Like lactic acid fermentation, alcoholic fermentation generates NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue to produce ATP. However, alcoholic fermentation in yeast produces ethyl alcohol instead of lactic acid as a waste product. Alcoholic fermentation also releases carbon dioxide
In an anaerobic environment, yeast metabolises glucose through fermentation, creating ethanol and carbon dioxide as waste products.
Explanation:Under anaerobic conditions, yeast produce a waste product called ethanol, also known as alcohol, and carbon dioxide. This anaerobic process is referred to as fermentation. In fermentation, glucose is broken down in the absence of oxygen, producing energy, ethanol, and carbon dioxide. For instance, in beer and wine production, yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) transforms sugars into ethanol and carbon dioxide as a result of the fermentation process.
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The purpose of this biology lab was to measure the oxygen consumption during seed germination as evidence of the rate of cellular respiration. Both germinating and non-germinating peas at different temperatures were used. Glass beads placed in one respirometer served as the control.
Considering the chemical reaction for cellular respiration, what must be included in the respirometer containing the germinating seeds?
A) oxygen
B) boiled water
C) oxygen and water
D) warm water and light
Answer:
C) Oxygen and water
Explanation:
In cellular respiration chemical reactions, the reactants are glucose and oxygen.
In the provided reactants, there is no oxygen provided, hence, we need oxygen for the reaction to occur.
Since we are preparing to measure oxygen consumption during germination, water has to be there for germination to take place, hence our option includes water.
Answer:
C.Oxygen and water
Explanation:
What structure receives blood from the efferent arteriole of a juxtamedullary nephron?
Answer:
The glomerulus.
Explanation:
The glomerulus receives blood from the efferent arteriole of a juxtamedullary nephron. It is also, the network known as a tuft, of filtering capillaries, located at the vascular pole, of the renal corpuscle, in Bowman's capsule. Each glomerulus, receives its blood supply, from an afferent arteriole, of the renal circulation. This is the correct answer to this question.
Hope this helps!!!
Kyle.
The efferent arteriole of a juxtamedullary nephron supplies blood to the vasa recta, which is a network of peritubular capillaries that surrounds the loop of Henle in a juxtamedullary nephron.
Explanation:The structure that receives blood from the efferent arteriole of a juxtamedullary nephron is called the vasa recta. This peritubular capillary network surrounds and interacts with the nephron. The efferent arteriole exits the glomerulus and forms this capillary network. In juxtamedullary nephrons specifically, this peritubular capillary network forms a network around the loop of Henle, hence known as vasa recta. These peritubular capillaries, including vasa recta, play a crucial role in reabsorption and secretion processes during urine formation.
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Name one plant, and how it is useful to our world today.
Answer:
money plant
Explanation:
it produces air back in to oxygen. and it also feeds insects.
well I would say Earth
Our existing knowledge of astronomy is essential for these reasons (and many more):
Navigation.
Chronology.
Predicting tides.
Weather prediction.
Communication (think satellites).
Our current and future pursuit of astronomy is important for these reasons (and many more):
To better predict the weather.
To equip ourselves to deal with potentially disastrous collisions in the future.
To predict potential disruptions to communication, etc. caused by sunspot activity and solar flares.
To improve our scientific understanding of the nature of reality by observing the effects of extreme conditions (e.g. black holes).
To understand how to colonise other planets if we need to.
To understand better how life began on this planet, and the diversity of forms it may take in general.
hope this helps :)
A surgical procedure where two tiny holes are drilled into the skull and electrodes are implanted in the brain is called _____.
Electric shock therapy
Answer:
Deep brain Stimulation
Explanation:
A plant cell uses the molecules in the list to synthesize a protein. What role do the
ATP molecules play in the protein synthesis process?
Answer:
The light reactions of photosynthesis use chemiosmosis to produce ATP that will be used in the Calvin cycle.
