Answer:
1. when there is a cut, the surface area of the skin becomes rough which activates the Thrombin, that catalyzes the activation of fibrinogen present in plasma.
2. albumin contributes mostly of making plasma protein
3. albumin contributes the major portion to the osmotic pressure of plasma.
4. fibrinogen mainly forms the structural framework of a blood clot during blood coagulation.
1) Fibrinogen is the correct answer. 2) Albumin is the correct answer. 3) Albumin is the correct answer. 4) Fibrin is the correct answer.
1) Fibrinogen: Thrombin catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which is a key step in the formation of blood clots.
2) Albumin: Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein, comprising approximately 60% of the total protein in plasma. It plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure and transporting various substances, such as hormones, fatty acids, and drugs.
3) Albumin (specifically) and other plasma proteins collectively contribute to plasma osmotic pressure, which helps regulate the distribution of fluids between the bloodstream and tissues.
4) Fibrin: Fibrin forms the structural framework of a blood clot. When thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin, the fibrin molecules polymerize and create a mesh-like network that traps blood cells and platelets, forming a stable clot.
Therefore,
1) Fibrinogen: Thrombin catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
2) Albumin: Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein.
3) Albumin (specifically) and other plasma proteins collectively contribute to plasma osmotic pressure.
4) Fibrin: Fibrin forms the structural framework of a blood clot.
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Shontae was diagnosed with PTSD following her return from a tour in Afghanistan. Due to her repeated nightmares and flashbacks and bouts of depression, her psychiatrist would likely prescribe:
The psychiatrist would likely prescribe SSRIs or SNRIs, forms of antidepressants, which can help reduce symptoms of PTSD such as depression, nightmares, and flashbacks.
Explanation:Treatment for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), such as Shontae is experiencing, often includes psychotherapy as well as medication. Psychiatrists most commonly prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (
SSRIs) like fluoxetine (Prozac) or sertraline (Zoloft) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) like venlafaxine (Effexor). SSRIs and SNRIs are both types of antidepressants that can help reduce symptoms of PTSD including depression, flashbacks, and nightmares. Each individual’s response to medication varies and the most effective treatment plan is often a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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The data obtained from the meselson–stahl experiment after one generation of replication eliminated the dispersive model of dna replication. True or False
Answer:
FalseExplanation:
Meselson-stahl experiment: The experiment done by Meselson and Stahl demonstrated that DNA replicated semi-conservatively, meaning that each strand in a DNA molecule serves as a template while DNA replication for synthesis of a new, complementary strand.
The conservative model was eliminated because according to it, there would be 2 bands, one representing the parental DNA at one density and other representing the daughter DNA at a different density. The result from the Meselson–Stahl experiment after one generation was consistent with both the semi-conservative as well the dispersive model.
The data from the Meselson-Stahl experiment after one generation of replication supports the semi-conservative model rather than the dispersive model of DNA replication. The dispersive model was eliminated because it predicted a broad band of mixed light and heavy DNA, but the experiment showed a single band of hybrid DNA. The statement is true.
Explanation:The statement that the data obtained from the Meselson–Stahl experiment after one generation of replication eliminated the dispersive model of DNA replication is True.
The Meselson–Stahl experiment was designed to determine the method by which DNA replicates. It did so by incorporating Nitrogen-15, a heavy isotope of nitrogen, into DNA and then monitoring the distribution of this heavy DNA during subsequent replication cycles. After one generation of replication, the results showed a single band of hybrid DNA, refuting the dispersive model which predicted a mix of light and heavy DNA distributed throughout a broad band. This provided strong evidence for the semi-conservative model of DNA replication, in which each of the two strands of the DNA molecule serves as a template for the synthesis of a new, complementary strand.
