Answer:
C
Explanation:
Base pairing would result in two double-stranded DNA molecules that would include one parental or old strand and one daughter or new strand.
The term 'semi-conservative' in DNA replication refers to the creation of new DNA molecules having one original strand and one new strand, hence conserving half of the original DNA molecule.
Explanation:Meselson and Stahl's experiments with E. coli established the semi-conservative model of DNA replication. According to this model, each of the two strands in the DNA double helix acts as a template for a new strand. After replication, each DNA molecule consists of one original (or parent) strand and one newly synthesized strand. This process ensures that the new molecules are identical copies of the original DNA molecule. The term 'semi-conservative' is used because half of the original DNA molecule is conserved in every new DNA molecule.
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Read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format. Ms. Hungh, a Burmese immigrant, enters your clinic with her interpreter complaining of fatigue, weight loss, persistent cough, and rust-colored sputum The interpreter explains that Ms. Hungh has had this cough for many months in her home country and, now that she is in America, is seeking assistance for her condition. Culturing of the sputum resulted in the growth of distinct colonies on the medium, and the technician informs you that further isolation by subculturing is now needed. You understand that this is accomplished by taking a bit of growth from an isolated colony and inoculating a separate medium, resulting in the production of a:______.
a) diagnosis.
b) pure culture.
c) broth.
d) mixed culture.
Answer:
B) Pure culture.
Explanation:
Obtaining a pure culture involves culturing the organism on the bacteriologic agar. Initially blood agar is used because it supports the growth of many bacteria and the type of hemolysis can be observed.
In order to obtain pure cultures, following steps are done :
1)The bacteria are normally streak onto solid media.
2) Inoculating loops are used for streaking.
3) Then the plate is incubated at desired temprature.
4) Then after sometimes , colonies are visible wherever a microbial cell capable of growth on particular medium was deposited on the agar surface.
As in the above scenario , a bit of isolated colony is taken and is inoculated in a separate medium thus a pure culture is formed.
Hence option B) Pure culture is the right answer.
Find the true statement. a. The horse is equally related to the hippo and the seal. b. The horse is more closely related to the seal than the hippo. c. The horse is more closely related to the hippo than the seal. d. All species are equally related.
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
The remaining part of the question is attached as a image. Please see that
Solution
As we can see in the phylogenic tree (use to represent evolutionary relationship between organisms), that horse is more close to the seal however they two have the same recent ancestor. However, the inter relatedness among species arising from the same ancestors and without any further branching cannot be explained definitively because this tree structure is based on hypothesis and there is no exact timeline to measure anything.
Part A The mandibular condyle __________. The mandibular condyle __________. is the opening through which blood vessels and nerves to the lower lip and skin of the chin pass is the line of fusion between the two halves of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint is the opening through which the alveolar nerve passes is the site of insertion for the temporalis muscle.
Answer: Articulates with the temporal bone to form the temporo-mandibular joint.
Explanation:
The mandibular condyle articulates with the temporal bone at the mandibular fossa. The temporal bone consists of concave depression at the squamous portion.
The mandibular condyle and the temporal bone are separated by the articular disc, it divides the joint into two distinct type of compartments. The function of the temporomandibular joint is to connect the jaw bone with the skull.
The mandibular condyle is the part of the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint.
Explanation:The mandibular condyle is a crucial anatomical structure in the human skull, located at the posterior end of the lower jawbone (mandible). It forms the rounded, articulating portion that connects with the temporal bone of the skull, allowing for the jaw's movement during activities such as chewing, talking, and swallowing.
The mandibular condyle is the part of the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint. It allows for movements of the lower jaw, including elevation/depression, protraction/retraction, and side-to-side motion. The mandibular condyle moves forward and downward during the opening of the mouth.
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The image shows a volcanic eruption. Clouds of ash above an erupting volcano. Which statement best describes this eruption? This eruption is quiet. This eruption is explosive. This eruption was caused by low-viscosity magma. This eruption may set its surroundings on fire.