Explanation:
ATP is one of the most important compounds inside a cell because it is the energy transport molecule. ATP (Adenosine TriPhosphate) is considered a transporter of energy (photosynthesis) because when one of the phosphate groups is broken off, turning it into Adenosine DiPhosphate (the Tri means 3 phosphate groups, the Di means 2 phosphate groups). When a phosphate breaks off, through chemical reactions in a cell, energy (photosynthesis) is released which the plant uses for cellular processes.
ATP molecules provide the energy necessary for protein synthesis, enabling the formation of peptide bonds and the loading of amino acids onto tRNA. It also supports the ribosomal movements during translation. ATP is a critical energy source for cellular functions and protein synthesis cannot occur without it.
The ATP molecules play a crucial role in protein synthesis by providing the energy required for various steps of the process. Protein synthesis, specifically during translation, involves decoding an mRNA message into a polypeptide chain, where amino acids are covalently linked by peptide bonds.
ATP is essential as it supplies the biological energy needed for forming these bonds, as well as for other processes such as loading the amino acids onto tRNA molecules, and driving the conformational changes of the ribosome and associated factors that enable the synthesis to proceed.
ATP releases energy when its phosphate bonds are hydrolyzed, which is then used to power the tRNA charging and the ribosomal movements during synthesis. This makes ATP an indispensable molecule in the high-energy-demanding process of protein synthesis. In summary, without ATP, the complex machinery that orchestrates protein synthesis would not have the energy to perform its task, thereby inhibiting the formation of proteins.
Why do water and solutes leave capillaries at the arterial end?
A) the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher at the arterial end than it is at the venous end.
B) the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher at the venous end than it is at the arterial end.
C) the net filtration pressure of the interstitial fluid is higher at the arterial end than it is at the venous end.
D) the net filtration pressure of the interstitial fluid is higher at the venous end than it is at the arterial end.
E) the osmotic pressure is higher at the arterial end than it is at the venous end.
Answer:
A) the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher at the arterial end than it is at the venous end.
Explanation:
Net filtration pressure is a pressure necessary for the movement of fluid out of the capillary. It depends on osmotic and hydrostatic pressures.
During the process of filtration (water from arterial end into the interstitial fluid), capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure. This enables the movement of fluid.
Reabsorption is the opposite process (from the tissue fluid into the venous capillary) and it occurs because blood osmotic pressure is higher than the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure.
Net filtration pressure is negative during the rearbsorption.
Water and solutes leave capillaries at the arterial end because the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher at the arterial end than it is at the venous end.
Explanation:Capillaries are small blood vessels that allow for the exchange of fluids and solutes between the blood and the surrounding tissues. At the arterial end of the capillary, the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher than the net filtration pressure of the interstitial fluid. This means that there is a greater force pushing fluid out of the capillary into the tissues compared to the force pushing fluid back into the capillary. This difference in pressure allows water and solutes to leave the capillaries at the arterial end.
Name three factors that are important in promoting venous return
1.The presence of valves 2.the milking action of skeletal muscles 3. the veins as the muscles contract
Venous return is the rate of back flow of blood to the heart. It mainly depends upon the factors such as blood volume, blood pressure, and the cardiac suction.
What is Venous return?Venous return is the rate at which blood flows back to the heart. It limits the cardiac output. Superposition of the cardiac function curve in an organism and venous return curve are used in hemodynamic model preparation.
Peripheral venous pressure is the pressure in the peripheral veins of the body which drains the body organs and tissues. It is the pressure differential between the peripheral and central veins which determines the venous return.
Venous return is facilitated by a number of different factors, including inspiration, increased blood volume, cardiac suction effect, the presence of venous valves and the skeletal muscle pump of the body.
