Procedure code: 65855
Diagnosis code: H33.011
Explanation:The procedure code for Xenon laser photocoagulation for prophylaxis of a recent right eye retinal detachment with a giant tear is 65855. This code specifically denotes the application of laser photocoagulation to prevent the progression of retinal detachment, and it is appropriate for cases involving giant tears. The procedural code provides a standardized way for healthcare providers and insurance companies to document and bill for the specific service performed.
The diagnosis code for this scenario is H33.011. This code corresponds to a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment with a break in the retina, specifying the affected eye as the right eye. Proper diagnosis coding is crucial for accurate medical record-keeping and billing.
In this case, the code captures both the nature of the retinal detachment (rhegmatogenous) and the location (right eye). These codes are essential for healthcare providers to communicate effectively with insurance companies and other stakeholders, ensuring proper reimbursement and facilitating accurate medical history documentation.
It's important to note that medical coding plays a vital role in healthcare administration, enabling streamlined communication among healthcare providers, insurers, and regulatory entities. Accurate coding ensures that healthcare services are appropriately documented and billed, facilitating the provision of quality care and efficient reimbursement processes.
The pediatric oral dose of ciprofloxacin is given as 10 to 20 mg/kg every 8 hours, not to exceed a single dose of 400 mg irrespective of body weight. If a child weighing 55 lb. is prescribed a one-teaspoonful dose of 5% ciprofloxacin oral suspension every 8 hours, calculate whether or not the dose prescribed is within the therapeutic range. Your answer should be "Yes" or "No".
Answer:
No. 5% of ciprofloxacin oral suspension for this child exceeds the therapeutic range.
Explanation:
Single dose of ciprofloxacin suspension shall be 400 mg
the pediatric oral dose is 10-20 mg/kg and body weight of child is 55 lb.
1 kg is 2.2 lb= 55÷ 2.2 = 25 kg
minimum required dose for child is 25 × 10= 250 mg
maximum required dose for child is 25 × 20 = 500 mg
1 teaspoonful is 5000 mg.
500 mg ÷ 5000 mg = 0.1 tsp
Hence, the dose exceeds the therapeutic range.
Based on the information given, the does that is prescribed isn't within the therapeutic range. Therefore, it's false.
From the information given, it should be noted that the following can be depicted:
Single dose of ciprofloxacin suspension = 400 mg.Pediatric oral dose = 10-20 mg/kgBody weight of child = 55 lb.1 teaspoonful = 5000 mg.Since 1 kg is 2.2 lb, therefore, 55lb will be 55 / 2.2 = 25 kg
Therefore, the minimum required dose for the child will be given as:
= 25 × 10= 250 mg
The maximum required dose for the child is given as:
= 25 × 20 = 500 mg
Therefore, the dose will be:
= 500 mg / 5000 mg
= 0.1 teaspoon.
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What are the nursing considerations when administering Pitocin to a client for labor augmentation? When else may we use Pitocin and why?
Answer:
The answers are explained below
Explanation:
The nursing considerations are thus:
*Pitocin should be administered by a trained person and continuous monitoring is needed.
*Monitor the fetal heart rate for every 20 minutes for any nonreassuring patterns such as tachycardia or bradycardia.
*If any non reassuring fetal heart rate pattern occurs,immediately stop the infusion, Administer oxygen, provide side line position to the patient, administer non addictive solution.
*Monitor the uterine contractions periodically
*Monitor maternal vital signs and record it
*Monitor the intake and output patient and document it in I&O chart.
•Other Indications or cases of use of Pitocin are:
*Postpartum hemorrhage
*Incomplete/inevitable abortion
*Stimulate milk letdown reflex
Reason: Pitocin helps in the stimulation of oxytocin receptors in the uterus causes intense uterine contractions and increases intracellular calcium levels in uterine myofibrils. Pitocin is a drug of choice for postpartum hemorrhage. Because it is mainly due to lack of uterine muscle tone.