Answer:
B. Eruption is Explosive.
Explanation:
The statement best describes this eruption - This eruption is explosive.
Volcanic eruptionsA volcanic eruption can be of various types determined mostly by the silica content of the magma, and the amount of gas it contains, however on the activity these are either explosive eruptions or effusive eruptions.
Explosive eruptions are gas-driven explosions that propel magma sending ash, gas, and magma high up into the atmosphere.
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Which degree of tilt produced light similar to what North America experiences in summer? Explain your answer.
The degree of tilt producing light similar to North America experiencing summer is 23.5 degrees
Explanation:
The Earth tilts on an imaginary line tilted at 23.5 degrees on its own axis of rotation. As the earth revolves on its own and rotates on its own orbit around the sun, different parts of the Earth receives varied concentration of sunlight at different time periods of the year.
The angle of tilt of sunlight directly affect the light intensity.
Around June 21, the Earth's north pole tilt 23.5 degrees towards the sun and experiences summer like in North America.
This is due to the summer solistice of the earth and June 21 is considered to be the longest summer day in northern hemisphere.
Large-scale cancer studies have found that the p53 gene is often mutated in tumor cells. In fact, the gene encoding the p53 protein is mutated in tumor cells more often than any of the other 20,000 human genes. Based on this information, why was the Bunz study important?
Bunz's study provided a deeper understanding of the role of the p53 gene in the cell cycle, which can be used to enhance the understanding of cancers pathways and lead to new therapeutic treatments.
Tumor suppressor genes are genes that in normal conditions repair errors in DNA, indicate to the cell when they must die (it is known as programmed cell death or apoptosis), slow down cell division, etc.
The p53 gene is a tumor suppressor gene expressed in the nucleus of normal cells, where P53 protein acts as a transcription factor.
This gene (p53) is involved in many signaling pathways such as cell senescence, cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, etc.
The work by F. Bunz (1998) provides useful information on how P53 protein regulates the expression of target genes and thus avoids the proliferation of cancer cells.
In conclusion, Bunz's study provided a deeper understanding of the role of the p53 gene in the cell cycle, which can be used to enhance the understanding of cancers pathways and lead to new therapeutic treatments.
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The Bunz study is significant as it unravels the pivotal role of the p53 gene, its mutations, and their association with most types of cancer. Mutations in p53 disrupt its normal regulation of the cell cycle, triggering uncontrolled cell growth and permitting propagation of these abnormal cells, contributing to cancer.
Explanation:The Bunz study is critical in our understanding of cancer since it provides insights into the role of the p53 gene and its mutations which are prevalent in tumor cells. p53 is a tumor suppressor gene, with proteins that regulate the cell cycle, particularly at the G₁ checkpoint. When functioning correctly, p53 proteins monitor and repair DNA damage, or trigger cell death processes (apoptosis) in cases where repair is not feasible.
Mutations in the p53 gene could generate abnormal p53 proteins that fail to check and halt cell division once the cell's DNA is damaged, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and further accumulation of potential harmful mutations. These changes could lead to unchecked cell division, contributing to cancerous growth and the spreading of these abnormal cells (metastasis). Therefore, understanding the functioning of the p53 gene, its roles, and effects of its mutations is paramount to our grasp of cancer biology and avenues for its prevention and treatment.
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Milton has been having considerable trouble with his short-term memory. His family has noticed a number of mistakes Milton has been making, such as leaving doors unlocked, getting lost in the neighborhood, and forgetting family members' names. It appears that his ________ -producing neurons are deteriorating.A. GABA
B. ACh
C. MSG
D. serotoning
Answer:
The correct answer is "B" ACh
Explanation:
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It is never optimal to exercise an American call option on a non-dividend paying stock early. True or false?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Exercising an American call option on a stock with non –dividend provides greater interest or saving on interest as compared to holding those call option.
In general, An American call can be exercised any time prior to its expiry time limit. In case of an American call on a stock with dividend, early exercise before the expiry is optimal. Early exercise also provides for in depth money options.