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Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis occurs between alleles on sister chromatids View Available Hint(s) Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis occurs between alleles on sister chromatids True False Part B Which of the following statements about gamete formation during meiosis is false? View Available Hint(s) Which of the following statements about gamete formation during meiosis is false? Complete linkage results in the formation of only parental gametes. Recombinant gametes contain combinations of alleles not found in the parent cell. Parental gametes can be formed only if there is no crossing over during meiosis. Parental gametes contain the same combinations of linked genes as found in the parent cell. Part C If two genes on the same chromosome exhibit complete linkage, what is the expected F2 phenotypic ratio from a selfed heterozygote with the genotype a + b + ⁄⁄ ab? View Available Hint(s) If two genes on the same chromosome exhibit complete linkage, what is the expected F2 phenotypic ratio from a selfed heterozygote with the genotype a + b + ⁄⁄ ab? 9:3:3:1 1:1:1:1 1:1 3:1 Provide Feedback
Answer:Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis occurs between alleles on sister chromatids View Available Hint(s) Crossing over during prophase I of meiosis occurs between alleles on sister chromatids True False Part B Which of the following statements about gamete formation during meiosis is false? View Available Hint(s)
Explanation:
Crossing over during meiosis I occurs between non-sister homologous chromatids, resulting in new allele combinations. The statement that parental gametes can only be formed with no crossing over is false. With complete linkage, the expected F2 phenotypic ratio from a selfed heterozygote is 3:1.
This exchange of DNA results in new combinations of alleles on the resulting chromosomes and is a crucial factor in the genetic diversity among offspring. Regarding gamete formation during meiosis, the statement that is false is: "Parental gametes can be formed only if there is no crossing over during meiosis." This is incorrect because it is possible to have parental gametes formed even if crossing over occurs, provided that the crossover does not involve genes that are linked. If two genes on the same chromosome exhibit complete linkage, the expected F2 phenotypic ratio from a selfed heterozygote with the genotype a+b+//ab is 3:1. Complete linkage means that the alleles for both genes are always inherited together because they are on the same chromosome and there is no recombination between them.
A 4-year-old child with autism always flushes the toilet before using it and leaves the toilet unflushed after using it. what should the otr® do to ensure correct toileting habits?
Answer:
have sincord tolet to flush once someone leave the bathroom.
Explanation:
;) hope it helps
Two astronomers are looking at different supernovae. Supernova Alpha is 8 thousand light
years away. Supernova Charlie is 142 million light years away. With just this information,
what can these two scientists agree on
Supernova Charlie happened before Supernova Alpha because it took more time for light to reach Earth
Two astronomers are agreed on Supernova Charlie happened before Supernova Alpha, while other options are incorrect on the basis of light-years that measures the distances between two supernovae.
What do you mean by Supernova?Supernova may be defined as a large explosion that takes place at the end of a star's life cycle.
Supernova Alpha is 8 thousand light-years away, while Supernova Charlie is 142 million light-years away. So, the Supernova Charlie takes time to fall its light into the earth's surface as compared to Supernova Alpha.
Therefore, Two astronomers agreed on Supernova Charlie which happened before Supernova Alpha.
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Some transcription signals are located thousands of base pairs upstream of the gene they regulate. How does the distant signal initiate transcription? (2 points) Activation of the transcription signal releases a secondary messenger that binds to the start codon and initiates transcription. Long regions of DNA can loop over to enable regulatory connections. The distance between the transcription signal and the gene allows for preprogrammed delays in the start of transcription. The region between the transcription signal and the gene is an exon that is spliced out following activation of the transcription signal.
Answer:
Long regions of DNA can loop over to enable regulatory connections.
Explanation:
Transcriptional factors (such as activators or repressors) are proteins that regulate gene expression by binding to DNA sequence (such as enhancers and silencers). Consequently, gene transcription might be turned on or off. Usually binding sites are located near the promoter (initiation of transcription). But when they are located far from the gene they regulate DNA flexibility plays a role. Formed DNA loops bring together binding sites and transcription factors.
