Answer:
Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion
Explanation:
Proteins consist of peptide bonds. When proteins are consumed, these peptide bonds are broken down by an enzyme in the stomach called pepsin, during the process of digestion. When peptide bonds of protein are broken, smaller units known as amino acids result.
These small amino acids can then be absorbed in the small intestine into the bloodstream.
The correct statement is 'Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion'. Digestion of proteins begins in the stomach and continues in the small intestine, aided by several enzymes. The stomach's low pH (acidic environment) aids in the activation of these enzymes.
Explanation:The correct statement from the list is 'Proteins that are consumed in the diet are absorbed as individual amino acids following digestion'. During the process of digestion, proteins in the food are broken down into individual amino acids by enzymes. This process begins in the stomach where hydrochloric acid denatures proteins, and enzymes like pepsin start the break down. The process is continued in the small intestine with the help of several enzymes including Trypsin. Therefore, it's not accurate to say that protein digestion solely begins in the small intestine. It's also worth mentioning that the stomach's environment is acidic (low pH), not high pH, which is favorable for the activation of some of these digestive enzymes.
Learn more about Protein Digestion here:https://brainly.com/question/15604041
#SPJ6
As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE ______ manner.
Answer:
As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE emotional manner.
Explanation:
Bipolar disorder causes:
Dramatic mood swings (from overly "high" and/or irritable to sad and then back again often with periods of normal mood in between)Severe Changes in energy and behaviour go along with these changes in mood.The periods of highs and lows are called episodes of mania and depressionHence, As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE emotional manner
A person filled with grandiose self-esteem, displaying rapid speech and impulsive behaviors, and showing an elevated, expansive, or irritable mood for at least one week is exhibiting symptoms of
Answer:
Symptoms of Mania
Explanation:
Mania can be described as an abnormally elevated mood state characterized by such symptoms as inappropriate elation, increased irritability, severe insomnia, grandiose notions, increased speed and/or volume of speech, disconnected and racing thoughts, increased sexual desire, markedly increased energy and activity level, poor judgment, and inappropriate social behavior.
Answer:
Mania
Explanation:
Mania can also be Called Manic syndrome.It is usually associated with bipolar disorder. It is an unusual increase in the state of the mood of an individual. It can be caused by stress and drugs. Symptoms such as elevated sexual desire,energy, speech speed and unsuitable irritability are common.
The national High Blood Pressure Education Program classification system for blood pressure of adults 18 years of age and older has various categories, including normal, pre-hypertension, and hypertension; which values are the minimum levels for stage 1 of hypertension?
Answer:
stage 1 of hypertension:
systolic: 130 - 139
diastolic: 80 - 89
Explanation:
According to the American heart association guide 2017 Blood Pressure Classification in Young Adults the systolic blood pressure (SBP) 130–139 mmHg and the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) 80–89 mmHg)
Devices such as screws, pins, wires, and nails may be used to internally maintain the bone alignment while healing takes place. These devices, more commonly used with fractures of the femur and fractures of joints, are known as ______________devices.
Answer:Internal Fixation device.
Explanation:Internal Fixation device are use during surgery to hold broken bones together. They are used to hold pieces of bone in alignment,while healing takes place.
can someone plz help me w my recent? (jus click my pfp to see my questions)
Answer:
Yes let me take a look.
Explanation:
Answer:
Give me a picture.
Explanation:
Select the correct answer. At a young age, who has the greatest influence on your choices? A. parents or guardians B. teachers C. peers D. doctors
Answer:
Parents or guardians
Explanation:
The older the child becomes more identified with the father, which is a normal course of development. Such development is a condition for strengthening self-awareness, but also independence, not only from the mother, but from her own unconscious. Both parents are necessary for the development of awareness and individuation. The influence of mothers and fathers on the upbringing of children after several centuries of maternal influence is almost equalized in families today. The father plays an equally important role as the mother. Many psychologists agree that the form of co-parenting is better, more successful and more natural than the earlier way, when the mother's influence was superior. It is not difficult to assume that a relationship full of respect and love between parents ensures that the child is properly identified with both the mother and father.Answer:
parents/guardians
Explanation:
i took the test on plato and this was correct
The Texas Department of Health has isolated Yersinia pestis from wood rats and prairie dogs in West Texas and the Texas panhandle. In addition to the fever, chills, and severe headache, this patient has developed hemorrhages under the skin. What disease is this camper likely to have?(a) pneumonic plague(b) bubonic plague(c) tularemia(d) septicemic plague
Answer:
B. Bubonic plagues
Explanation:
Bubonic plague is caused by Yersinia pestis. Rats, prairie dogs and squirrels are the pests that harbour the disease while fleas serve as vector, carrying the Yersinia pestis to humans.