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A water treatment plant needs to maintain the ph of the water in the reservoir at a certain level. To monitor this
Explanation:
pH is a proportion of the measure of Hydrogen particles (H+) even in unadulterated water particles will in general structure because of irregular procedures (creating some H+ and OH-particles). The measure of H+ that is made in unadulterated water is about equivalent to a pH of 7. That is the reason 7 is neutral.A repository can likewise be shaped from a characteristic lake whose outlet has been dammed to control the water level.The dam controls the measure of water that streams out of the repository. Expanded fluctuation and power of precipitation because of environmental change is relied upon to create both progressively extreme dry spells and flooding, with possibly genuine ramifications for water supply and pollution from combined sewer overflows.Edema occurs when____________
A) areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area
B) reticular connective tissue invades the area
C) collagen fibers enlarge as they change from dehydrated to hydrated shape
D) adipose cells enlarge by pinocytosis
Answer:
A) areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area
Explanation:
Areolar tissue is found around blood vessels, muscles, nerve bundles. Edema which is also a part of inflammation occurs when blood capillaries of blood vessels leak the fluid and is soaked by areolar tissue. So excess fluid in these tissue cause swelling of that part.
Edema is one type of defense reaction to the cell injury. With fluid white blood cells and defense proteins move in the area and counter the infectious agent of injury and helps in eliminating the injurious factor. So the correct answer is A.
What is not a contribution of the cardiovascular system to other body systems?
OPTIONS:
a) Blood delivers calcium and phosphate ions that are needed for building bone extracellular matrix.
b) Blood carries carbon dioxide to body tissues and removes oxygen for use by other organs.
c) Blood carries newly absorbed nutrients and water to the liver.
d) Blood circulates cells and chemicals that carry out immune functions.
e) Blood delivers clotting factors and WBCs that aid in hemostasis when skin is damaged
Answer:
b) Blood carries carbon dioxide to body tissues and removes oxygen for use by other organs.
Explanation:
Options a, c, d, e are all true statements about the contributions of the cardiovascular system to other body systems except option b which states that “Blood carries carbon dioxide to body tissues and removes oxygen for use by other organs”.
Actually, the cardiovascular system works together with the respiratory system to supply oxygen to body tissues as blood is circulated in the body, while carbon dioxide is removed from the body at the lungs. In order words, carbon dioxide is removed, while oxygen is picked up as blood is transported through the capillaries of the lungs.
What is the function of photosystem ii?
Answer/Explanation:
Photosystem II is the first complex involved in the light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis.It is named photosystem II because it was the first photosystem to be discovered. Photosystem II is a huge complex of proteins (sometimes called a supercomplex) found in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts. Photosystem II captures energy from photons of light (from the sun) to oxidise two molecules of water to form molecular oxygen. This releases electrons and hydrogen ions.When light is absorbed by one of the many pigments (chlorophyll), energy is passed from pigment to pigment until it reaches the reaction center. There, energy is transferred to a special pair of core chlorophyll pigment molecules, called P680, raising an electron to a high energy state. The high energy electron is passed to an acceptor molecule and replaced with an electron from water. This splitting of water forms oxygenElectrons travel down an electron transport chain, driving ATP production and arriving at photosystem I, which is where more energy and ATP are produced to fuel the rest of the photosynthesis reactionsPhotosystem II captures light energy and converts it into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH.
Explanation:The function of Photosystem II is to capture light energy and convert it into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH, which are used in the process of photosynthesis. It is the first step in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, taking place in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts.
The photosystem II complex consists of several protein and pigment molecules, including chlorophyll, that work together to absorb light and transfer the energy to the reaction center.
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Reset Hemopoiesis occurs in ____________ of certain bones. The process of hemopoiesis starts with hemopoietic stem cells called ____________ . They produce two different lines for blood cell development: The ____________ forms (1) erythrocytes, (2) all leukocytes except lymphocytes, and (3) megakaryocytes. The ____________ forms only lymphocytes. The maturation and division of hemopoietic stem cells is influenced by ____________ . These molecules are all growth factors.
Hemopoiesis occurs in the red marrow of bones, starting with hemocytoblasts. These produce the myeloid line (forming erythrocytes, all leukocytes except lymphocytes, and megakaryocytes) and the lymphoid line (forming only lymphocytes). The process is guided by colony-stimulating factors.