Which statement correctly describes the role of chance in evolution?a. Evolutionary change proceeds by an accumulation of changes that occur by chance.b. An allele that increases evolutionary fitness cannot be lost from a population by chance events.c. The ultimate source of new alleles is mutation, random changes in the nucleotide sequences of an organism's DNA
Answer:
c. The ultimate source of new alleles is mutation, random changes in the nucleotide sequences of an organism's DNA
Explanation:
Mutations are changes in DNA sequence that can create genetic variation within the population. Mutations are important for evolution because of their ability to form a new genetic variant (allele) that can be spread to the offspring. If a new variant of a trait formed by a mutation is advantageous and helps the organism to survive and reproduce, it is going to be favourable by natural selection. That variation will more likely be passed to the next generation and remain over time.
Mutations, which occur randomly in an organism's DNA sequence, introduce new alleles that can influence the evolutionary process. These mutations, along with other factors like natural selection and genetic drift, contribute to the changes in allele frequency, resulting in evolution over time.
Explanation:The statement that correctly describes the role of chance in evolution is that 'The ultimate source of new alleles is mutation, random changes in the nucleotide sequences of an organism's DNA'. New alleles, which are variant forms of a gene, are generated by mutations or changes in DNA sequences, which occur randomly in an organism's genetic material. Any effect these mutations may have on a species' evolution process are equally random as they can either be harmful or beneficial, chosen for or against, or be selectively neutral. This randomness, along with factors like natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, mutation and nonrandom mating constitute the various evolutionary forces that drive the changes in allele frequency, thus resulting in evolution over time.
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Which of the following best describes a pollutant?
A. a harmful substance that is released to the environment
B. a natural substance that is used by humans or other organisms
C. a substance that is used faster than it can be replaced
D. a substance that is naturally recycled by nature
The best description of pollutants is a harmful substance that is released into the environment. The correct option is A.
What are pollutants?Pollutants are chemical substances, that can be liquid, solid, or gas. Pollutants are that substance that is not absorbed by the nature, and it affects the quality of nature and the health of organisms.
So, pollutants are harmful substances, that are mainly released by human activities.
Thus, the correct option is A. a harmful substance that is released into the environment.
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Match each phrase to the form of energy it represents. chemical potential energy electric energy vibrational energy motion energy electric potential energy radiant energy
Answer:
fuel in a car's gas tank- Chemical Potential Energy
flash of lightning- Radiant Energy
Storm clouds- Electric Energy
vocalist singing- Vibrational Energy
recording sound with a microphone- Electric Potential Energy
raindrops falling- Motion Energy
Answer:
i got it wrong but you swith the 2 wrong.
Explanation:
HERE IT IS !!!! :)
Which of the following best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
A) It is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor.
B) It sets the reading frame of the mRNA.
C) It prevents supercoiling of the DNA near the start site.
D) It is the recognition site for ribosomal binding.
E) Its significance has not yet been determined.
Final answer:
The TATA box in eukaryotic promoters is essential as the recognition site for the transcription factor TFIID, integral to the formation of the transcription initiation complex.
Explanation:
The TATA box is a conserved promoter sequence found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, playing a crucial role in the initiation of transcription.
In eukaryotic promoters, the TATA box signifies where transcription factors assemble.
Specifically, it serves as the binding site for the transcription factor TFIID, which is a multi-subunit complex containing the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and various TBP-associated factors (TAFs).
The binding of TFIID to the TATA box is critical as it initiates the recruitment of other essential transcription factors and RNA polymerase II to form the transcription initiation complex. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 'A) It is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor.'
What is the importance of the goblet cells in the large intestine
Goblet cells in the large intestine are important as they produce mucus which aids in the movement of feces, protects the intestine from harmful substances, and helps maintain a healthy environment within the intestine.
Explanation:The goblet cells in the large intestine serve several critical functions. Primarily, they produce and secrete mucus, which plays a vital role in the digestive process. This mucus serves to lubricate the intestinal walls, easing the movement of feces. This mucus layer also protects the intestine from the potentially harmful effects of the acids and gases that are produced by the bacteria present in the gut (enteric bacteria).
While the interior lining of the large intestine, or colon, largely consists of other cells known as enterocytes which absorb water, salts, and certain vitamins, the goblet cells complement these by contributing to the healthy functioning of the intestine with their mucous secretion. The importance of goblet cells thus lies in their contribution to the digestive process, and in helping to maintain a healthy intestinal environment.