The human victim either touches a dead infected rodent or is bitten by an infected flea. The bacteria invade the skin and are gobbled up by macrophages. They continue to reproduce intercellularly and within lymph nodes especially the inguinal nodes. The nodes swell like eggs and become hot, red and painful. Fever and headache sets in. Hemorrhages under the skin cause a blackish discoloration leading people to call bubonic plague the "Black Death."
Without treatment, death occurs within a few days. Treatment is with antibiotics such as streptomycin, doxycycline.
A nurse is providing teaching to a patient newly diagnosed with partial seizures who will begin taking oxcarbazepine [Trileptal]. The patient also takes furosemide [Lasix] and digoxin [Lanoxin]. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided it can be said that the statement that would indicate understanding of the teachings would be "I should report any nausea, drowsiness, and headache to my provider." This is because Oxcarbazepine has been known to cause hyponatremia in about 3% if patients and some of the symptoms of hyponatremia include nausea, drowsiness, confusion, and headache. These symptoms need to be reported as soon as they begin to appear.
The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?A. Fixator strength.B. Antagonist muscle strength.C. Prime mover strength.D. Neutralizer strength.
Answer:
The correct answer would be Prime Mover strength
Hope this helps have a nice day
In an experiment, hypnotized subjects are told to scratch their ear if they hear the word "psychology" mentioned later. The fact that they do so only if they think the experiment is still under way most clearly supports the theory that hypnosis involves:a. dissociation.
b. neuroadaptation.
c. role playing.
d. hypnagogic sensations.
Answer:
The correct answer is C. Role Playing.
Explanation:
Role Playing in psychology is used to enhance certain skills to handle difficult situations. In other words, role playing can be defined as changing one's behavior to adapt to a new role.
This theory was first introduced in 1941 by RW White. This man said that hypnosis is basically like a role that people are playing i.e. they are acting if they are being hypnotized.
Compared to individuals over 75 living at home with assistance, similar individualRachel gets her midterm grades and finds that she has a 2.4 in OB. She expected a better grade point average to date. Rachel is _________ her performance.s living in nursing homes are almost twice as likely to experience delirium, providing evidence that: A. living in a nursing home causes delirium. B. experiencing delirium causes one to be put in a nursing home by one's family. C. experiencing delirium is positively correlated with living in a nursing home. D. living at home with assistance prevents the onset of delirium
Answer:
Assessing or Evaluating; C. experiencing delirium is positively correlated with living in a nursing home.
Explanation:
1. Rachel is assessing or evaluating her performance
2. Living in nursing homes are almost twice as likely to C. experiencing delirium is positively correlated with living in a nursing home.
Answer: Evaluation/ C. Experiencing delirium is positively correlated with living in a nurses home.
Explanation:
1. Evaluation is making judgement and the determination about the merit, significance and worth for a subject, by using rules guided set by a standard
2. Delirium is said to be a wide spread problem in long-term care (LTC) facilities where old adults or advanced age and cognitive impairment represent two important risk factors for this condition. Delirium is related with several negative outcomes some of this are,mortality and increased morbidity. Despite how serious it is to the clinic, delirium goes unrecognized often by nurses. Although rates of nurse-detected delirium have been studied among hospitalized older patients, this issue has been largely neglected among demented older residents in LTC settings.
Minority groups such as women, people of color, people with disabilities, and LGBT individuals are often treated unfairly due to their race, gender, sexual orientation, and/or physical and mental abilities. They are experiencing ______.
Answer:
discrimination
Explanation:
Minority groups such as women, people of color, people with disabilities, and LGBT individuals are experiencing discrimination due to their race, gender, sexual orientation, and/or physical and mental abilities.