Explanation:Hemopoiesis, also known as hematopoiesis, occurs in the red marrow of certain bones. This process begins with hemopoietic stem cells known as hemocytoblasts. These produce two different lines for blood cell development. The myeloid line forms multiple cells including (1) erythrocytes, (2) all leukocytes except lymphocytes, and (3) megakaryocytes. The lymphoid line produces only lymphocytes. The growth, maturation, and division of hemopoietic stem cells are influenced by colony-stimulating factors, which are essentially growth factors for cells. Therefore, hemopoiesis is a critical process for the constant regeneration and maintenance of our blood cells.
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Hemopoiesis occurs in the red bone marrow of certain bones. The process involves hematopoietic stem cells that produce different lines for blood cell development. Growth factors influence the division and maturation of hematopoietic stem cells.
Explanation:Hemopoiesis occurs in the red bone marrow of certain bones. The process starts with hematopoietic stem cells. These cells produce two different lines for blood cell development: the myeloid line forms erythrocytes, all leukocytes except lymphocytes, and megakaryocytes; while the lymphoid line forms only lymphocytes. The maturation and division of hematopoietic stem cells are influenced by hemopoietic growth factors, which are molecules called growth factors.
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Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as a(n) a. competitive inhibitor of the enzyme. b. noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. c. coenzyme derived from a vitamin. d. cofactor that is an activator of the enzyme.
Answer: Option D) cofactor that is an activator of the enzyme.
Explanation:
A cofactor is a non-organic component (usually a metal) of an enzyme or protein, that enhances its function. Good examples of Cofactors include iron in hemoglobin, zinc in carboxypeptidase.
Zinc at the active site of the enzyme, carboxypeptidase helps it in cleaving off aromatic amino acids.
Voice can reveal things about the speaker and the message. ________ is a listener's perception of how high or low a sound is, ________ is the basic tone that an individual uses most of the time, and ________ is the pitch movement within an utterance.
Pitch; habitual pitch; intonation.
Explanation:
A sound is the form of energy which produces the sensation of hearing in organisms.
A sound is judged on three properties:
Amplitude, that defines loudnessFrequency, that defines the pitch Quality or timbre.Pitch is the rate of vibration of the sound source. As the frequency of sound increases ,the pitch also increases and as the frequency decreases pitch also falls.
Normal pitch of voice that is generally used by a person while usual speaking is called his habitual pitch.
The change in pitch while speaking is called intonation, it gives an impressive tonal quality to the speech.
'Pitch' refers to the highness or lowness of a sound, 'vocal signature' is an individual's usual tone of voice, and 'intonation' is the variation in pitch throughout an utterance.
Voice can reveal things about the speaker and the message. Pitch is a listener's perception of how high or low a sound is, vocal signature is the basic tone that an individual uses most of the time, and intonation is the pitch movement within an utterance. These elements of vocalics play a crucial role in communication, adding nuance and expression beyond the mere words spoken.
Pitch refers to the frequency range of your voice, affecting how your voice is perceived in terms of highness or lowness. A vocal signature is your unique tone of voice, which can be recognized and often associates with your identity. Lastly, intonation involves the variation in pitch during speech, which can convey different meanings or emotions.
When constructing a Punnett square, the symbols on the outside of the boxes represent _______, while those inside the boxes represent _______. When constructing a Punnett square, the symbols on the outside of the boxes represent _______, while those inside the boxes represent _______. gametes, progeny parents, gametes gametes, parents progeny, gametes
Answer:
Gametes, progeny.Explanation:
Punnett square is used to analyse the genotypes of a particular cross. The symbols in Punnett square on the outside of the boxes represent gametes.
The symbols in Punnett square those inside the boxes represent progeny.
Punnett square named due to Reginald C. Punnett, who invented this square.
This square diagram is mainly used to determine the probability of an offspring having a particular genotype or traits.
In a Punnett square, symbols on the outside represent parental gametes, while those inside represent the potential genetic combinations in the offspring. This system helps predict the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.
