Answer: Religious beliefs guided physicians to perform certain procedures; however, culture did not play a role in the way physicians worked or who could become a physician or a healer.
Explanation: most of the religious books guides people to do something. That s why I think its this
Coach Cardio tells his class to do 5 perfect modified push-ups. Which one of your friends has perfect form? Jason has his toes on the floor, legs and back in a straight line, hands under his chest and elbows bend to 90 degrees. Joey has his toes and knees on the floor, legs and back in a straight line, hands under his chest and elbows bend to 45 degrees. Kai has her toes and knees on the floor, legs and back in a straight line, hands under her shoulders and elbows bend to 90 degrees. Katie has her toes and knees on the floor, back flat with rear end over the knees, hands under her shoulders and elbows bend to 45 degrees.
Katie does, because the rest of his friends are bending their arms too little/too much, and all have their back lined up wrong.
Hope helps!-Aparri
Kai is the one who has perfect form for a modified push-up according to Coach Cardio's criteria, with her knees and toes on the floor, back and legs straight, hands under her shoulders, and elbows bent to 90 degrees.
Explanation:Coach Cardio asks his class to do 5 perfect modified push-ups. Assessing the description of Jason, Joey, Kai, and Katie's push-up forms, we can determine who has the perfect form. According to the provided details, a perfect modified push-up involves having the knees and toes on the floor, legs and back in a straight line, hands under the chest or shoulders, and elbows bent to 90 degrees.
Kai meets all the criteria for perfect form in a modified push-up because her toes and knees are on the floor, her legs and back are in a straight line, her hands are under her shoulders, and her elbows are bent to 90 degrees. Neither Jason, Joey, nor Katie meets all these criteria as Jason's legs are not in the modified position, Joey's elbows are bent too sharply at 45 degrees, and Katie's back is not in the correct position as her rear end is over the knees.
(I think the answer is A, am I right?)
Most regulatory signs are _____.
A. octagonal and red or white
B. circular and blue or green
C. rectangular and red or white
D. rectangular and yellow
Answer:
C. rectangular and red or whiteExplanation:
In the United States, roadway sings use symbols to communicate specific aspect to drivers in the minor time possible. These sings can have different shapes and colors. They can be used to warn, guide, regulate, to remark school zones, even zones where there are constructions in process.
In the specific case of regulatory signs, they are octagonal shaped, and their color is often red, sometimes white. The best example of a regulatory sing is Stop signs, which are red and octagonal. It's important to say that not all regulatory signs are octagonal, but the vast majority of them are red or white.
So, what's the most common shape of regulatory signs?
Most of them are rectangular, the image attached shows regulatory signs in the United States, there you'll see that most of then are rectangular.
Therefore, the right answer is C.
(4) A food worker prepares chicken salad sandwiches.
What should he wear to prevent cross-contamination?
A. Cloth gloves
B. A fabric apron
C. Single use gloves
D. A disposable apron
Answer:
The correct answer is option (C)-single use gloves.
Explanation:
The food worker must wear the proper single use gloves while preparing the food and serving it to the customer. The food can be contaminated by touching it with bare hands. The single use gloves will prevent the food contamination from germs present on hands while preparing the chicken salad sandwiches.
Further explanation:
The equipment that must be worn for the safety of the worker and preventing the contamination of food are apron, hair restraint, single use gloves, goggles , heat gloves and beard restraints. The single use gloves can be used only once and must be thrown after its use. The use of this gloves again and again will contaminate the food with the germs. A hair restraint must be used by the food worker to prevent the contamination of food with the hair. No individual wants hair in their dish. Proper safety goggles must be used by the workers for their own safety while preparing the food. This provides eye protection for example while frying. The food should be covered properly and hands must be covered with gloves while serving the food to the customer. Hence, the worker must use single use gloves while preparing the chicken salad to prevent the food contamination.Learn more:
1. Hand gloves https://brainly.com/question/4409820 ( answer by Mariejoepagaduan)
2. Food safety https://brainly.com/question/934835 ( answer by Taskmaster )
Keywords :
Gloves, hair, equipment, contamination, aprons, chicken salad, germs and food.