Epithelial cells ____.
a. make up the inner layers of connective tissue
b. form adipose tissue, cartilage, bone tissue, and blood
c. are striated
d. are found in the visible portion of hair, fingernails, beaks, or feathers
e. communicate with each other through chemical signals
Answer:a. make up the inner layers of connective tissue
Explanation:Epithelial cell are cell made up of inner connective tissues. This tissues helps in absorption of nourishment/ nutrient needed by the epithelial tissue.
They are arranged into sheet and joined to each other. This special properties aids it function.
Epithelial cell have modified surface structurally and through internal modifications this aids there ability for absorption and secretion of some glands such as liver, digestive tract and also act as barrier.
They form a sheet of cell called epithelia that serves as linning for body surfaces.
They can be classiified into three bases the shape on how the cells are packed;
Squamous epithelium- They are usually wider. They can be found in blood vessels
Cuboidal epithelium are almost similar in height and width
Columnar exceptionally are Tall and wide.
Final answer:
Epithelial cells line inner and outer body surfaces, including the skin and the lining of various internal cavities, and are essential for protection, secretion, and absorption. Option a is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer to the question "Epithelial cells ____." is that epithelial cells make up the surface of the skin, line the various cavities and tubes of the body, and cover the internal organs. They are found as tightly packed layers of cells arranged in sheets. This kind of tissue is known for functions such as protection, secretion, and absorption. It is not correct to say that epithelial cells form connective tissue or that they are striated, as these characteristics apply to different types of tissues. Instead, epithelial cells are crucial for forming barriers between the body and the external environment, as well as lining internal spaces. Therefore, option a. make up the inner layers of connective tissue is the correct answer.
The basic units of the brain and spinal cord that process, store, and transmit information are the _____.
Answer:
Neuron
Explanation:
This is the applicable unit calculation for actions in which are taken within the brain and spine. Neurons allow the transfer of information, allowing us to move our body in a desired form
Answer:Central Nervous System
Explanation: The central nervous system is the basic Unit of spinal cord and Brain. Its regulates body activities. The brain is responsible for integrating most information and coordinating body functions.
Complete the statement with the correct word.
______________ standards provide guidelines for employee safety and protection from all hazards.
OSHA Standards are rules that describe the method that employers must use to protect their employees from hazards.
Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) Is a government agency in the US which is responsible for maintaining standards of health and safety in work places.
HOPE IT HELPS.
Final answer:
The statement is completed by the term 'OSHA standards,' which provide guidelines for worker safety against a range of hazards across different sectors, as mandated by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
Explanation:
The correct word to complete the statement is OSHA standards.
OSHA standards provide guidelines for employee safety and protection from all hazards. These standards are designed to protect workers in various sectors, including Construction, General Industry, Maritime, and Agriculture. They ensure measures such as fall protection, precautions against trenching cave-ins, preventing exposure to infectious diseases and harmful chemicals, and the requirement for safety training are implemented.
Employers are also bound by the General Duty Clause of the OSH Act to keep workplaces free from serious recognized hazards, even when no specific OSHA standard applies. Furthermore, OSHA's role includes promulgating standards that prescribe the methods employers are required to follow to safeguard their workers from hazards, demonstrated by a significant risk to workers and that there are feasible measures employers can take.
Fermentation enables glycolysis to continue as long as the glucose supply lasts. Select one: True False
Fermentation is a process that allows glycolysis to continue producing energy from glucose, even in the absence of oxygen, by recycling NAD+ from NADH.
Explanation:The statement 'Fermentation enables glycolysis to continue as long as the glucose supply lasts' is true. Glycolysis is a way that cells gain energy from glucose without the need for oxygen. However, during the process of glycolysis, two molecules of NAD+ are turned into NADH. For glycolysis to continue, the levels of NAD+ need to be replenished. This can be done naturally in the presence of oxygen, but in conditions without oxygen, organisms must use other methods to regenerate NAD+ from NADH, one of which is through the process of fermentation. Through fermentation, NAD+ is recycled, which allows glycolysis, and therefore the breakdown of glucose for energy, to continue.