Explanation:Minority groups such as women, people of color, people with disabilities, and LGBT individuals are often treated unfairly due to their race, gender, sexual orientation, and/or physical and mental abilities. They are experiencing discrimination. Discrimination is characterized by unequal treatment, subordination, and limitations imposed on individuals or groups based on their race, gender, or other protected characteristics.
This discrimination can manifest in various forms, such as hate crimes, unequal access to opportunities, and prejudicial attitudes and behaviors. For example, LGBTQ individuals may face discrimination in healthcare, which can lead to negative health outcomes. It is important to address and challenge discriminatory practices and promote equality and inclusivity.
Learn more about discrimination here:https://brainly.com/question/34591807
#SPJ3
According to Freud, a lasting conflict that develops as the result of excessive frustration or gratification at a particular stage of development is called a(n) ________.
According to Freud, a lasting conflict that develops as the result of excessive frustration or gratification at a particular stage of development is called a Fixation.
Explanation:
Fixation is the word which is used in many sectors to represent a single meaning which is "to joint". In health the sector if a bone got fractured than the joints of bone are combined by plastering to fix the bones together. In social life if two parties or more than two are having conflict regarding any common matter, after a day or days long conversations or conflicts some common decision is taken to fix the issue occurring between them.
Which of the following statements is true of organizing as a learning strategy? It focuses on memorization of training content. It focuses on learning through repetition of training content. It requires the learner to find similarities and themes in the training material. It requires the trainee to relate the training material to other, more familiar knowledge, skills, or behaviors.
Answer:
It requires the learner to find similarities and themes in the training material
Explanation:
As defined by Schumaker & Deshler, learning strategy is an individual's way of organizing and using a particular set of skills in order to learn content or accomplish other tasks more effectively and efficiently in school as well as non-academic settings. Organizational learning strategy involves the learner combing through the learning material seeking for similarities. He then uses these similarities to learn about the subject
A researcher who wants to examine the relatives of people with unipolar depression to see whether the disorder affects other family members should complete a _____ study.
Answer:
Family Pedigree
Explanation:
Family pedigree is a genetic charts of a family tree that shows the inheritance of a trait or disease from generations to generations by showing the relationships between family members, thereby indicating which individuals carry the trait through their medical histories.
A researcher who wants to examine the relatives of people with unipolar depression to see whether the disorder affects other family members should complete a FAMILY PEDIGREE study which will shown him the medical histories of each individual in the family and enable him to know whether the disease or disorder affects other family.
A hotel's director of sales wants all the hotel's advertisements to be easily distinguishable from those of other hotels. The director's concern has to do with the __________ of the property's advertisements. Group of answer choices
Answer:
Consistency
Explanation: Consistency can be said to be a
steadfast adherence to the same principles, course, form or type. It is maintaining the same standard, behavioral pattern, harmony or uniformity among the parts of a complex thing. The director of sales wants the hotel to maintain a certain consistency in their advertisements that should easily distinguish their adverts from the adverts of other hotels.
Answer:
Consistency
Explanation:
Hotel advertisement campaign is one of the major ways for an hotel to generate interest and promote their unique services . It is collection of different marketing techniques, which are used to promote a hotel and its services, and is intended to produce improvements to business results, either in the short-term or the long-term.
The director wants the hotel's advertisement to be easily distinguishable from that of other hotels so that the hotel can has it own unique advertisement that will resonate well with the consumer and Target audience over a long period of time. He wants constitency in the hotel's advert that when ever the hotel's advert is been displayed, people will know the advert is unique to the hotel only and concept within that trend for new advertisement can be followed in future advertisement of the hotel
Will mark brianliest!! asap due today!!!
write in your own words please
Describe 2 steps for warming up and 2 steps for cooling down.
Warming up and Cooling down steps
Explanation:
Warming up exercises prepares the body for strenuous physical activities. These increase the body flexibility, reduces injury risk and pain, increases oxygen intake and good blood flow, improved range of motion, reduces muscular tension.
The basic steps involved in warming are: Loosening of joints, stretching the muscles, pumping the heart, and practice movements.