Jake is a 16-year-old male involved in an MVA this morning. He was the only occupant in the vehicle. No other details are available. CT examination shows the patient has a minor fractured (lacerated) right kidney. What is the ICD-10-CM code for the fractured kidney?
Answer:
S37.041a
Explanation: Minor laceration of Right kidney
(14) A food worker is frying donuts in a deep fryer.
What is the food worker required to wear to keep food safe?
A. A rubber apron
B. A hair restraint
C. A pair of safety goggles
D. A pair of heat resistant gloves
Answer:
The correct answer is option (B) A hair restraint.
Explanation:
The food worker should use the proper equipment for the safety of food. The presence of hair in the food is a common problem. The food worker should wear a hair restraint. The hair restraint is the small net like equipment that is used to tie the hair and prevent the contamination of food with it and other dirty things.
Further explanation:
Nobody wants hair in their food, to avoid it the food workers wear hair covering, nets, body covering and beard restraints. While preparing the food, individual should make sure that he uses proper and cleaned utensils. The single use article must be unwrapped only once. All the head hair must be covered with a hair restraint. The facial hair should be covered with beard net. The worker should never leave the bangs or the other parts of the hair hanging outside the hair restraint. Safety goggles are used by the workers for their own safety while preparing the food. Rubber aprons, heat resistant gloves are used while preparing food to prevent themselves from the heat. The food should be covered properly and hands must be covered with gloves while serving the food to the customer.Learn more:
1. Hair restraint https://brainly.com/question/12231474 ( answer by Fatimakincsem)
2. Food safety https://brainly.com/question/8364879 ( answer by Zainebamir540 )
Keywords :
Food, hair restraint, goggles, hair, equipment, contamination, aprons and utensils.
Which of these is the best example of sexual objectification?
A) A female initiates a conversation with another female.
B) A male proposes marriage to a female.
C) A female makes repated coments to a male about his appearence.
D) A female proposes marriage to a male.
Answer: I would say C)
Explanation: The female is objectifying the male's appearance, which is negative.
A female making repeated comments to a male about his appearance is the best example of se×ual objectification.
Option C is correct
What is se×ual objectification?Se×ual objectification is simply the act of treating a person exclusively as an entity of satisfying the se×ual urge.
Se×ual objectification is an act where a person who is se×ually attracted to another person, sees the other party solely for the se×ual benefits they satisfy.
In conclusion, se×ual objectification can be seen when a female makes repeated comments to a male about his appearance.
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Which of these is a sexual stereotype?
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Answer:
D
Explanation:
.......................
How to refill birth control without doctor longmont co
You can order them online and they can ship it right to your house.
How to get gel nail polish off without acetone
Gel nail polish can be removed without acetone by using dental floss or an orange stick to peel it off, or by soaking the nails in warm water and using a wooden cuticle stick to scrape off the polish. Filing the top layer of polish and soaking the nails in a mixture of hot water, salt, and oil can also be effective. These methods are gentler on the nails, but require more patience.
Explanation:Getting gel nail polish off without acetone can be a challenge, but it is possible. One commonly used technique involves using dental floss or an orange stick to gently lift the edge of the nail polish, then sliding it under the polish to peel it off. However, this method must be done carefully in order to avoid damage to the nail. Another method is to soak your nails in warm water for 10-15 minutes to soften the gel polish, and then use a wooden cuticle stick to gently scrape off the polish.
Alternatively, using a file to remove the top layer of polish, followed by soaking the nails in a mixture of hot water, salt, and a few drops of olive or cuticle oil for 20 minutes, can also be effective. The oil acts as a natural softener, helping the gel to loosen and come off.
Remember, these methods will require patience as they may not be as quick as using acetone, but they are much gentler on the nails.