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Intraspecific competition drives natural selection because A. individuals that can survive despite limited resources and competition will reproduce at a higher rate. B. other species in the same environment may have advantageous adaptations to the environment. C. individuals that work with other individuals of their species will have a higher chance of finding food. D. similar species in different environments often develop similar structures to carry out similar functions.
Answer:
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Intraspecific competition refers to the type of competition in which living organisms belonging to the same specie compete for common limited resources. When the required resources that are needed to survive become scarce, then it is only the fittest organisms that will survive, these set of organisms usually found a way of adapting to the changes that occur in their environments and they usually go on to reproduce young ones that replace them. This process leads to evolution in which living organisms that possess the right traits are able to survive and reproduce in a particular habitat.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
What type of biomolecule would you want to have if you were swimming across the English Channel
The strongest bio molecule
_______ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli
Answer:
CO2
Explanation:
Diffusion is a simple process of molecular movement, from their higher concentration to the area with their lower concentration. The process of CO2 movement from the pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli is part of the gas exchange (together with oxygen movenent in opposite direction) and it is actually simple diffusion. Alveoli have huge surface area, thin cell walls and a lot of blood vessels around them. All of these are adaptations that facilitate gas exchange. There is a gradient in partial pressure of the CO2: it is much higher in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoili so it moves down its gradient-from the blood to the alveoli (exhale).
In the winter of 1980, a chemical, toxic and fatal to prey but not to the predator, is introduced into the environment; the subsequent effect to the predator will be
Answer:
An interaction that benefits one species but has little or no effect on the other ... **Predators also use chemical warfare to attack ex. venom ... toxic or stinging prey species which are brightly colored advertising that help .... Factors that can kill members of a population while not dependent on the density of population
The population of prey will get decreased due to the use of toxic chemicals that are fatal to them.
The decreased population of prey will negatively impact predators.
Predators population will also get decreased due to lack of prey population and the relationship between predator-prey will get interrupted.
What is predator- prey relationship?It refers to the interaction between two species where one species fed on another species.
The predator is an organism that eats another organism.
The prey is an organism that is being hunted.
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Imagine that part of a population of flies is blown from the California coast to an offshore island. The island flies have no contact with the mainland flies for 10,000 years. Then an earthquake rearranges the landscape and the island is rejoined to the mainland. The former island flies can now mingle freely with the mainland flies. If attempts at mating between flies from the two groups are successful and the resulting offspring grow up strong and healthy and have offspring of their own, you could conclude that _____.
Answer:
Speciation didn't occur over the past 10,000 years
Explanation:
We conclude this, since the two populations could mate (if speciation occurred, there would be no reprodution).
For example, in allopatric speciation which occurs as a result of geographic isolation, the part of population becomes physically separated from the initial main population. There is no gene flow between these two populations and as a result the two populations reach a high level of genetic divergence. They can no longer interbreed (reproduction between them) which means they become two different species (speciation).
New populations evolve as result of mutation, genetic drift and natural selection.
Cesium is a radioactive element which was released into the ocean after the Fuushima nuclear power plant meltdown in 2011. Cesium's half-life is 30 years, which means that for every unit of cesium, half of it will decay over 30 years. How does this affect the human populations that eat fish from this area?
A.) Cesium's half-life is relatively long, so biomagnification could become a concern.
B.) All of the cesium will decay in approximately thirty years; therefore, humans can just avoid eating the contaminated fish for thirty years.
C.) Cesium levels will be acceptable in a short time, so biomagnification is not a concern and humans can eat fish as normal.
D.) Cesium will only decay by half in fifteen years, so human populations should avoid eating fish in this area and avoid contamination
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A cesium's half life is relatively long( 30 years) which is quite a long period. This element can enter the food chain of the marine ecosystem and can lead to biomagnification.
Bio magnification can be defined as the phenomenon in which there is an increases in the toxic concentration as we move up in the food chain.