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Fermentation allows glycolysis to continue in the absence of oxygen by regenerating NAD+. This ensures that as long as there is a supply of glucose, the process of glycolysis can continue.
Explanation:The statement 'Fermentation enables glycolysis to continue as long as the glucose supply lasts' is True. Fermentation is a metabolic process that allows glycolysis to continue in the absence of oxygen by recycling NAD+ from NADH. This is done using an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor.
Glycolysis itself is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate, with the production of small amounts of ATP (energy). Therefore, as long as there are glucose molecules to be broken down and a way to recycle NAD+, glycolysis can continue.
An example of this process is in yeast cells in the absence of oxygen: they undergo alcohol fermentation, where glucose is converted to ethanol, thereby recycling NAD+ and enabling glycolysis to continue indefinitely as long as glucose is available.
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___________ claims are initiated by the parent and/or child based on the harm suffered as a result of being born.
Answer:
Wrongful life
Explanation:
Wrongful life is the term used for the claim initiated by the parent based on the harm or injury brought upon a child at birth either due to negligence of the health caregiver or health facilities
explain how the two-point discrimination test illustrates how the density of touch receptors in a receptive field varies in different areas of the body?
Answer:
By experimenting and comparing the results on different body parts.
Explanation:
The "Two Point Discrimination Test" is designed to illustrate the density of touch sensitive receptors for different parts on our body and our ability to tell if there are two distinct objects that we are touching or not.
The density of touch receptors in different receptive fields on our body can be our hands and our back for example, the receptive field density is much more higher in our hands for evolutionary reasons so we are able to more easily tell two distinct objects apart that we are touching with our hands.
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The two-point discrimination test measures the density of touch receptors in different areas of the body. It involves simultaneously touching the skin with two points and asking the patient to indicate whether they feel one or two stimuli.
Explanation:The two-point discrimination test is used to measure the density of touch receptors in different areas of the body. It involves touching the skin with two points simultaneously and asking the patient to indicate whether they feel one or two stimuli. The areas of the body with higher density of touch receptors, such as the fingertips, will have a smaller distance threshold for distinguishing two points compared to areas with lower density, such as the arms or legs.
For example, if two points can be distinguished when they are 2 mm apart on the fingertips, but can only be distinguished when they are 10 mm apart on the arms, it indicates that the density of touch receptors is higher in the fingertips. This test demonstrates how the density of touch receptors in a receptive field varies in different areas of the body.
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The population that is mentally ill is arrested and prosecuted at a rate that is how many times that of the general population?
Answer:
4
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that this population is arrested and prosecuted at a rate four times higher than that of the general population. This is mainly due to the fact that not everyone is well informed on the various different mental illnesses that exist and, since these illnesses cause individuals to break the law more often than the general population then they are arrested and prosecuted at a much higher rate.
The combustion of 1.881 g of glucose, C 6 H 12 O 6 ( s ) , in a bomb calorimeter with a heat capacity of 4.90 kJ/°C results in an increase in the temperature of the calorimeter and its contents from 22.06 °C to 28.04 °C. What is the internal energy change, Δ U , for the combustion of 1.881 g of glucose?