Loosening joints warms up and mobilizes the joints and include upper and lower body rotations. Upper body rotations include slow and controlled circling repetitive motions of the joints like wrists, elbows, and shoulder. Lower body rotations include leg balancing and rotation of knee and ankle joints in controlled repetitions. Stretching exercises of muscles, especially the dynamic stretches warms up the muscles and increases the flexibility. Sequential repetitive stretching targeting all body parts from head to toe should be done. Neck rolls, arm swings, side bends, rocking horse, lunges, leg swings etc are various types of warm up stretches.Cooling down exercises brings back the body to its normal condition (reduces heart rate, muscle strain etc) after a strenuous exercise activity. These involve mainly cool stretches and slow movements like walking.
A slow leisure walking is the best cool down exercise to relax the body and mind Cool down stretches are static stretches like stretching of legs, chest, arms, and core of the body to relax the strained muscles of the body after a rigorous exercise session.A nursing student is helping to care for a patient who takes verapamil for stable angina. The nurse asks the student to explain the purpose of verapamil in the treatment of this patient. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
a. "It relaxes coronary artery spasms."b. "It reduces peripheral resistance to reduce oxygen demands."c. "It reduces the heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility."d. "It relaxes the peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload."
Answer:
c. "It reduces the heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Explanation:
Verapamil is in a class of medications called calcium-channel blockers. It works by relaxing the blood vessels so the heart does not have to pump as hard. It also increases the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart and slows electrical activity in the heart to control the heart rate.
A patient asks the healthcare provider about the benefits of receiving the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine. Which statement is the most appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
Answer:
The HPV vaccine helps protect you against cervical cancer
Explanation:
Human papillomavirus vaccines (HPV) are vaccines that protect against certain types of sexually transmitted diseases associated with the development of cervical cancer. HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that is characterized by the lack of symptoms in the initial phase
Answer:
Because it reduces the chances or prevent development of cervical cancer, or any lesions or growth that may likely develop to cancer.
Humanpapilloma virus infection is the cause of most cases of cancer of the cervix.Therefore taken the HPV vaccines is a protective way of reducing the risk and preventing this cancer by reducing chances of HPV infections.
In addition this HPV vaccine is effective against most of the strains of the viruses that cause this cancer, thus a further need to get it.
Explanation:
Choose a member of your family that you would like to encourage to be more active or eat better. Write a paragraph to devise a strategy for helping that person change. {I need a paragraph, please help! I will give brainly!!}
Answer: The person I choose is my brother.
Explanation:
I choose my brother because he has a health condition that affects his heart due to the little physical activity he performs and the disproportionate way he eats. The doctor has told him that he needs to change his lifestyle so that his problem disappears, but he blames the work for not having time to exercise.
My brother when I was younger was a great sportsman, within the strategies to be used are to make him play sports again. Since he doesn't have time on weekdays, he will practice sports on weekends. In the week you will return to the gym and dedicate one hour three times a week. I chose three times a week since it will be very exhausted on the weekend due to sports and that your body needs rest.
In the case of food, as my brother enjoys eating a lot, the idea is that he will eat fewer portions, but more often during the day. He only eats three very heavy meals a day, then they will be exchanged for smaller portions that contain higher nutritional content. As my brother enjoys meat very much, it is only prepared on the grill or baked. As my brother is easy to fall into the temptation to eat something he should not, his wife is an excellent cook and she is willing to make meals more healthily so that he does not feel tempted to eat outside and foods high in grease.
Eric and Janelle are carriers of the recessive allele causing Tay-Sachs disease, which is lethal in early childhood. If they have a healthy child, what is the probability that this healthy child would NOT be a carrier of Tay-Sachs disease?
Answer: 75% probability that the child will not be a carrier.
Explanation: The Tay-Sachs disease is caused by mutation of the HEXA gene.
Tay–Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, meaning that when both parents are carriers, there is a 25% risk of giving birth to an affected child with each pregnancy. A mutated copy of the gene is passed from each parent to the affected child. The causes are Genetic.
The nurse is working for a hospital that holds an agreement with a local organ procurement organization (OPO). The patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3 and discussions have been held with the family about withdrawing life support. Which statement by the nurse best describes requirements that must be met to sustain Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Conditions of Participation?
a.
"I need to notify TransLife (OPO) of my patient's impending death."
b.
"I will contact the physician to obtain informed consent for organ donation."
c.
"The charge nurse will notify TransLife (OPO) once the patient has been pronounced brain dead."
d.
"I need the physician to evaluate my patient's suitability for organ donation."