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Alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis are conditions affecting the
Alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis are conditions affecting the liver. Alcoholic hepatitis is inflammation caused by excessive alcohol while cirrhosis results from fibrous tissue replacing dead liver cells due to various factors like viral hepatitis, alcoholism, and contact with liver-toxic chemicals causing progressive loss of liver functions.
Explanation:The conditions, Alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis, both affect the liver. Alcoholic hepatitis refers to the inflammation of the liver caused by excessive consumption of alcohol. On the other hand, cirrhosis involves the formation of fibrous tissue in the liver, which replaces dead liver cells. This could be caused by various factors such as viral hepatitis, alcoholism, or contact with other liver-toxic chemicals leading to progressive loss of liver function.
The mentioned conditions often lead to chronic liver failure, due to the sustained damage and reduced function of the liver. Chronic liver failure can also be as a result of other factors such as hepatitis B or C, autoimmune disorders, iron or copper overload, hereditary conditions or non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
In conclusion, both alcoholic hepatitis and cirrhosis serve as major indicators of severe liver malfunction and are often caused by excessive alcohol intake, hepatitis, or toxic contact. Controlling these factors can potentially prevent or manage both conditions.
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2. Combining drugs usually leads to?
Answer:
more intense effects
Explanation:
I've tried it
Combining drugs usually leads to more intense effects. Option 3.
Combining dosesCombining drugs often results in heightened effects due to interactions between substances. This can lead to unpredictable and potentially dangerous outcomes, including intensified physical and psychological reactions.
Mixing drugs increases the risk of overdose, adverse reactions, and long-term health complications. It's crucial to avoid polydrug use and consult healthcare professionals when taking multiple medications or substances to ensure safety and prevent harmful consequences.
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Identify one component of skill-related fitness that is directly connected to standing long jump and
explain why.
One component of skill-related fitness that is directly connected to standing long jump is Power.
Skill-related fitnessSkill-related fitness is broken down into six different components;
agility, speed, power, balance, coordination, andreaction time.These skill-related components are movements that are necessary for an individual to successfully demonstrate a variety of motor skills and movement patterns.
A long jumper requires great speed and power, flexibility and balance.
The long jump is defined as an athletic event in which the jumper combines three motor qualities - strength, speed and agility.
Thus, the component is Power.
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Why is mental-emotional health important? Check all that apply. Encourages others helps one feel better improves physical fitness fosters better relationships helps one do better in school enables one to enjoy free time
Answer: encourages others
helps one feel better
fosters better relationships
helps one do better in school
enables one to enjoy free time
Explanation: just answered it.
Emotional and mental health is important because it’s a important part of life and impacts mind thoughts, behaviors and emotions.
How the person can improve emotional health day-to-day?There are steps to improve mental health everyday such as small things like exercising, eating a balanced and healthy meals, opening up to other people in your life, taking a break when you need to, remembering something person is grateful for and getting a good night’s sleep, can be helpful in boosting your emotional health.
Being healthy emotionally can promote productivity and effectiveness in activities like work, school or caregiving. It plays an important part in the health of individuals relationships, and allows to adapt to changes in life and cope with adversity.
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(29) A food worker has cooled a pot of soup from 136*F to 70*F within 2 hours.
What is the maximum amount of time she should take to cool the soup from 70*F to 41*F
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
A. 2 hours or less is correct.
The correct option is A: 2 hours
The maximum amount of time she should take to cool the soup from 70*F to 41*F is 2 hours
Unsafely cooled Food that are serve are risky to consume as they can cause food poisoning or lead to sudden increase of food borne illness as the food may have been contaminated with bacteria.
Unsafely cooled Food which are not Safely cooled should not be consume and therefore should be throw away or dispose.
It is recommended that food should be Safely cooled before serving.
Inconclusion The maximum amount of time she should take to cool the soup from 70*F to 41*F is 2 hours..
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what's the "pro's and con's" for giving birth at home and in a hospital?