Answer:
ΔU = - 2804.02 kJ/mol
Explanation:
The equation for the reaction is:
C₆H₁₂O₆(s) + 6O₂ (g) ⇒ 6CO₂(g) + 6H₂O(l)
Given that:
Calorimeter heat capacity [tex](q_{cal}) =4.90kJ/^0C[/tex]
change in temperature = [tex](\delta T) = 28.04^0C-22.06^0C\\(\delta T) = 5.98^0C[/tex]
mass of glucose = 1.881 g
molar mass of glucose = 180 g/mol
number of moles of glucose = [tex]\frac{mass of glucose}{molar mass of glucose}[/tex]
number of moles of glucose = [tex]\frac{1.881g}{180g/mol}[/tex]
number of moles of glucose = 0.01045 mole
The heat absorbed (q) by the calorimeter is calculated as follows:
Heat absorbed = Heat capacity × change in temperature
[tex]\delta H = q* \delta T[/tex]
= 4.90 × 5.98°C
= 29.302 kJ
Enthalpy of combustion can be calculated as:
[tex]\delta H_c=-\frac{q}{n}[/tex]
where; n = number of moles of glucose = 0.01045 mole
[tex]\delta H_c=-\frac{29.032kJ}{0.01045mol}[/tex]
[tex]\delta H_c=- 2804.019 kJ/mol[/tex]
ΔH = - 2804.02 kJ/mol
The change in internal energy ΔU can be calculated as:
ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT
where Δn = difference in number of moles of species in of product minus that of reactant; in that case, we have:
(6 - 6) = 0
ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT
- 2804.02 kJ/mol = ΔU + (0 × R × T)
- 2804.02 kJ/mol = ΔU + 0
- ΔU = 2804.02 kJ/mol
ΔU = - 2804.02 kJ/mol
Answer:
2804.02 kJ/mol.
Explanation:
Equation of reaction:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 --> 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(g)
Molar mass of C6H12O6 = (6*12) + (12*1) + (6*16)
= 180 g/mol
Number of moles = mass/molar mass
= 1.881/180
= 0.01045 mol.
ΔU = q + W
W = 0,
ΔU = q
ΔT = 28.04 - 22.06
= 5.98 °C
qrxn = qcal;
qcal = Ccal * ΔT
= 4.9 * 5.98
= 29.302 kJ
ΔU = qcal/n
= 29.302/0.01045
= 2804.02 kJ/mol.
In a certain variety of chicken, some offspring have a feather pattern that is black-and-white checkered. Chickens with this checkered feather pattern result from the cross of a black chicken with a white chicken.Which of the following types of inheritance is most likely responsible for the checkered feather pattern?
codominant
dominant
polygenic
sex-linked
Final answer:
The checkered feather pattern in chickens resulting from a cross between a black chicken and a white chicken indicates codominant inheritance, where both alleles are equally expressed.
Explanation:
The checkered feather pattern seen in some offspring resulting from a cross between a black chicken and a white chicken is most likely a result of codominant inheritance. This type of inheritance pattern occurs when two different alleles for a gene are expressed equally, leading to a phenotype that displays characteristics of both alleles. In the case of the chickens, neither the black nor white feather color is fully dominant over the other; instead, both colors are expressed, resulting in the checkered pattern.
You would like to know whether the progeny of a pair of mated fruit flies are distributed among the resulting four phenotypic classes in a 1:1:1:1 ratio. You perform a chi-square test and obtain a p value of 0.04. Assuming you have done the test correctly, select the best interpretation of this result.The p value allows you to make a decision regarding the likelihood of the observed values. You would like to know whether the progeny of a pair of mated fruit flies are distributed among the resulting four phenotypic classes in a 1:1:1:1 ratio. You perform a chi-b.) square test and obtain a p value of 0.04. Assuming you have done the test correctly, select the best interpretation of this result.
a) The differences between the observed and expected counts are too large to be attributed to chance.
b) The traits being studied are on separate chromosomes.
c) Approximately 4% of the offspring lie outside the range of values expected for a 1:1:1:1 ratio.
d) The phenotypic ratio is actually 9:3:3:1
a) The differences between the observed and expected counts are too large to be attributed to chance.
Explanation:
The chi square test is to know the probability of correlating with the hypothesis given. A low result as compared to observation suggests that hypothesis is not correct.
In this example ratio of 1:1:1:1 shows law of independent assortment. The chances exhibit are 25% thus the value of p 0.04 is very less.
Hence, difference between observed and expected count is very large to be attributed to chance.
The correct interpretation of the chi-square test result with a p-value of 0.04 is that the differences between the observed and expected counts are too large to be attributed to chance.