In incomplete abortion, oxytocin causes strong uterine muscle contractions and results in menstrual bleeding and abortion.
Stimulation of milk let down reflex: Oxytocin causes contractions in milk holding cells around the alveoli. This increased pressure leads to the ejection of milk through the nipple.
Nursing considerations include assessing the client's condition, monitoring vital signs and contractions, and educating the client. Pitocin may be used for labor induction, postpartum hemorrhage, or uterine atony. Close monitoring and appropriate dosage adjustments are crucial.
Explanation:When administering Pitocin to a client for labor augmentation, there are several nursing considerations to keep in mind. These include assessing the client's medical history and current condition, monitoring vital signs and uterine contractions, and being aware of potential side effects and complications. It's also important to educate the client about the medication and obtain informed consent.
Pitocin is a synthetic form of oxytocin, a hormone that helps stimulate uterine contractions. Besides labor augmentation, Pitocin may also be used to induce labor in cases of prolonged pregnancy, to manage postpartum hemorrhage, or to prevent and treat uterine atony. Each use is based on the specific medical needs and circumstances of the client.
The nursing considerations for administering Pitocin during labor augmentation involve close monitoring of the client and the fetus, assessing uterine response, and ensuring appropriate dosage adjustments as needed. Pitocin should only be administered under the supervision of a healthcare professional with knowledge and experience in its use.
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Cascade Order in Classical Activation Once activated, the complement cascade is an ordered process. Each reaction leads to another reaction. This activity asks you to place the cascade reactions in the order they occur, starting with the C1.
1) C1 interacts with an antibody that is bound to a pathogen
2) C3 is split into C3a and C3b
3) C2a and C4b combine to form an enzyme
4) C1 cleaves C2 and C4
Answer :
1) C1 interacts with and antibody that is bound to pathogen
2)C1 cleaves C2 and C4
3)C2a and C4b combine to form an enzyme
4)C3 is split into C3a and C3b
Explanation:
Classical pathway is activated by antigen antibody complex indicating the proteolytic cleavage of the molecule. C1 is activated by this complex and the activated C1 acts on C2 AND C4 to for an enzyme C3 convertase (C4b,2b).This enzyme then acts on C3 and causes it to cleave into C3 and C3b.
To maintain homeostasis, the body must maintain mass balance. How much water must be consumed if 2000 mL was lost during exercise, 200 mL was produced, and another 300 mL was lost during metabolism
Answer:
2.1 liter.
Explanation:
Homeostasis may be defined as the phenomena of the maintenance of the internal environment of the body irrespective of the change in the external or internal environment.
The water consumption is important for the body as the human's body consists of more than 60% water.
The water consumption can be calculated as follows:
Water consumption = water loss - water produced.
Water loss from exercise = 2000 ml = 2 liter, 300 ml was lost during from metabolism = 0.3 liter.
The water produced = 200 ml = 0.2 liter.
The water consumption = 2 L + 0.3 L - 0.2 L
Total water consumption done by the body = 2.1 liter.
Thus, the answer is 2.1 liter.
Final answer:
To maintain homeostasis after losing 2300 mL of water through exercise and metabolism combined and producing 200 mL metabolically, one should consume 2100 mL of water to achieve water balance.
Explanation:
Maintaining Water Homeostasis
To maintain homeostasis, the human body needs to balance water intake and output. Given that 2000 mL was lost during exercise, 300 mL was lost during metabolism and 200 mL was produced by the body, the amount of water that needs to be consumed can be calculated by subtracting the total amount of water lost from the amount produced during metabolism.