Explanation:When constructing a Punnett square, the symbols on the outside of the boxes represent the gametes from each parent, while those inside the boxes represent the possible genetic combinations in the progeny or offspring. A Punnett square is a simple and visual way to predict the types of genetic traits an offspring might inherit from its parents. Given each parent's genotypes, the top and side of the square are marked with possible gametes, derived from the law of segregation. The boxes inside the grid are then filled with possible genotypes of progeny, and hence, it predicts the genotypes and phenotypes of resulting offspring in a cross.
A practical example could be: Suppose we have a parent with genotype Rr (R being the dominant allele for red, r being the recessive allele for white). This parent could produce gametes carrying either R or r. If this parent crosses with another same genotype parent (Rr), a Punnett square would be constructed, producing the progeny genotype RR, Rr, rR, or rr.
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the flaking off of the outside of a rock is called
Answer:
exfoliation
Explanation:
this process of exfoliation takes place due to thermal stresses developed in the rock causing cracks in the materials and then making the outside layer of the rock appear to be peeled off.
Answer:
exfoliation.
Explanation:
Why are regions called promoters essential to rna transcription
Answer:
Because the promoter region is initiation sites for transcription to occur.
Explanation:
Transcription is the first process of gene expression in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. Transcription involves the synthesis of a complementary RNA strand from a DNA template. It is carried out by an enzyme called RNA polymerase which binds to the DNA molecule and adds nucleotides based on the sequence it reads on the DNA.
On the DNA molecule, are sequences of nucleotides which the RNA polymerase recognizes and binds to in order for the transcriptional process to start. These sequences are called PROMOTER regions. They are located upstream i.e. after initiation site, of the DNA. Without these promoter region, RNA polymerase cannot bind to the DNA molecule and hence transcription cannot occur.
In cell i10, create a formula that uses the if function to determine if a packaged clothing set is overweight by checking if the shipping weight (cell i9) is greater than 40. if this condition is true, the cell should display yes, and if it is false, the cell should display no. (hint: use "yes" for the value if true, and "no" for the value if false.)
Answer:
=IF(i9 ≥ 40, "YES" , "NO" )
Explanation:
Here, IF is the condition
we know that,
IF ( logical_test , [value_if_true] , [value_if_false] )
Here we are using greater than formula :
=IF(i9 ≥ 40, "YES" , "NO" )
It means that,
If the package is more than or equal to 40 then it will show "yes", or otherwise "no"
Here we are using yes instead of true and no instead of false
If you consistently build your diet by choosing mostly nutrient-dense foods, you may be able to meet your nutrient needs without using your full calorie allowance. In this case, the balance of calories is called your ____.
Explanation:
Discretionary calories are overabundance calories to appreciate once your necessary supplement needs are met. They can be utilized toward higher-fat types of nourishments like milk, cheddar and meat, and high-fat and sugary fixings, for example, margarine, sauce, sugar, and syrup. Discretionary calories can likewise tally toward pop, treats, and liquorOn the off chance that none of these nourishments sound alluring, they can even be utilized for extra servings of your preferred solid food sourcesWhichregion of the ear contains the opening of a canal that equalizes pressure in the middle ear
Answer:
ear drum
Explanation:
Match the following words with the appropriate definition. achromatic logophile autophagy multiparous anthropometry A. The measurement of the human body. B. Giving birth to more than one offspring at a time. C. One who loves words. D. The drawing of nourishment by the body from its own tissue. E. Lacking color.
The terms achromatic, logophile, autophagy, multiparous, and anthropometry match definitions E, C, D, B, and A, respectively. Humans are both heterotrophs and omnivores.