The correct interpretation of the chi-square test result with a p-value of 0.04 is:
a) The differences between the observed and expected counts are too large to be attributed to chance.
This means that the observed distribution of progeny among the phenotypic classes is significantly different from the expected 1:1:1:1 ratio. The p-value of 0.04 indicates that there is a 4% chance that the observed deviations from the expected ratio are due to random chance.
It does not necessarily imply that the phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1 or that the traits being studied are on separate chromosomes.
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What is a diagnostic test in which an X-ray is obtained after injection of radiopaque contrast material into blood vessels?
Answer:Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
Explanation:
DSA is a fluroscopy technique which is used in intervenous radiology.
This is done in order to visualize the the blood vessels found in dense or bony soft tissue environment.
The image is produced with the help of contrast medium by subtracting the pre-contrast image from the subsequent image and hence named as digital subtraction angiography.
Based on your understanding of the chapter material and the information in the passage, which of the following best defines something as a virus? Are virophages a type of virus or something different?
a. It must have a capsid and double-stranded or single-stranded DNA. Virophages are therefore a type of virus.
b. It must have a capsid and a linear nucleic acid that encodes replication enzymes. Virophages are therefore not a type of virus.
c. It must have an envelope, capsid, and nucleic acid, which can be double-stranded or single-stranded, and DNA or RNA. Virophages are therefore not a type of virus.
d. It must have a capsid and linear nucleic acid. Virophages are therefore a type of virus.
e. It must have a capsid and a nucleic acid, which can be double-stranded or single-stranded, circular or linear, and DNA or RNA. Virophages are therefore a type of virus.
Answer:
Option-E
Explanation:
Virophages are the small circular dsDNA viruses which are parasitic to the other giant viruses. The virophages reduce the number of other giant viruses by using their replication machinery to replicate themselves.
The virophages are considered the virus due to the presence of the circular double-stranded DNA enclosed in a capsid.
In the given question the possibility of the features shown by the virophages is maximum in the Option which has stated the similarity of the virus to the virophages like in the option-E.
Thus, Option-E is the correct answer.
Identify and describe the three periods of prenatal development. Briefly describe what occurs in each period.
Explanation:
Development happens quickly during the prenatal period, which is the time between conception and birth. This period is generally divided into three stages: the germinal stage, the embryonic stage, and the fetal stage.
First or the germinal stage- time span: conception at two weeks
development that occurs: the key steps in establishing a pregnancy
Second or the embryonic stage - time span: third through eighth week
development that occurs: the face, eyes, ears, limbs and bones begin to form
Third or the fetal stage- time span: eighth or ninth week through birth
development that occurs: the vocal cords develop, and the digestive system and kidneys begin to function. spontaneous or unplanned, movements are possible by the end of the third month
The three periods of prenatal development are the germinal period, embryonic period, and fetal period. In the germinal period, the zygote undergoes cell division and implants into the uterine wall. In the embryonic period, major organs and body systems begin to form. In the fetal period, the fetus grows and matures.
Explanation:The first period of prenatal development is the germinal period, which lasts for about two weeks after fertilization. During this period, the zygote undergoes cell division and implants itself into the uterine wall.The second period is the embryonic period, which lasts from the third week to the eighth week of pregnancy. This is a critical period of development when the major organs and body systems begin to form.The third period is the fetal period, which begins at the end of the eighth week and continues until birth. During this period, the fetus grows and matures, and its organs and systems become fully functional.Learn more about Prenatal Development here:https://brainly.com/question/33443060
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Since the Pleistocene ice age, deserts have been gradually forming in the southwestern United States. As the original lakes and rivers of this area shrank into isolated streams, ponds, and springs, the fishes living in them developed a strong potential for ___________.(A) speciation.(B) hybridization.(C) mechanical incompatibility.(D) temporal isolation.(E) hybrid inviability.
Answer:
(A) speciation.