The total water lost is the sum of water lost during exercise and metabolism, which is:
2000 mL (exercise) + 300 mL (metabolism) = 2300 mLThe amount of water produced by the body during metabolism is: 200 mL
Therefore, to balance the water output with intake, one would need to consume:
2300 mL (total water lost) - 200 mL (water produced) = 2100 mL of water. Thus in liters it will be 2.1 ltr
This calculation assumes no other sources of hydration beyond what was stipulated in the problem. Thus correct answer is 2.1 Ltr or 2100 mL
On her first anatomy and physiology exam, Heather defined homeostasis as "the condition in which the body approaches room temperature and stays there." Do you agree with Heather's definition? Why or why not?
Answer:
I do not agree with Heather’s definition of homeostasis because, by definition, homeostasis is defined as the ability of a body to create comfortable conditions by being at equilibrium or stabilizing itself internally whenever there are changes externally/outside the body. With regard to homeostasis, the room temperature of the internal part of the body, as with many other things in the body, is dynamic and does not stay at one place when external conditions change—it changes in order to maintain balance or equilibrium; hence, I do not agree with Heather’s definition of homeostasis.
After L.S. takes a dose of the inhaled corticosteroid Flovent, what is the most important action he should do next?
a. Hold his breath for 45 seconds.
b. Rinse out his mouth with water.
c. Repeat the dose in 5 minutes if he feels short of breath.
d. Check his peak flow meter reading for an improvement of function.
Answer:
it 45 seconds
Explanation:
Final answer:
The most important action after taking a dose of the inhaled corticosteroid Flovent is to rinse out the mouth with water to prevent oral thrush.
Explanation:
After L.S. takes a dose of the inhaled corticosteroid Flovent, the most important action he should do next is rinse out his mouth with water. This is to prevent any potential for oral thrush, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Oral thrush occurs due to the presence of small amounts of the medication in the mouth and throat, which can lead to fungal growth. Therefore, by rinsing the mouth, any residual medication that might contribute to the development of thrush is removed.
What are the environmental factors that might have prevented grandpa carl from hearing grandma marie?
Answer:TV
Explanation:
The environmental factors may include additional stimulus which may interfere with main sensory stimulus like audio, vision, touch and other. Here in the given situation, the TV is the additional stimulus which can prevent Grandpa Carl from hearing Grandma Marie. The TV voice could be loud which will prevent the Grandpa to hear Grandma over it.
The environmental factors that might have prevented Grandpa Carl from hearing Grandma Marie include background noise, distance between them, reverberation in the room, poor acoustics, the presence of physical barriers, and any hearing impairments that Grandpa Carl might have.
Background noise from appliances, outdoor sounds, or other people talking can mask the speech sounds, making it difficult for Grandpa Carl to distinguish Grandma Marie's voice. If they were not close to each other, the distance could attenuate the sound of her voice before it reached him. Reverberation, which is the persistence of sound in a particular space after the original sound is removed, can cause a blurring of speech sounds, especially in large, empty rooms with hard surfaces.
Poor acoustics can result from the design of the space they are in, where certain sound frequencies are absorbed or reflected in a way that distorts speech. Physical barriers such as walls, furniture, or even the layout of the room can obstruct the direct path of sound waves from Grandma Marie to Grandpa Carl.
Lastly, any hearing impairments that Grandpa Carl has would exacerbate the effects of these environmental factors, making it even more challenging for him to hear Grandma Marie clearly. Addressing these factors, such as reducing background noise, improving room acoustics, using hearing aids, or ensuring they are in close proximity when speaking, can help mitigate the communication challenges.
Seventy-two-year-old Angelo is demonstrating serious memory loss, lessened intellectual ability, and impaired judgment. What diagnosis is Angelo likely to receive from his doctor?
Answer:
Alzheimer's
Explanation:
The other possibility is dementia, but alzheimer's would be discussed first
Head damage or concussion. Your brain receives insufficient oxygen when your heart or breathing are stopped for a protracted length of time.Severe brain infection or brain-related infection. Severe illness or major surgery, particularly brain surgery.
What serious memory loss patient diagnosed with?(MCI), also referred to as memory loss. Choose the treatment you require from our specialists. Families and friends of those who have mild cognitive impairment may notice that the person's mind isn't as keen as it once was.
