option A, (-7, -3)

Answer:

tan B = [tex]\frac{35}{12}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

tan B = [tex]\frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{AC}{BC}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{35}{12}[/tex]

Answer:

5 pinecones on the deluxe wreath and 4 pinecones on the regular wreath

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Regular: 4

Deluxe: 5

Step-by-step explanation:

15x + 15y = 135

15x + 20y = 160

5y = 25

y = 5

15x = 135 - 15(5)

15x = 60

x = 4

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

surface area of two sides=2[(8×8)+π×8²/4]

=2[64+16π]

=128+32π

surface area of curved surface=2πrh/4

surface along length=base (16×16)+2×(16×8)+2×π×8/4 ×16

=256+256+64π

=512+64π

Total surface area=128+32π+512+64π

=640+96π

≈640+302

≈942 in²

Answer:

Option 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a sphere:

(4/3)×pi×r³

(4/3)pi × 6³

288pi cm³

Answer:

20.62

Step-by-step explanation:

In this instance, we are going to use the pythagorean theorem.

The height of the gutter will be a leg of the triangle, and the ladder will be the hypotenuse. The formula is

[tex]a^{2} + {b}^{2} = {c}^{2} [/tex]

While A and B are legs and C is the hypotenuse. We are trying to find B, the distance from the house.

So plug A and C in:

[tex] {40}^{2} + {b}^{2} = {45}^{2} [/tex]

Now figure it out: first you square 40 and 45:

[tex]1600 + {b}^{2} = 2025[/tex]

Isolate the B term: subtract 1600 from both sides

[tex] {b}^{2} = 425[/tex]

Now take the square root of both sides to find B

[tex]b = 20.62[/tex]

And that's your answer

Answer:

  20.6 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The Pythagorean theorem can tell you the distance from the house the base of the ladder may be for it to reach 40 feet up. If that distance is represented by x, then it tells you ...

  45^2 = x^2 + 40^2

  x = √(2025 -1600) = √425

  x ≈ 20.6

The ladder will reach to 40 feet high when the base is 20.6 feet from the house.

_____

Comment on ladder distance

The ladder safety association recommends an angle with the ground of about 75°. That corresponds to a distance from the house of about 10 feet. If the ladder is 20 feet away, it will barely reach the gutter, so placing it at that distance would probably not be safe.

An appropriate answer to this question is "10 feet", not based on math, but based on safety. At that distance the end of the ladder will extend about 3.7 feet beyond the gutter.

Answer:

0.12

Step-by-step explanation:

3/5=0.6

0.6/5=0.12

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

y=x+2 equation 1

2x-y=-4 equation 2

This is a simultaneous equation.

Substitute equation 1 into equation 2

2x-y=-4. Since y=x+2

2x-(x+2) = -4

2x-x-2 = -4

x-2 = -4

x = -4+2

x = -2

Also from equation 1

y=x+2

Since x=-2

y=-2+2

y=0

Then, solution (x, y) = (-2,0)

Answer: x = -2, y = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]y=x+2\\2x-y=-4[/tex]

Substitute y = x+2 in [tex]2x-y=-4[/tex]

Then we get, [tex]2x-(x+2)=-4[/tex]

[tex]2x-x-2=-4\\x-2=-4\\x=-4+2\\x=-2[/tex]

Then substitute x = -2 in any equations, just only one equation. For me, I'd substitute x = -2 in y = x+2

[tex]y=-2+2y=0[/tex]

So the answer is x = -2 and y = 0

Answer:

B x = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Add -2y to both sides.

−75x+2y+−2y=−16+−2y

−75x=−2y−16

Step 2: Divide both sides by -75.

−75x /−75 =  −2y−16 −/75

x= 2 /75  y+ 16 /75

Answer:

x= 2 /75  y+ 16 /75

Answer:

x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

3x+2(8x-8)=-16    plug the 1st y for the 2nd y

----------------------------------------------

3x+16x-16=-16    distribute the 2

--------------------------------------------

19x -16 = -16       combine like terms

     +16     +16     add 16 both sides

--------------------------------------------

19x=0

19   19       divide 19 both sides

x=0

Hope This Helps

[tex]f(x)=13|x-5|-6[/tex] is the equation represented by all the operations.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is

[tex]f(x)=|x|[/tex]

It is vertically compressed by a factor of 13 then the function becomes,

[tex]f(x)=13|x|[/tex]

It shifted down 6 units, then the function becomes,

[tex]\mathbf{f}(\mathbf{x})=\mathbf{1 3}|\boldsymbol{x}|-\boldsymbol{6}[/tex]

It shifted right by 5 units then the function becomes,

[tex]f(x)=13|x-5|-6[/tex]

Thus the resultant equation thus obtained is  [tex]f(x)=13|x-5|-6[/tex]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

if

Žy - 3 when y = 4 and z=3

then,

4*3-3

=9

Answer:

A, B and C are the correct answers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Correct:

A - There are 4 even numbers all together. 2 is repeated twice, there is a 4 and a 6. 4 divided by 6 is 0.666 repeated. Multiply by 100 which gives you 66.666 repeated and then round up, so now we have 66.67%. This is the probability.