Explanation:
Shrinking of water bodies and development of deserts since the Pleistocene ice age produced new vacant niches that could be inhabited by organisms such as fishes. Production of new isolated streams, ponds, and springs allowed the fishes to occupy these new water bodies. Accumulation of genetic variations to become adapted to their new habitat resulted in the evolution of several new species of fishes with many different genetic traits. This represents speciation due to geographical isolation.
Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones ________ pass across the plasma membrane; they cause the target cells to ________ that produce the characteristic effects of the hormones.
Answer:
can ,synthesize specific proteins
Explanation:
Hormones are chemical signals secreted by animals and plant that are capable of regulating body activities and maintain homeostasis.
They are transported in the circulatory system of the body
The action of hormones can be seen after the hormone has bound to its specific receptor found inside the cell.
For instance, steroid hormone and the thyroid hormones can pass through the plasma membrane to their receptors inside the cells.
When they bind with their receptors, the target cells will synthesize specific proteins that produce the characteristic effect of the hormone.
What is one field you may explore if you want to study the complex relationship between culture and biology?
The field of Medical Anthropology is an apt choice for those interested in studying the complex relationship between culture and biology. It combines knowledge from social and biological sciences to study health and disease in different cultural contexts.
Explanation:If you are interested in studying the complex relationship between culture and biology, one field you could explore is Medical Anthropology. This interdisciplinary field combines aspects of both social sciences and biological sciences to understand how cultural practices and biology influence health, disease, and illness in different societies and cultures. For example, a medical anthropologist could study the cultural beliefs affecting nutritional habits in a certain population and how those habits impact their biological health.
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Two European men and two Polynesian women settled on a previously uninhabited tropical island. All four of the settlers have brown eyes, a dominant trait, but one of the Europeans is heterozygous and carries the recessive gene for blue eyes.
After several generations, 35 percent of the island population is found to have AB+ blood. This is much higher than the percentage of AB+ people in the populations from which the original settlers came. The high percentage of AB+ blood is probably due to:
Answer:
founder effect
Explanation:
When a few individuals from a population migrate to some new habitat and start a new population, the gene pool of the new population may not have the same allele frequencies as that of the original population. This change in the allele frequency of the new population is called the founder effect. In the given population, the increased frequency of the AB+ phenotype might have resulted from the founder effect. This is a chance event that occurs when a few individuals with a small fraction of genetic variations found a new population.
Fibrocartilage is designed to withstand repeated compressive forces. Fibrocartilage is designed to withstand repeated compressive forces. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Fibrous cartilage consists of several collagen fibers both type I and type II. This makes fibrous cartilage flexible, tough, and elastic. This structure of fibrous cartilage acts like a intercalated bones and helps in dissipating compressive force as the collagen undergo differential staining when it is under compression as compared to the stain created when collagen in under tension. Thus, it possess compressive stiffness and shear moduli that can bear load and wear resistance
Hence, the given statement is true
Fibrocartilage is designed to withstand repeated compressive forces and has a large amount of collagen fibers. It is tough and can absorb pressure, making it suitable for structures like the knee joint and intervertebral discs.
Explanation:True Fibrocartilage is designed to withstand repeated compressive forces. Fibrocartilage contains a large amount of collagen fibers, giving the tissue tremendous strength. Examples of fibrocartilage include the menisci in the knee joint and intervertebral discs. It is tough because it has thick bundles of collagen fibers dispersed through its matrix, allowing it to absorb pressure and withstand compressive forces.
You are in your laboratory studying a tumor. You want to see as many details about the structure of the tissue and its cells as possible to try to determine what caused the tumor’s development. You have the best microscope available. Check the option below that would allow you to see the greatest amount of detail
Answer:
Focus on the cells using high power.Explanation:
10x magnification of microscope, you can see a group of cells not an individual cell because for seeing individual cell, you have a microscope with a magnification of 100x.
What is cell?Cell is the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms. Cell are very tiny particles which cannot be seen through open eyes. It can only be seen with the help of microscope. Microscope is an instrument which is used for to see very small particles which cannot be seen through eyes. Magnification is the enlargement of small picture in order to see it clearly.