Amnesia is the loss of memories, which includes details, knowledge, and experiences.
Therefore, In most cases, dementia develops gradually, gets worse with time, and affects a person's capacity for work, social connections, and romantic relationships. One of the first or more obvious indicators of dementia is frequently memory loss that significantly interferes with daily life.
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14. What is the association between the abnormal blood test results, abnormal lung sounds, and productive cough
Answer:
The association between the abnormal blood test results, abnormal lung sounds, and productive cough can end up in COPD: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Explanation:
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) can be diagnosed based on signd and symptoms such us abnormal luns soundg and productive cough. Moreover, abnormal blood test results, history of exposure to lung irritants (such as smoking), and family history. Likewise, the three items mentioned in the question can also lead to other lung diseases. Spirometry is a method which may help determine which type of lung disease the patient has and its severity. The results can be interpreted immediately.
which body organ is surrounded by by a series of tubes that are used for the transport of oxygen. What do we normally call these transport tubes
Hemoglobin: The protein inside red blood cells (a) that carries oxygen to cells and carbon dioxide to the lungs is hemoglobin (b). Hemoglobin is made up of four symmetrical subunits and four heme groups. Iron associated with the heme binds oxygen. It is the iron in hemoglobin that gives blood its red color.
Blood vessels are narrow channels that transport oxygen-rich blood to all body tissues. Arteries are major blood vessels that transport blood from the heart to the rest of the body.
The transport tubes above described are known as blood vessels and arteries.There are more than 20 major arteries in the human body. These arteries branch out into arterioles and capillaries.In conclusion, the transport tubes above described are known as blood vessels and arteries.
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When an insect molts, the midgut also loses it's cuticular lining, which is pulled out through the insect's mouth.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
the answer is b
Explanation:
What drug problems do we face today that our ancestors did not have to face and why?
Answer:
answer is given below
Explanation:
solution
our researcher is discover very new way of taking the drug so they reach to the brain fast so it can increase the abuse liability
and one example is here as that opium that was used original to medicinal and the spiritual purpose
so when people discover its opium create to our mental effect because the way of it manipulate our brain by the natural chemical such as endorphin
so they use for change their mental or emotional state
What are the brodman areas and how do they relate to the neurological deficits that occur as the result of stroke?
Answer:
The brodman areas are maps of the brain and they relate to the neurological deficits by showing the damaged parts of the brain due to lack of function in specific body parts.
Explanation:
There are altogether 52 brodman area . It is a region of cerebral cortex in human or any primate brain.German anatomist Korbinian Brodmann first defined and numbered teh brodman area.He observed the cerebral cortex using the nissi method of cell staining based on the cytoarchitectural organization of the neuron.It is widely known and frequently cited cytoarchitectural organization of the human cotex.Final answer:
Brodmann's areas are specific regions of the cerebral cortex associated with different functional differences in the brain. Damage to these areas due to stroke can cause neurological deficits that are specific to the affected area.
Explanation:
Brodmann's areas are regions of the cerebral cortex that are defined based on their microscopic anatomy. They were identified and described by anatomist Korbinian Brodmann in the early 1900s. Brodmann's areas are assigned specific numbers and are associated with different functional differences in the brain.
When a stroke occurs, it can cause damage to specific Brodmann's areas in the brain, leading to neurological deficits. The types of deficits that occur after a stroke depend on which area of the brain is affected. For example, damage to Broca's area can result in difficulties producing language, while damage to Wernicke's area can result in language comprehension problems.
Understanding the locations and functions of Brodmann's areas helps researchers and medical professionals to link specific neurological deficits to the damaged areas of the brain caused by stroke or other brain injuries.