Cesium can enter into plankton and form there the concentration of cesium will increase as we will move towards the upper side of the food chain.
Ancient (and some "modern") inks were made from insect galls. what is the common name of the insect group whose galls are most frequently used to make quality inks
Answer:
Explanation:
The family Cecidomyiidae in the order Diptera (flies) have many species that intergrade between gall making and leaf mining. The tulip spot gall, Thecodipolosis liriodendri, is only a slight thickening of the leaf while the tar-spot gall, produced by a species in the genus Asteriomyia has even less thickening and is little more than a leaf mine. The boxwood leaf miner, Monarthropalpus buxi, makes a leaf mine but the surrounding tissues proliferate.
What does a monofill store? (Select the best answer.)
Question 1 options:
One specific type of waste
Objects that can be downcycled
Expensive items
New technology
Answer:
New technology
Explanation:
I do not think it would be the other ones
A monofill is designed to store a single type of waste, typically industrial. It does not store downcycled items, expensive items, or technology.
Explanation:A monofill is a type of landfill that is specialized in storing a single type of waste. It does not store downcycled objects, expensive items, or new technology, these are common misconceptions due to the nature of the terminology. Monofill facilities are commonly used for industrial waste disposal where a specific type of waste such as coal ash, dredged material, or construction debris needs containment.
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All instructions for proteins, like hemoglobin, are stored in our _______, which is located in a cell’s ______________. This DNA must first be turned into __________, through a process called __________________. This process takes place in the _______________. The _______ then takes the message to the _____________, specifically to a ribosome. This is where the process of ________________ takes place. A tRNA matches its _______ to a _______ on the mRNA. The tRNA then drops off its __________. Many of these monomers make up the final _______________ of hemoglobin.
Answer:
1. DNA
2. Nucleus
3. mRNA
4. Transcription
5. Nucleus
6. mRNA
7. Cytoplasm
8. Ribosome
9. Translation
10. anti-codons
11. codon
12. amino acids
13. protein
Explanation:
Deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA hold all the instructions that make up an organism. It determines the physical structure and even the function of the different cells that make up all organisms.
The DNA are all stored in the NUCLEUS of cells. Typically, eukaryotic cells have a nucleus except red blood cells. The nucleus has a nuclear envelope that keeps the DNA stored inside but it has nuclear pores that allows it to interact with the cytoplasm.
In order for DNA to be replicated, it needs to be turned into messenger RNA, otherwise known as mRNA. The mRNA decodes the DNA in order for the cell to use the code. The process is called transcription.
Transcription is done within the nucleus. Before the cell can understand what to do with DNA, mRNA transcribes to know what information it needs to produce specidic proteins.
Once transcription is done, it will then bring the information out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm. The cytoplasm is the viscous gel-like solution that holds the organelles of the cell. In the cytoplasm you have ribsomes.
Ribosomes is where protein synthesis takes place, this is why it is called the protein factory of the cell. It is a molecule that is made up of ribosomal RNA, which direct the chemical processes involved in protein synthesis. For protein synthesis to happen, it will need another type of RNA, which is the tRNA.
tRNA is transfer RNA and they translate the mRNA sequence into proteins. tRNA have amino acids attached to it.
Each 3 bases of the mRNA are collectively known as codons. These codons correspond with specific tRNA that hold the anticodons. These anticodons code for specific amino acids that they also hold.
When they pair up, the tRNA drop off the amino acid which form a chain with the other tRNA amino acids that complete the code. These chain of monomers then make the protein specific to the DNA code that was copied in the beginning.
Which of the following are TRUE statements about what COULD happen to a star at the end of their life? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY!
Question 9 options:
Stars never die. They keep glowing forever.
When stars die they fall to Earth. They are called shooting stars or meteors.
Dying stars can explode.
Dying stars get dimmer and dimmer and finally stop glowing.
A dying star can become a black hole.
A.Stars can expand and get bigger right before they die.
Dying stars can explode.
A dying star can become a black hole.