Answer:
d. I need the physician to evaluate my patient's suitability for organ donation.
Explanation:
Every patient that needs to donate organ needs to undergo series of evaluation test to determine the suitability of the patient's health towards the organs to be harvested. The healther the organ the better for it to be used for donation to a patient on the waiting list.
It is the duty of the nurse working in the hospital to ensure that the patient is suitable for organ donation before contacting the organ procurement organization (OPO) which his hosptial has an agreement with. The nurse can only do this through reaching out to the hosptal physicians for the patient's evaluation.
You are weighing a team of football players and notice that the BMI of each player would indicate that they are obese. Which of the following would you most likely conclude? a. They have too much body fat. b. The majority of them are probably obese and should make an effort to lose weight. c. Their body water content is very high. d. They have denser bones and a higher amount of lean tissue, which contributes to their elevated body weights. e. They are very tall.
Answer:
They have denser bones and a higher amount of lean tissue, which contributes to their elevated body weights.
Explanation:
Body mass index (BMI) indicates the level of the individual whether he is underweight, normal and overweight. This can be calculated by dividing the weight of an individual by the square of the height.
BMI of the individual depends on the types of diet on which the individual feeds. The football players do exercise and eats protein rich diet that have lean tissues and high bone density. This affects their body weight and categorize them into the obesity category.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Andrew is an alcoholic and wants to stop drinking. His therapist asks him to take a pill that makes him nauseous every time he drinks alcohol. He does this for 1 month, throwing up every time he drinks with the pill. After 1 month, his therapist asks him to stop taking the pills. Andrew throws up when he takes his first drink without the pill and loses his desire to drink alcohol. What behavioristic strategy did his therapist use
Answer:
Classical Conditioning
The process of collecting and analyzing information to develop an understanding of the issues, resources, and constraints of the priority population to better develop a health promotion program is:A. a needs assessmentB. setting appropriate goals and objectivesC. creating an interventionD. pilot testing
Answer:
A. a needs assessment
Explanation:
Needs assessment can be referred to as the formal, systematic approach or process applied in order to identify and evaluate a training that should be done.
It also entails the process of collecting and analyzing information to develop an understanding of the issues, resources, and constraints of the priority population to better develop a health promotion program .
A needs assessment is the process of collecting and analyzing information to understand the concerns and constraints of a priority population, vital for planning health promotion programs. It serves as the groundwork for addressing critical health problems and developing interventions that are culturally-tailored and sustainable, often incorporating participatory methods for greater effectiveness and equity.
Explanation:The process of collecting and analyzing information to develop an understanding of the issues, resources, and constraints of the priority population to better develop a health promotion program is known as a needs assessment. This approach is crucial for identifying and investigating presenting problems and is integral in understanding and framing the needs of clients. The needs assessment stage is the foundation of intervention planning, where a theory is formulated, and an operational definition of the changes needed is constructed.
A needs assessment covers various steps, including but not limited to developing an epidemiological profile and resource inventory, conducting key informant interviews, disseminating information about the needs, coordinating incentive distribution for participation, making on-site visits for data collection, and applying a health equity lens. The Participatory Action Research (PAR) approach, often integrated into this process, involves the community actively in all stages to ensure that the programs developed are culturally-tailored, sustainable, and addressing health equity. The assessment phase lays the groundwork for identifying critical problems and barriers to health and exploring strategies to design sustainable health education and disease prevention interventions.
Particularly in community psychology practice, community needs and resources assessments are vital for planning, grant writing, identifying policy needs, and supporting anti-racism and racial justice initiatives. Through a thorough needs assessment, community psychologists can use participatory methods to generate higher quality results that reflect the true needs of the focal population.
A social worker is counseling the family of an 85-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with non-small cell lung cancer. What concerns should she convey to the family regarding the unintended effects of treating the disease?
The social worker should focus on the impact of the patient's age on treatment effectiveness and tolerability, potential side effects affecting the patient's quality of life, and the potential hazards of second-hand smoke to a lung cancer patient.
Explanation:The diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer in an 85-year-old patient will undoubtedly bring significant concerns for both the patient and her family. It's important for the social worker to convey a few key unintended effects connected to the treatment of such a disease to the family.
Firstly, age will be a critical factor. Elderly patients may have a more challenging time tolerating conventional cancer therapies such as chemotherapy or radiation due to their overall health and existence of comorbidities.