Although many chromosome abnormalities occur due to abnormal cell division in the sperm or egg, they can also occasionally be inherited. The genetic basis for this baby's anomalies can usually be determined by:
a. quantifying the number and severity of the baby's physical abnormalities
b. analyzing the chromosomes in the father's cells
c. analyzing the chromosomes in the baby's cells
d. analyzing the chromosomes in the mother's cells
Answer:
C. Analyzing the chromosomes in the baby's cells
Explanation:
Chromosomal abnormalities are the abnormalities which are inherited in the children. These abnormalities include either a part of the chromosome is missing or a chromosome is missing or exrta or it is switched to another chromosome. The genetic basis of these anomalies can be determined by analyzing the chromosomes in the cells of baby.
Hence the right option is C
Roger has severe arthritis and has been taking prednisone (a glucocorticoid) for two months. He isn't feeling well, complains of repeated "colds," and is extremely "puffy" (edematous). Explain the reason for these symptoms.
Answer:Roger may be suffering from a condition known as Cushing's syndrome as a result of prolonged use of prednisone.
Explanation: Arthritis is a rheumatic condition which is referred to as the inflammation that occurs in the joints and the tissues related to it. This causes severe pain at the affected joints. For treatment, anti-inflammatory medications such as corticosteroids are used. Prolonged use of these drugs can lead to development of a condition known as Cushing's syndrome. The abnormal feelings is due to muscle weakness,the swelling is due to water and salt retention, and the anti-inflammatory effect of the drug plays a role in suppression of immune-related defense mechanisms, increasing his susceptibility to colds. I hope this helps. Thanks.
The difference between the apical and the radial pulse is called the:A. systolic pressure. B. pulse deficit. C. pulse pressure. D. differentiated pulse.
Answer: The difference between the apical pulse and the radial pulse is called the pulse deficit.
Explanation:
Radial pulse is the pulse taken at the periphery i.e at the wirst. And the apical pulse is the pulse over the top of the heart primarily at the apex beat. Pulse deficit may be defined as the difference between the pulsations at the periphery and the heart beats. Pulse deficit may be present in the case of atrial fibrillation or premature ventricular beats.
The difference between the apical and radial pulse is known as the pulse deficit, not to be confused with pulse pressure, which is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures.
Explanation:The difference between the apical and radial pulse is called the pulse deficit. This term refers to any discrepancy between the number of heartbeats heard at the apex of the heart (apical pulse) and the number of pulses felt over the radial artery (radial pulse) over the same period of time.
Pulse pressure, on the other hand, is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures. For example, a normal adult blood pressure reading of 120/80 mm Hg indicates a systolic pressure of 120 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 80 mm Hg, resulting in a pulse pressure of 40 mm Hg. Pulse pressure reflects the force that the heart generates with each contraction.
The central cavity of the K channel can only accommodate hydrated K but not hydrated Na . True or False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
the K+ channel filters selects K+ ions more than Na+ ions because K+ ions can go through the filter along with water ions within nano seconds, whereas, Na+ ions bound to the sites within the filter and does not move within the channel in a nano second time scale. This rapid transport gradient of hydrated K+ ions makes it selectively permeable. Moreover, K+ ions has the capacity to accommodate itself around eight oxygen atoms in the central cavity but the Na+ ions interacts with four oxygen atoms and two water molecules instantly making significant ion-protein interactions. A dehydrated Na+ ion stabilizes itself with oxygen and decreases its chances of reaching the central cavity of K+ channel.
In what ways does Certification of the Surgical Technologist impact the quality of practice in surgical technology?
Answer:
Certification of the Surgical Technologist impact the quality of practice in surgical technology by ensuring that surgical technologists have the knowledge and skills to administer quality patient care.
Explanation:
Surgical Technologist are direct health professionals that assists the surgeon in the delivering of surgical care. A certified surgical Technologist is one who graduated from surgical technology programs accredited through the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP).Accredited programs provide both instructive education and supervised clinical experience based on a core curriculum for surgical technology. I hope this helps. Thanks
Certification of the Surgical Technologist ensures adherence to up-to-date aseptic techniques, ongoing education, and critical thinking skills, enhancing the quality of surgical practice and patient safety.