B - It’s impossible that the pointer will land on 1 because there in no 1.

C - It’s less likely because there are only two odd numbers, 3 and 5. Compare that to the 4 even numbers. 4 > 2. Therefore the odd numbers, or the two, is less likely than the even numbers, the 4.

Incorrect:

D - There is only one 6 out of 6 numbers total. So 1 out of 6. We cannot be certain, it fact, it would be said that it’s very unlikely for the pointer to land on the 6.

E - The spinner is most certainly not fair. The spinner has one of each number except for the 2. There are double twos. On a normal spinner you would see a number 1 replace on of the 2. This ways the spinner will be 1 through 6.

If it makes any of you more confident in this answer, my assessment also had this question and I got it correct by answering with A, B and C.

Final answer:

The probability of the pointer landing on an even-numbered section is 33.33%. The pointer can't land on 1. The spinner is not fair.

Explanation:

To find the probabilities in this scenario, we need to analyze the spinner. The spinner has 6 equal sections, numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. There are:

Based on this analysis, we can determine the following statements:

Answer: I will give her $6.05 and collect the $0.5 in her possession

Step-by-step explanation:

Before proceeding, we need to know the quantity or equivalent of some of the things mentioned.

a.Nickel:- a nickel is 5¢, this means that the 20¢ in nickels that you had in your possession while in the restaurant is equal to (20/5) 4 nickel coins.

b. Two quarters :- Just as the name implies; 2 quarters of a dollar is [(1/4) + (1/4)] of 1 dollar = 50 cent.

We need to calculate the entire amount that needs to be given to the waitress. Since your bill after eating at the restaurant is $4.65 and the intended tip is 90¢, the sum that should be offered to her =

$4.65 + $0.90

= $5.55 (five dollars : fifty five cent).

According to the question, you have only 20 cents in nickels, so although you have five dollar bills to give the waitress, 55¢ is not available. Again, if you offer her six dollar bills, she wouldn't be able to give you a change of 45¢ ($6.00 - $5.55) because she only has 2 quarters of a dollar (50¢).

Now, since you are in possession of 20¢ in nickels, the best way to tackle the situation is to demand the two quarters that she has while handing out the 6 dollar bills and 1 nickel (5¢) to her. So, you should simply offer her $6.05 while you collect $0.50 from her in return)

Recall that the total amount that must be given to her (bill + tip) = $5.55

Then subtracting 50¢ from $6.50¢ will give:

$6.05 - $0.50

= $5.55

Therefore you have given her exactly $5.55¢ if you offer her six dollars five cent and collect fifty cents in return.

Answer:

There are 16 oddly powerful integers less than 2010

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ b is an odd integer

∵ b > 1

∴ The first value of b is 3

∵ a is an integer

- We can use a = 1, 2, 3, ..........

∵ [tex]a^{b}=n[/tex]

∵ n < 2010

- Let a = 1, 2, ............... 12 because 12³ is greatest integer  < 2010

∵ 1³ = 1, 2³ = 8, 3³ = 27, 4³ = 64, 5³ = 125, 6³ = 216, 7³ = 343,

   8³ = 512, 9³ = 729, 10³ = 1000, 11³ = 1331, 12³ = 1728

∴ There are 12 oddly powerful integers with b = 3

Now the second value of b is 5

[tex]1^{5}=1[/tex] but we took 1 before so we will start with 2

∵ [tex]2^{5}=32[/tex], [tex]3^{5}=243[/tex], [tex]4^{5}=1024[/tex]

- [tex]4^{5}[/tex] is the greatest integer < 2010

∴ There are 3 oddly powerful integers with b = 5

Now the third value of b is 7

∵ [tex]2^{7}=128[/tex]

- [tex]2^{7}[/tex] is the greatest integer < 2010

∴ There is 1 oddly powerful integers with b = 7

Now the fourth value of b is 9

∵ [tex]2^{9}=512[/tex]

- [tex]2^{9}[/tex] is the greatest integer < 2010

- But we used 512 before

∴ There is no oddly powerful integers with b = 9

- 9 is the greatest value of b which makes [tex]a^{b}<2010[/tex]

∵ 12 + 3 + 1 = 16

∴ There are 16 oddly powerful integers less than 2010

Answer:

9a -170

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9a-170

Step-by-step explanation:

8a+ 12a-11a= 9a

-75-95= -170

9a-170