Final answer:
The pros and cons of giving birth at home and in a hospital vary, with home birth offering increased privacy and natural birth experience, while hospital birth ensures access to medical interventions and emergency care.
Explanation:
When considering the pros and cons of giving birth at home and in a hospital, there are several factors to consider.
Home Birth:
Pros: Increased privacy and comfort, ability to have a more natural birth experience, lower rates of interventions such as inductions and cesarean sections.
Cons: Limited access to medical interventions in case of complications, potential delays in receiving medical assistance, increased risk of certain complications such as postpartum hemorrhage.
Hospital Birth:
Pros: Access to medical interventions and emergency care, availability of pain relief options, presence of healthcare professionals experienced in childbirth.Cons: Increased risk of interventions such as inductions and cesarean sections, less opportunity for personalized care, potentially less privacy and comfort.When Posting on the discussion board, you should ignore other students and not respond to their posts.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
The most appropriate answer option is B. False.
Explanation:
We are given the following statement and we are to determine whether its true or false:
'When Posting on the discussion board, you should ignore other students and not respond to their posts.'
Well in my opinion, there is no definite answer to it as it can vary from person to person according to their opinion.
For me, I think its false as the purpose of the discussion board is to interact with others on their posts as long as it a productive and healthy discussion.
Answer:
false.
Explanation:
How many days after ovulation does implantation take place?
Answer:
6 days
Explanation:
once the embryo reaches the Blastocyst stage, approximately 5-6 days after fertilization, it hatches out of it's zona pellucida and begins the process of implantation in the uterus.
** HELP ASAP ILL MARK BRAINLIEST **
Turn on your _____ from sunset to sunrise, and whenever visibility is low.
A. hazard lights
B. low beams
C. high beams
D. parking lights
The correct answer is to turn on your low beams from sunset to sunrise, and whenever visibility is low. Low beam lights illuminate the road ahead while minimizing glare to oncoming vehicles. Hazard lights, high beams, and parking lights serve different purposes for various scenarios.
Explanation:The appropriate response is B. Low beams. Generally, you should always have your low beam headlights turned on from sunset to sunrise. Low beams are designed to illuminate the road ahead of you while minimizing glare to oncoming vehicles. This is vital not just for your visibility, but also for the visibility of other drivers. These lights are also essential to turn on during periods of reduced visibility, such as when it is raining, snowing, or foggy.
Meanwhile, hazard lights, high beams, and parking lights each serve different purposes. Hazard lights are used to signal distress or warn other drivers of potential danger. High beams are used for seeing farther down the road when driving in poorly-lit areas with few other vehicles. Parking lights are mainly used when your car is parked, but they could also be used under special circumstances where visibility is extremely low.
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You should turn on your low beams during low visibility conditions such as at night from sunset to sunrise, as they provide adequate illumination and are designed not to blind other road users.
Explanation:You should turn on your low beams from sunset to sunrise, and whenever visibility is low. This is because low beams provide sufficient illumination without blinding other drivers. Using high beams in such conditions can reflect off fog, rain, or snow and impair your visibility further, while hazard lights should only be used to indicate a roadside emergency or when your vehicle is stationary and posing a potential hazard. Lastly, parking lights are used for parking and not for driving, as they do not provide adequate visibility for driving in low-light conditions.
true or false? you should use the inbox link in the canvas global navigation menu to check for any communications from either your instructor or your classmates
Answer:
true
Explanation:
It is true that one should use the inbox link in the canvas global navigation menu to check for any communications from either the instructor or the classmates.
What is global navigation menu?Canvas' Global Navigation Menu is located on the left side of every page. All of your courses are easily accessible via the links in the Global Navigation area.
Account, Dashboard, Courses, Groups, Calendar, Inbox, Commons, as well as Help are among the main available links.
Canvas' Global Navigation Menu is basically located on the left side of every page. Canvas features that are frequently used are accessible via Global Navigation links.
To check for communications from the instructor or classmates, use the inbox link in the canvas global navigation menu.