The Certification of the Surgical Technologist significantly influences the quality of practice in the field of surgical technology. Certified surgical technologists (CSTs) are trained in the latest standards for aseptic technique, including creating and maintaining a sterile field, as outlined by the Association of Surgical Technologists. This ensures that operations are conducted in the most sterile environment possible, reducing the risk of infections and complications.
Moreover, CSTs are required to stay updated with continuing education, which ensures they are knowledgeable about the most current surgical techniques and technologies. This continuous professional development promotes better surgical outcomes and enhances patient safety.
For example, a CST who has undergone certification and mandatory re-certification is more likely to be adept at recognizing critical and unexpected events during surgery, thus contributing to the overall quality of healthcare.
In addition, the certification process emphasizes critical thinking and problem-solving skills, which are crucial in an operating room setting. Certified surgical technologists are better prepared to assist the surgical team effectively, perform under pressure, and adapt to the dynamic nature of surgical procedures.
A surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove excess fluid is known as
Answer: A surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove excess fluid is known as abdominocentesis
Explanation: Abdominocentesis is a surgical procedure carried out by a train health personnel. It involves puncturing of the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen to access fluid which is drained and used for further diagnosis. Usually the fluid is drained by gravity, a syringe or by connection to a vacuum bottle. The procedure is carried out to:
- relieve abdominal pressure from ascites.
-to diagnose bacterial peritonitis.
-to diagnose blood in peritoneal space in trauma cases.
The surgical procedure to remove excess fluid from the abdominal cavity is called paracentesis.
Explanation:A surgical puncture of the abdominal cavity to remove excess fluid is known as paracentesis. This procedure involves inserting a needle or catheter into the abdominal cavity to drain the fluid. It can be used to relieve symptoms caused by conditions such as ascites or peritonitis.
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Emergency operations plans should not be tested in advance, so that responders will react with additional energy and not be complacentTrue or false
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Emergency operation may be defined as the control center responsible for the emergency situation and to control the further situation at the time of any disaster or attack.
The emergency operations are pre planned and needs to be perform in the critical cases only. The emergency operations are not allows for the test in the advance as these operation are reserved for the critical situations and may not be beneficial for the normal situations.
Thus, the answer is true.
In liver, glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown via cAMP. Although you might expect glucagon to stimulate catabolism of the glucose formed as well, glucagon inhibits glycolysis and stimulates gluconeogenesis in liver. Which of the following is/are true? a. The function of glucagon is to decrease blood glucose concentration. All mentioned processes are consistent with this function. b. The function of glucagon is to decrease blood glucose pressure. All mentioned processes are consistent with this function. c. The function of glucagon is to increase blood glucose concentration. All mentioned processes are consistent with this function. d. The function of glucagon is to increase blood glucose pressure. All mentioned processes are consistent with this function.
Answer:
c. The function of glucagon is to increase blood glucose concentration. All mentioned processes are consistent with this function.
Explanation:
Glucagon is the enzymes synthesized and released by alpha cells of endocrine pancreas in association with food. Glucagon causes an increase in blood glucose levels and it does so by :
1) Inhibiting the process of glycolysis so that the glucose is used less.
2) Stimulating the breakdown of glycogen to increase the glucose concentration in the blood.
3) Stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver thus increasing the synthesis of glucose in liver.
All these processes directly increase the level (concentration) of glucose in blood.
Hence option C) The function of glucagon is to increase blood glucose concentration. All mentioned processes are consistent with this function is true
The function of glucagon is to increase blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, and by inhibiting glycolysis in the liver. The correct answer to the question is option c.