Explanation:The terms achromatic, logophile, autophagy, multiparous, and anthropometry can be matched with their definitions as follows:
Achromatic refers to something that is lacking color (E).Logophile is someone who is a lover of words (C).Autophagy is the process by which the body consumes its own tissue, described as the drawing of nourishment by the body from its own tissue (D).Multiparous describes an individual that is capable of giving birth to more than one offspring at a time (B).Anthropometry is the measurement of the human body (A).Regarding the terms related to dietary habits and trophic levels:
Humans are classified as heterotrophs because they acquire nutrients by consuming organic substances from other organisms.They are also considered omnivores because their diet includes both plant and animal materials.NADH is also used by cells when making certain molecules. Based on your knowledge of the role of NADH in cellular respiration, what do you think NADH's role is in biosynthesis of molecules?1. Oxidising molecules2. Phosphorylating molecules3. Dehydrating molecules4. Reducing molecules
Answer:
2. Phosphorylating molecules
Explanation:
NADH and NADPH are coenzymes resulting from the reduction of NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ (through electron transfer).
Although NADH and NADPH are almost identical in structure, they have different functions.
NADH uses free energy from oxidation of metabolites to synthesize ATP (oxidative phosphorylation), while NADPH uses energy for reducing biosynthesis of fatty acids, cholesterol and other substances.
Answer:
4. Reducing molecules
Explanation:
NADH is a cofactor and is short for nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. That is critical in cellular respiration since it accepts and donates electrons to facilitate redox reactions. During many of these cell cycles the biosynthesis of molecules often involve NADH which is oxidised to NAD+. NADH is an electron donor as well. In these cases it acts as a reducing agent to other molecules.
What are the small spaces/holes in compact bone tissue in which osteocytes live?
Answer:
In mature bone, osteocytes and their processes stay inside spaces called lacunae (Latin for a pit) and canaliculi, respectively.
Plants need oxygen because a the earth’s atmosphere contains too much oxygen and too little carbon dioxide. b oxygen is consumed during photosynthesis to make carbon-containing organic molecules. c they carry out cellular respiration just like all other aerobic organisms. d none of the above
Answer:
c they carry out cellular respiration just like all other aerobic organisms.
Explanation:
Oxygen, for plants, is essential because it makes the process of respiration more efficient (known as aerobic respiration).
Describe how the structure of a virus aids in its ability to infect cells.
Virulence factors of virus aids in its ability to infect cells.
Explanation:
Virulence factors help pathogenic microbes to infect host cells by virulence mechanisms – invade host, cause and spread disease, evade the defense or immune mechanism of the host. These factors makes the virus to grow, replicate, and modify the host cells due to its toxicity.
Viruses binds to the receptor protein of the host cell.
Different types of virulent factors are: invasion factors, adhesive or adherent factors, capsules, endo and exotoxins, etc.
The virulence factors decides the severity and rate of spread of an infection
Answer: Capsid proteins interlock with a receptor site on the host cell.
The capsid protein and host cell receptor interlock like a puzzle piece.
Viruses vary in shape to attack the various types of receptors on cells.
The shapes of viruses include polyhedral, helical, enveloped, and complex.
Once the virus attaches to the host cell, it invades the cell and hijacks the DNA of the cell
Explanation:
The structure and function of _______ directly determine the structure and function of organs and organ systems.
Answer:
organism
Explanation:
organism are the highest point of cell organization followed by organs and organ systems
Mary is an adolescent who currently has a small pimple on her cheek that is causing her to be overly self-conscious. She is convinced that everyone she meets stares at and talks about her pimple. Mary's behavior exhibits __________. a sense of idealism imaginary audience personal fable puberty
Answer:
imaginary audience
Explanation:
Imaginary audience is a state in which an individual, most especially growing adolescent, are preoccupied with excessive and exaggerated belief and thought that they are the main focus of other people’s attention, and as such become worried unnecessarily and overtly self-conscious. The individual often feels they are the center focus of discussion of other people.
Answer:
Mary's behavior exhibits puberty
Explanation:
Puberty is the maturation of a child into an adult capable of reproduction, characterized by changes in physical appearances initiated by the hormones of the gonads. Among other signs, increased self consciousness is a characteristic of puberty especially in females, because, the changes in the body occurs at a rapid rate that the mind is not fully prepared for most times, making her overly conscious of herself. Other signs include, breast development, elongation of bones, development of external genitalia, etc.