A dying star can expand and get bigger right before they die.
Answer:
Option (3), (4), (5) and (6) are the correct statements
Explanation:
A star that cannot undergo nuclear reaction is considered to be a dying star.
The characteristics of a dying star are as follow-
(a) A dying star undergoes an explosion during its last stage.
(b) A dying star becomes dimmer and stops glowing at the end because it cannot undergo nuclear reaction and its temperature eventually decreases, as a result of which its luminosity decreases.
(c) A star that has a very large solar mass (about ten times the mass of the sun) can turn into a black hole as it gets collapse or gets exploded.
(d) During the time of dying of a star, the star gets expanded and the size increases and the explosion takes place it gets collapsed.
Thus, the correct statements are options (3), (4), (5) and (6).
In horses, a black coat is dominant to a brown coat (B = black, b = brown). Long legs are dominant to short legs (L = long, l = short). A black short-legged horse is crossed with a brown long-legged horse. The offspring of the cross is a brown short-legged horse.
a) Identify the genotypes of all three horses.
Answer:
Bb ll for the black short-legged horse
bb Ll for the brown long-legged horse
bb ll for the offspring
Explanation:
In order for the offspring to have the two recessive traits, the parents must have been carrying the recessive genes on at least 1 allele. The first horse is black, but it must have a little b for the offspring to gain a little b from it. The second horse and the offspring are brown, so they must both have two little b's. The same goes for the length of the legs. The first horse and offspring must have two little l's because they have short legs and the second horse must have 1 little l in order for the offspring to inherit 1.
The genotypes of the horses are as follows: the black short-legged horse is Bbll, the brown long-legged horse is bbLl, and the brown short-legged offspring is bbll. These genotypes reflect the recessive nature of the brown coat and short legs phenotype in the offspring.
The genotypes of the three horses involved in the cross can be determined based on the given phenotypes and the known patterns of inheritance for coat color and leg length in horses. A black coat is dominant (B) over a brown coat (b), and long legs are dominant (L) over short legs (l). Here's how the genotypes can be identified:
The offspring is brown with short legs, indicating a recessive phenotype for both traits. Therefore, its genotype must be bbll.The offspring can only get one set of alleles from each parent. Since it is bb for coat color, each parent must have contributed one b allele.The black short-legged parent must be Bbll, having one dominant allele for coat color and two recessive alleles for leg length.The brown long-legged parent must be bbLl, having two recessive alleles for coat color and being heterozygous for leg length.Summary of Genotypes:
Black short-legged horse: BbllBrown long-legged horse: bbLlOffspring (brown short-legged horse): bbllProtist arent monophyletic meaning that they don’t a)have one chromosome b)share one common ancestor that isn’t also shared by organisms in other groups c) Live their lifespan in one place but instead can move d) have one mode of reproduction
B. They don’t share ancestors with other organism in the same grouping. Protists belong in a paraphyletic group
Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
Protists are not monophyletic, meaning that they did not represent a single, whole branch of the common life form.
A paraphyletic group is the group of some descendants of a common ancestor. Protists are considered a paraphyletic group.
Example of the monophyletic group is mammals as each and every mammal share a common single ancestor that is not shared by another group of organism.
Thus, the correct answer is option B.
Devon is being treated for anxiety. he is connected to an instrument that records muscle tension. his job is to try to reduce muscle tension. this is an example of: biofeedback training. emg training. relaxation training. self-instruction training.
I think it’s Self-Instruction training
Atoms with certain characteristics are radioactive. which of those below will always be radioactive?
Answer:
All atoms with an atomic number over 83
Explanation:
The electromagnetic repulsion of the protons in the nucleus is overcome by strong nuclear forces that keep the nuclear particles together. However, as the atomic number gets bigger so does the size of the nucleus. Therefore, the repulsive electromagnetic forces become greater than the nuclear forces hence the atom becomes unstable. Instability of the nucleus means the atoms become naturally radioactive.
Answer:
B.
all atoms with an atomic number under 40
Explanation:
just did it