Explanation:The function of glucagon is indeed to increase blood glucose levels, primarily through glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis) and glucose synthesis (gluconeogenesis). Therefore, the correct answer is c. Glucagon is released by the alpha cells of the pancreas when blood glucose levels are low, such as between meals or during intense exercise. In the liver, glucagon promotes the conversion of glycogen to glucose and encourages the creation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources via gluconeogenesis. Glucagon also inhibits glycolysis, meaning it prevents glucose from being broken down for energy in the liver, which helps raise the amount of glucose available in the bloodstream. These processes ensure that blood glucose concentrations are increased, which is necessary to provide energy to the body, particularly in states of fasting or high energy demand.
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A soldier suffers brain damage from an injury and is no longer able to speak or understand what others say. He is most likely suffering from _____.
A soldier suffers brain damage from an injury and is no longer able to speak or understand what others say. He is most likely suffering from aphasia.
Explanation:
Aphasia occurs when a person will not be able to speak or find difficulties in understanding what others say. It occurs due to an injury. The person will not be able to read or write. The Aphasia that is caused by the injury in brain generally causes from the injection or any brain trauma or stroke.
The effects of this Aphasia may be mild to severe. The ability to know the objects name or making words to form a sentence to communicate can be affected by this. Main causes of this Aphasia includes, Brain tumors, brain infections, stroke, etc.
Blood coagulation is initiated by either the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway. The final step inboth pathways would be:
A)Activation of factor XII
B)Deactivation of fibrinogen, preventing the conversion to fibrin
C)Activation of factor X, leading to conversion of prothrombin II to thrombin IIa
D)Activation of factors VII, X, V, and II
Answer:The final step in both pathways would be the activation of factor X, leading to conversion of prothrombin II to thrombin IIa. Option C.
Explanation: blood coagulation is the processes that leads to blood clot formation. The blood clot formed is made up of fibrin and platelets, which forms hemostatic plug over a wound site. The blood coagulation is made up of two partways that led to the formation of clot. The intrinsic pathway also called contact activation pathway and the extrinsic pathway which is also known as the tissue factor pathway. The both pathways are connected by a common pathway whereby factor X is activated leading to leading to conversion of prothrombin II to thrombin IIa. Thrombin then converts fibrinogen to fibrin( blood clot). I hope this helps. Thanks.
In North America, the demand for amphetamine (especially methamphetamine) has been _____.
Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.
Answer:
QRS complex.
Explanation:
The electrocardiogram may be defined as the medical technique used for the proper functioning of the heart. The electrodes are inserted on the chest of the individual to determine the conductivity changes in the heart.
The report of the ECG is prepared in the peaks form. The different components includes the P, QRS, PQ and ST segment. The QRS complex shows the ventricular depolarization in the normal heart. If the ventricular depolarization gets slow, the QRS complex shape will get change.
Thus, the answer is QRS complex.
Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the QRS complex in an ECG tracing.
Explanation:Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the QRS complex in an ECG tracing. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, which is the electrical activity that leads to ventricular contraction.
During a normal ventricular depolarization, the QRS complex appears as a sharp, upright, and narrow peak on the ECG tracing. If the ventricular depolarization is abnormally slow, the QRS complex will appear wider and can be distorted, with a prolonged duration.
This change in the shape of the QRS complex can indicate various heart conditions, such as bundle branch block or ventricular conduction delays.
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A client with a digoxin level of 2.4 ng/ml has a heart rate of 39. The health care provider prescribes atropine sulfate.
Which of the following best describes the intended action of atropine for this client?
a. To stimulate the SA node and sympathetic fibers to increase the rate.
b. To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses.
c. To dry oral and tracheobronchial secretions.
d. To reduce peristalsis and urinary bladder tone.
Answer:
\rb. To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses
Explanation:
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside which has both the cardiac as well as the electric effects. The most important electrical effect includes early parasympathomimmetic responses(decrease in heart rate) which are followed by late arrhythmogenic actions. Thus the parasympathetic effects of digoxin specifically on atria and AV node results in a decrease in heart rate while atropine in given in this condition because it is a parasympatholytic drug thus it reverses the bradycardia induced by digoxin by interfering with vagal impulses and increases the heart rate .