Thus, the given statement is true.
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12. The highest risks of physical harm to young children in group settings are from _______ and _______.
Answer:
parents; inappropriate activities
The highest risks of physical harm to young children in group settings are from neglect and physical abuse. Neglect can result from various factors such as cultural values, standard of care in a community, and poverty. Physical abuse includes behaviors such as beating, kicking, throwing, choking, hitting with objects, burning, and more.
Explanation:The highest risks of physical harm to young children in group settings are from neglect and physical abuse.
Infants, especially those less than one year old, are particularly vulnerable to neglect because they are entirely dependent on their parents for care. Neglect can result from various factors such as cultural values, standard of care in a community, and poverty. On the other hand, physical abuse includes behaviors such as beating, kicking, throwing, choking, hitting with objects, burning, and more.
Child abuse may come in different forms, but the most common form is neglect (78.3 percent), followed by physical abuse (10.8 percent). The majority of perpetrators of child abuse are parents.
Drug and alcohol use is also a known contributor to child abuse. Children raised by substance abusers have a higher risk of physical abuse and neglect. Other risk factors include social isolation, depression, low parental education, and a history of being mistreated as a child.
Children who are emotionally reactive and those who are different from others (e.g. overweight, cognitively impaired, racially or ethnically different) are also at a higher risk of being bullied in group settings.
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If the diet is deficient in one or more of the _____amino acids
Answer:
essential
Explanation: Amino acids are organic compounds composed of nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, along with a variable side chain group. Your body needs 20 different amino acids to grow and function properly. Though all 20 of these are important for your health, only nine amino acids are classified as essential
A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine gynecological exam. She has been married for 5 years and plans to start a family with her husband in the near future. Her first menstrual period was at the age of 11. She is in a 28/4 cycle with no irregularities or discomfort. At age 18, she had an induced abortion and has used oral contraceptives since then. In the recto-vaginal exam, you palpate a mass on the left side. An ultrasound confirms a complex cystic tumor 6cm in diameter on the left ovary. There is no free fluid in the pelvis. There is no family history of any malignant tumors. What is your therapeutic approach?
Answer:
call the OBGYN
What gland produces the thick clear mucus that cleanses the urethra of acidic urine?
Answer:
It's the bulbourethral gland.
The correct answer is Option d) bulbourethral glands. The bulbourethral gland produces the thick, clear mucus that cleanses the urethra of acidic urine.
The bulbourethral glands fluid lubricates the urethra and neutralizes any leftover urine, creating a safer pathway for sperm. also known as Cowper's gland.
These glands release a mucus-rich alkaline fluid that serves two main purposes:
Lubrication: It lubricates the urethra to allow for easier passage of sperm during ejaculation.Neutralization: It neutralizes the acidity from any residual urine in the urethra, ensuring a safer environment for sperm.While both the prostate and bulbourethral glands contribute to the components of semen, it is specifically the bulbourethral gland that has this function.
Complete Question:
What gland produces the thick clear mucus that cleanses the urethra of acidic urine?
a. testes
b. seminal vesicles
c. epididymis
d. bulbourethral glands
e. prostate
What is appetite?
a basal metabolic rate
a desire for food based on emotional factors
a feeling of discomfort caused by nutrients
a feeling of hunger
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Tanya is not able to solve a problem because she’s unable to see it from a fresh perspective. Which obstacle to problem solving is Tanya experiencing?
A. Fixation
B. Counterproductive heuristic
C. Confirmation bias
D. Overconfidence
Final answer:
Tanya is experiencing fixation, which is the inability to see the problem from a new perspective and continuing to use a problem-solving strategy that is not working. So the correct option is A.
Explanation:
Tanya is experiencing an obstacle to problem-solving known as fixation. Fixation occurs when a problem solver cannot see a problem from a fresh perspective, and becomes stuck on one way of looking at the issue. This can happen when an individual focuses solely on a single aspect of the problem or employs a problem-solving strategy that has worked in the past, despite it not being effective for the current problem.