One similarity between cell receptors and antibodies is that both
Answer: they are specific in action
Explanation: The similarity between cell receptors and antibodies is that both are specific in action. They bind to their specific targets.
These targets can be determined by the shape of the receptor or the antibody. shape of a protein has a profound effect on its functions
Fiber has been recommended in the diet for its possible benefits in reducing heart disease by lowering blood cholesterol. How is fiber thought to play its role in lowering blood cholesterol?
Answer: fiber play an important role in lowering blood cholesterol by binding to cholesterol particles in the small intestines. Thus, preventing cholesterol to pass into the bloodstream. The indigestible fiber together with cholesterol pass out through the feces.
Explanation:
Fiber is a plant derived food that cannot be completely broken down by digestive enzymes in human body. Fiber aids proper bowel functions, improves heart health and function. They are of two types:
Soluble fiber
Insoluble fiber.
The soluble fiber is know to lower blood cholesterol. It can dissolve in water and create a gel-like uniformity in the digestive track. Researches have shown that taking ten to twenty-five grams soluble fiber per day can lower cholesterol by 18%. The soluble fiber bind cholesterol and prevent it from moving into the blood and circulating to other parts of the body and then, ejected out in feces.
The fish Astyanax mexicanus has populations in surface lakes and in caves. Cave populations lose their eyes through degeneration and are unpigmented, while surface populations have normal eyes and pigment. The two groups can form hybrids when mated in the laboratory, but rarely interact in the wild. This is an example of a species currently undergoing hybridization.
A: hybridization.
B: immigration.
C: allopatric speciation.
D: sympatric speciation.
Answer:
C: allopatric speciation.
Explanation:
Allopatric speciation occurs because a given group has been separated from a parent group, usually because of geographic separation as time goes by. Gene flow is interupted when a population is divideed into geographically isolated subpopulations. It is also referred as geographic speciation.
Extrisic factors-as great distance or a physicl barier prevents two or moe groups from mating.
Various geographical changes can arise such as montains, islands, bodies of water or glaciers.
AS in the above scenario, This is an example of allopatric speciation.
__________ is the preference for using either the right or left hand in gross or fine motor activities.
Answer:
hand dominance
Explanation:
This includes activities like writing, cutting, and catching and throwing a ball. Parents should be cautioned about trying to switch their child from one dominant hand to another.
Who was the general in charge of the vimy ridge campaign in 1917?
Answer:
British First Army commander General Henry Horne approved the plan on 5 March 1917. The plan divided the Canadian Corps advance into four coloured objective lines.
By 1917, Canadians had been fighting for two years. The raw levies that held the Germans off at Ypres in April 1915 now were experienced soldiers. But the key to the success at Vimy came when Byng sent General Arthur Currie of the First Canadian Division to study the methods of the French.
The Battle of Vimy Ridge, 9-12 April 1917. Many historians and writers consider the Canadian victory at Vimy a defining moment for Canada, when the country emerged from under the shadow of Britain and felt capable of greatness. ... But it was a victory at a terrible cost, with more than 10,000 killed and wounded.
Explanation:
If a meal supplies 110 g of carbohydrates, 25 g of protein, 20 g of fat, and the equivalent of 5 g of alcohol, what % of the kcalories comes from carbohydrate
Carbohydrates account for about 58.28% of the total calories in a meal.
You can use the following steps to determine what portion of a calorie is made up of carbohydrates:
Carbohydrates provide 4 calories per gram.Proteins also provide 4 calories per gram.Fats provide 9 calories per gram.Alcohol provides 7 calories per gram.Given the nutrient values:
Carbohydrates: 110 gProtein: 25 gFat: 20 gAlcohol equivalent: 5 gCalculate the calories from each nutrient:
Carbohydrates: 110 g * 4 calories/g = 440 calories
Protein: 25 g * 4 calories/g = 100 calories
Fat: 20 g * 9 calories/g = 180 calories
Alcohol: 5 g * 7 calories/g = 35 calories
Total calories: 440 + 100 + 180 + 35 = 755 calories
We will calculate the percentage of calories from carbohydrates:
Percentage from carbohydrates = (Calories from carbohydrates / Total calories) * 100
Percentage from carbohydrates = (440 / 755) * 100 ≈ 58.28%
Therefore, Carbohydrates account for about 58.28% of the total calories in a meal.