Hence the option \rb. To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses is true.
An individual suffering from a high cholesterol level in her blood has 242 mg of cholesterol per 100 mL of blood. If the total blood volume of the individual is 4.9 L , how many grams of total blood cholesterol does the individual's body contain?
Answer:
The answer is approx. 11.9g or 11.858g.
Explanation:
Given:
The cholesterol level = 242 mg/100ml
Total blood volume = 4.9L
Conversions:
1000ml = 1L
100ml = 0.1L
0.1L = 242mg of cholesterol
Using unitary method:
0.1L = 242mg
4.9L = 242/0.1 * 4.9L
= 11858 mg
As, 1g = 1000 mg,
11858mg = 11858/1000
= 11.858g or 11.9g
Title II of GINA restricts the deliberate acquisition of genetic information by employers and others covered by Title II and strictly limits such entities from disclosing genetic information. (Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008).
True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The Genetic Information Non-discrimination Act (GINA) published in 2008 states in Title II, that it is illegal to discriminate among employees based on their genetic mixing, and accepting or rejecting applicants in any area of expertise due to their genetic information. Hence, Title II of GINA restricts employers, employer agencies, labor organizations and other agencies from requesting genetic information, purchasing genetic information and disclosing employees genetic information for making labor decisions. However, the Health and Human services labor department allows using genetic information for making decisions of health insurance coverage by health insurance providers only as stated in Title I of GINA.
"The statement is True.
Title II of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA) indeed restricts employers and other covered entities from deliberately acquiring genetic information and imposes strict limitations on the disclosure of such information. GINA was enacted to protect individuals from discrimination based on their genetic information in both health insurance and employment settings. Title II specifically addresses the use of genetic information in employment, prohibiting employers from using genetic information to make decisions about hiring, promotion, terms or conditions of employment, and other employment-related actions. It also requires employers to keep genetic information confidential and to maintain it separately from other personnel records."
In the split-brain operation, the __________ is severed, which is the primary communication pathway between the two hemispheres.
Answer:
Corpus callosum.
Explanation:
Corpus callosum is the nerve bundle connection between the left hemisphere and right hemisphere of the brain. The corpus callosum perform important function like balancing of arousal and tactile localization.
The split brain surgery may be defined as the way of the removal or the treatment of the epilesy from the brain. The corpus callosum is severed during the surgery. The two hemisphere of the brain is not able to exchange the information properly.
Thus, the answer is corpus callosum.
Which of the following illustrates the integration of informatics into a health care system to support cost containment?
A. Offering free wireless internet access to visitors.
B. Installing barcodes on medications with alerts for low supplies.
C. Integrating an electronic health care record on a platform compatible with computers & tablets.
Installing barcodes on medications with alerts for low supplies is a good example of integrating informatics into a healthcare system for cost containment. It reduces costs by increasing efficiency and minimizing human error in medication supply monitoring.
Explanation:From the options provided, the one that best illustrates the integration of informatics into a health care system to support cost containment is: B. Installing barcodes on medications with alerts for low supplies. This method uses technology to automate the process of monitoring medication supplies. The use of barcodes with an integrated alert system provides information about the availability of drugs. This then allows for timely ordering of supplies, thereby preventing overstocking or running out of medication. It makes the process more efficient and less prone to human error, which can help to reduce costs. This application of informatics enables proactive cost containment and increases operational efficiency in the healthcare environment.
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Integrating an electronic health care record on a platform compatible with computers & tablets is an example of how informatics is integrated into a health care system to support cost containment.
Explanation:The illustration that represents the integration of informatics into a healthcare system to support cost containment is integrating an electronic health care record on a platform compatible with computers & tablets. This integration allows for a more efficient and streamlined management of patient information, reducing costs associated with paper-based records and transcription errors. Electronic health records also provide real-time access to patient information, facilitating better decision-making and coordination of care.
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