Fixation is different from other biases like counterproductive heuristic, which refers to a mental shortcut that leads to inefficient or incorrect outcomes; confirmation bias, which is the tendency to seek out information that supports preexisting beliefs; or overconfidence, which is the belief that one's abilities or predictions are more accurate than they are.
please hurry!!!!!!!!!!!!
The specific individuals, groups, and institutions that enable socialization to take place.
The specific individuals, groups, and institutions that enable socialization to take place. agents of socialization.
What is socialization?People learn about societal norms and traditions through the process of socialization.
This procedure promotes social integration among individuals, which benefits society as a whole. Peers, teachers, religious leaders, and family members all contribute to socialization.
Primary socialization occurs from infancy through adolescence, while secondary socialization lasts the rest of one's life. This process normally happens in two stages.
Adult socialization can happen whenever someone is put in unfamiliar situations, particularly if they engage with people whose norms or habits are different from their own.
Therefore, The specific individuals, groups, and institutions that enable socialization to take place. agents of socialization.
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(17) what does FIFO require?
A. Throwing away leftover food
B. Using new food before old food
C. Organizing stored food by use-by date
D. Discarding refrigerated food after 3 days
C. Organizing stored food by use-by date. Also, You eat older food before new food so that the older food doesn't expire.
What does FIFO require?C. Organizing stored food by use-by date
What is FIFO?The FIFO method is a storage system that works according to the sequence of goods entering the stock, always prioritizing the dispatch of those lots that arrived before. As the name says, First In First Out, that is, first in, first out. In this way, it is possible to have greater control of storage.
How does FIFO work?FIFO is a system that stipulates the rotation of goods and makes them move and order the output of the products, where the one that has been in stock the longest always leaves first, whatever the product: an input, a raw material, a commodity or finished products.
With this information, we can conclude that FIFO is a method of organization by date of arrival, thus controlling the time the product is stored and its validity.
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Which is the best strategy for avoiding long-term stress? A. Develop a fun hobby and spend time on it every day B. Manage your time effectively and plan time to relax C. Spend less time on activites that you find difficult
Answer:
a Because it just making more sense than anything else periodt
Explanation:
Answer:
B. Manage your time effectively and plan time to relax
Explanation:
Trust me its right
A speed limit sign that says "NIGHT" indicates the _____ legal speed between sunset and sunrise.
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. only
D. average
Answer:
Explanation:
B?
Answer:
it would be B because you are not legally allowed to go over it at night
Explanation:
Does the weight loss program have practical significance? A. No, the program is not practically significant because the results are likely to occur even if the weight loss program has no effect. B. Yes, the program is practically significant because the results are too unlikely to occur by chance. C. Yes, the program is practically significant because the amount of lost weight is large enough to be considered practically significant. D. No, the program is not practically significant because the amount of weight lost is trivial.
The practical significance of a weight loss program depends on the number of people who lost weight, the average amount of weight lost, and the variance in weight loss in the group. A significant number of people losing a small amount might not be practically significant, while a small number of people losing a large amount could be.
Explanation:The practical significance of a weight loss program can be determined by factors such as the number of people who lost weight on the program, and how much weight was lost on average. The average weight loss (given by C. the mean amount of weight lost by 15 people) and the total amount of weight lost by 15 people (D.) can contribute towards the practical significance. However, if the variance is high and the weight loss is not consistent among the group (B. the number of people who were on the diet), the program may not be practically significant.
Say, for example, if a significant number of people lose a small amount of weight, such as 1-2 pounds, this might not be practically significant, even if the results are statistically significant. Conversely, if a smaller number of people lose a larger amount of weight, like 10-20 pounds, this could be practically significant.
Option C and D suggests that the program is practically significant as the amount of lost weight is large enough. However, option A and B underlines that program's results could occur by chance or have a trivial weight loss. Hence, the practical significance of the program may need to be evaluated on an individual basis with more data and context.
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