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Approximately 48.44% of the kcalories in the meal come from carbohydrates.
To calculate the percentage of kcalories that come from carbohydrates, you need to know the calorie content of each macronutrient. In this case, we can assume that there are 4 kcal per gram of carbohydrate. So, the total kcal from carbohydrate is 110 g * 4 kcal/g = 440 kcal.
To find the percentage, we divide this by the total kcal of the meal and multiply by 100: (440 kcal / (440 kcal + 25 g * 4 kcal/g + 20 g * 9 kcal/g + 5 g * 7 kcal/g)) * 100% = 48.44%. Therefore, approximately 48.44% of the kcalories in the meal come from carbohydrates.
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Two short tail cats are bred together. They produce three kittens with long tails, five short tails. From these results, how do you think tail length in these cats are inherited?
The complete question is as follows:
Two short-tailed (Manx) cats are bred together. They produce three kittens with long tails, five short tails, and two without any tails. From these result, how do you think tail length I’m these cats are inherited? Show the genotypes for both the parents and the offspring to support your answer.
Answer: Incomplete dominance
Explanation:
The incomplete dominance is a kind of intermediate inheritance in this one allele responsible for the expression of a particular trait is not completely expressed. As a result of this an intermediate phenotype get expressed in the physical trait, which is a combination of the phenotypes of both type of alleles.
Manx cat is indicating towards the incomplete dominance in this the kitten can be born with the full length, short length tails or even without the tails.
If the genotype of the parent is heterozygous (Tt) then kittens are expected to have genotypes like TT ( long tail) Tt ( short tail) tt ( no tail).
Thus the kitten can be short length, long tailed and they can be without tail.
Which statement BEST explains how RNA polymerase knows where to start and stop making an RNA copy of DNA?
A. The enzyme binds to a sequence of nucleotides called introns that are cut out before they become functional.
B. The enzyme proofreads each DNA strand to help ensure each molecule is copied exactly in the order of the original strand.
C. The enzyme splices exons together before transcription begins to form the final mRNA molecule.
D. The enzyme only binds to regions of DNA known as promoters, which have specific base sequences.
"The enzyme only binds to regions of DNA known as promoters, which have specific base sequences" statement BEST explains how RNA polymerase knows where to start and stop making an RNA copy of DNA.
Option: D
Explanation:
Transcription is the mechanism which happens when polymerase of RNA (principal enzyme for transcription) attaches by aid proteins or personally or to a promoter segment near the gene beginning.
For generating a new molecule of RNA which is complementary, RNA polymerase utilizes one of the DNA strands or the parent strand as a template.
For an instance, trying to block mushroom toxicity transcription triggers liver failure and death, as no new RNAs and therefore no fresh proteins can be produced.
Final answer:
RNA polymerase starts transcribing at a region called the promoter and stops at a sequence known as the terminator. It recognizes these specific DNA sequences to transcribe the necessary genetic information into RNA, including coding exons and non-coding introns, which are spliced out to form the final mRNA.
Explanation:
The knowledge of how RNA polymerase begins and concludes the process of transcribing DNA into RNA is essential for understanding genetic expression. The correct answer to the question provided by the student is D: The enzyme only binds to regions of DNA known as promoters, which have specific base sequences.
The process initiates at the transcription start site within the promoter, a specific DNA sequence that RNA polymerase and associated proteins recognize and bind to, signaling the start of RNA synthesis. As transcription continues, the enzyme moves along the DNA, creating an RNA copy that includes exons and introns. However, before the resulting pre-mRNA is functional, non-coding introns are removed, and only the coding exons are spliced together to form the final mRNA molecule, which is then translated into a protein.
Finally, RNA polymerase reaches a terminator sequence, signaling the end of the gene and prompting the enzyme to release the newly formed RNA molecule and detach from the DNA.