You are in your laboratory studying a tumor. You want to see as many details about the structure of the tissue and its cells as possible to try to determine what caused the tumor’s development. You have the best microscope available.
Therefore, 10x magnification of microscope, you can see a group of cells not an individual cell because for seeing individual cell, you have a microscope with a magnification of 100x.
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In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators of algae-eating fish, i.e., they locate their prey by sight. If a population o algae eaters experiences predation pressure from pike-cichlids, which of the following would least likely be observed in the algae-eater population over the course of many generations? Please note this is asking least likely.
a. Female algae eaters may become larger, bearing broods composed of more, and larger young.
b. The algae eaters may become sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes
c. The algae eaters may become nocturnal (active only at night).
d. Coloration of the algae eaters may become drab.
e. The algae eaters may become faster swimmers
Explanation:
The predators prey by sight, and the larger size of the female algae eaters is a conspicious trait, hence the fishes will be easily identify by the predators. As the larger fishes which are female possess a better broods plays an important role in restoring the wiped out preyed animals population. As, It is said that algae eater population which is under the predation pressure, the population of broods which are large in size will be increased only if the predators free the fishes which are large in size. This shows that these would be less likely be seen in the algae eater population.
Final answer:
In the context of predation pressure from pike-cichlids, the least likely change in algae-eater fish over generations would be females becoming larger with more and larger young, as adaptations usually focus on survival traits such as smaller size, nocturnal habits, camouflage, or increased speed.
Explanation:
In a hypothetical environment where pike-cichlids are visual predators of algae-eating fish, over many generations, the least likely observation in the algae-eater population due to predation pressure would be "a. Female algae eaters may become larger, bearing broods composed of more, and larger young." This outcome is less likely because under predation pressure, organisms often evolve traits that directly mitigate the risk of predation, such as becoming sexually mature at smaller sizes, adopting nocturnal habits, drab coloration for camouflage, or becoming faster swimmers. These traits help evade predators or minimize visibility to them. In contrast, larger size and greater reproductive output might not confer an immediate survival advantage under high predation pressure and could even make the algae eaters more conspicuous to their predators. The proposed changes would be examples of evolutionary responses to predation, aiming to enhance survival rather than reproductive output under threat.
Which of the following is not an ecosystem service? A. decomposition B. seed banks C. pollination D. maintenance of soil fertility E. prevention of soil erosion
Answer:B
Explanation:
Among the options provided, seed banks are not considered an ecosystem service. Seed banks are human-created for biodiversity conservation and differ from natural ecosystem services like pollination or soil fertility maintenance.
The question asks: Which of the following is not an ecosystem service? An ecosystem service is a process or a product of natural systems that benefits humans in some way, such as through the provisioning of food, water, or air purification. The options provided are: A. decomposition, B. seed banks, C. pollination, D. maintenance of soil fertility, E. prevention of soil erosion.
Among these, seed banks (option B) are not considered an ecosystem service in the same manner as the others listed. Seed banks are human-made repositories where seeds are stored for conservation and agricultural purposes. Unlike decomposition, pollination, maintenance of soil fertility, and prevention of soil erosion, seed banks do not directly result from natural ecosystem processes but are instead a tool for conserving biodiversity.
Ecosystem services such as pollination, maintenance of soil fertility, and prevention of soil erosion are critical for supporting food production, regulating the environment, and maintaining biodiversity. These processes occur naturally and provide significant benefits to human societies, showcasing the inherent value of preserving and maintaining healthy ecosystems.
In the early 20th century, psychology focused on subjective information. The development of behaviorism shifted the focus of psychology to:
Answer:
Objective
Explanation:
In psychology, objectivity is something that is not influenced by emotions or feeling therefore it is based on facts.
Therefore, objective psychology would refer to an approach that is based on quantitative and measurable behaviorism.
In the early 20th century, it was based on subjective information. This was the opposite of objective where personal perspectives, feelings and opinions were used in decision making.