Secondly, it's essential to consider the complications that cancer therapies might bring, such as fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, and potential emotional distress. All these factors can affect the patient's overall quality of life.
Lastly, another concern to note is the potential for exposure to second-hand smoke especially if there are smokers within the family. This is due to the fact that it can exacerbate the patient's condition. With the patient already being diagnosed with lung cancer, it's essential to ensure as healthy a home environment as possible.
Learn more about Effects of Treating Lung Cancer here:https://brainly.com/question/35941692
#SPJ3
The nurse makes the following statement during a change of shift report to another nurse. 'I assessed Mr. Diaz, my 61-year-old patient from Chile. He fell at home and hurt his back 3 days ago. He has some difficulty turning in bed, and he says that he has pain that radiates down his leg. He rates his pain at a 6, but I don’t think it’s that severe. You know that back patients often have chronic pain. He seems fine when talking with his family. Have you cared for him before?' What does the nurse’s conclusion suggest?
Answer:
The answer is C
Explanation:
The nurse is applying a stereotype about patients with back pain. An accurate clinical inference would not include the nurse's opinion. The cues suggest that the patient has acute pain, which the nurse is rejecting. Validation would involve having another nurse also assess the patient for pain.
Sams, Hari, Rif, and Knuutila (1993) performed a neuroscience experiment that employed event-related potential (ERP) recording and determined that the length of _____ memory can be up to 10 seconds long.
Answer: Echic nemory
Explanation:
Echoic memory, or auditory sensory memory, is a type of memory that stores audio information (sound).
It’s a subcategory of human memory, which can be divided into three major categories:
-Long-term memory retains events, facts, and skills. It can last for hours to decades.
-Short-term memory stores information you recently received. It lasts for a few seconds to 1 minute.
-Sensory memory, also called the sensory register, holds information from the senses. It can be further broken down into three types:
Iconic memory, or visual sensory memory, handles visual information.
Haptic memory retains information from your sense of touch.
Echoic memory holds audio information from your sense of hearing.
The purpose of echoic memory is to store audio information as the brain processes the sound. It also holds bits of audio information, which gives meaning to the overall sound.
While cleansing the wound of a school-aged child who fell from the roof of a storage building, the LPN/LVN overhears the parent and the client interacting. It is most important for the LPN/LVN to further assess if the parent makes which statement to the child.1. True2. False
Explanation:
The LPN/LVN upon overhearing the parent and the client (child) talking comes to a conclusion about what should be further assessed. The statements made were:
1. “Maybe in the future, you will follow the rules”
2. “You know, of course, this means no dinner tonight”
3. “Why did you climb up there when I told you not to?”
4. “It appears that your injury is not serious”
Statement 1 reflects a punitive character of the parents where they highlight the child’s misbehavior and its consequences
Statement 2 reflects the parent’s attitude to correct the child’s misbehavior through negative reinforcement. Parents adopt this as a means of disciplinary action when a child commits a serious mistake which is harmful to himself/herself/others. This is true.
Statement 3 indicates that the parents are not aware of the psychological developmental stages of their child according to the age. Curiosity and exploration are part of school-aged children and parents should be aware of it and should have taken proper care.
Statement 4 indicates the utmost compassionate caring of the parents but hides the child’s knowledge of the injury.
An 85-year-old client residing in a nursing home reports to the LPN/LVN that even though he is eating an adequate, well-balanced diet and frequently drinks fluids, he continues to lose weight. Which of the following responses by the LPN/LVN is BEST?
a. "You may need to increase your fluid intake."
b. "Due to age, you have decreased function of the gastrointestinal tract."
c. "You are not eating enough food to maintain your weight."
d. "You need to completely chew your food before swallowing it."
Answer:
Option b. "Due to age, you have decreased function of the gastrointestinal tract."
Explanation:
As we begin to age or grow older as human beings, this tends to have an effect on the way gastrointestinal tract works or functions.
In older people the rate of digestion of foods tends to happen very slowly. The food moves slowly in the digestive system.
There is a reduced production in older people of enzymes required to react with the various classes of food been consumed thereby resulting in a poor or reduced production and absorption of the essential nutrients required by the body in other . This could lead to loss in weight in older people.