The ________ proposed that all impediments to the formation of a single market be eliminated by December 31, 1992, resulting in the Single European Act.

Answer:

$300,000 gain.

Explanation:

We will find the Barnett Corporation basis in the building = Cost - depreciation $900,000 - $600,000 = $300,000

When the office building is liquidated, the worth of the building is atleast the amount of liability that is assumed on the building. The building is subject to a $600,000 mortgage.

The liability assumed is $600,000;

To find out the gain Barnett Corporation must recognize,

= Liability - Barnett Corporation Basis

= $600,000 - $300,000 = $300,000.

Therefore, Barnett's gain is $300,000.

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": ​When bargaining with the customer, do not bargain over the unit price, bargain over the bundled price.

Explanation:

Bargaining is the act by which a buyer and a seller discuss what should be the price the buyer should pay and the seller should accept for a product or service. From the seller side, it is convenient if the bargain is done in bundled goods since the overall discount could be offset by the discount of one or two units included in the bundle. If case the bargain is only negotiated for one unit, the sellers' expected profit will be reduced.

Answer:

$10

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Number of units produced = 20 units

Average fixed cost = $25

Average total cost = $35

Marginal cost = $15

As we know that

Average total cost = Average fixed cost + average variable cost

$35 = $25 + average variable cost

So, the average variable cost is

= $35 - $25

= $10

The average total cost is the sum of average fixed cost and the average variable cost

Final answer:

The average variable cost (AVC) is $0.50.

Explanation:

The average variable cost (AVC) can be calculated by dividing the variable cost by the quantity produced.

In this case, the AFC is $25, the ATC is $35, and the MC is $15.

We can calculate the variable cost by subtracting the fixed cost from the total cost.

Since the AFC is given as $25 and the ATC is given as $35 for a production of 20 units, we can find the variable cost as $35 - $25 = $10.

Then, we can calculate the AVC by dividing the variable cost by the quantity produced, which is $10 / 20 = $0.50.

Answer:

a) True b) True c) False

Explanation:

a) It is true that Americans were unhappy that investors from the Asian economies of Japan and China were making investments because they thought it would hinder the domestic investment

b) China and Japan were two of the fastest growing economies in that era. Investment by them meant greater capital bringing more job opportunities and faster economic growth.

c)   Yes, had the Americans made this investment, they would have received the returns on investment themselves but as foreign investment brings foreign skills and resources in the host country fueling innovation, developing work force, allowing export of American-made goods to other countries. Foreign Investment always brings benefits to host as well as home country and has broader useful impact than if the country relies on domestic investment only

Answer:

9.32%

Explanation:

The formula to compute the required rate of return is shown below:

Market price per share = Next year dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)

where,

Market price per share is $30.16

Next year dividend is

= $1.24 + $1.24 × 5%

= $1.24 + 0.062

= $1.302

And, the growth rate is 5%

So, the required rate of return is

$30.16 = ($1.302) ÷ (Required rate of return - 5%)

Let us assume the required rate of return be X

So,

$30.16X - $1.508 = $1.302

After solving this, the required rate of return is 9.32%

Answer:

1a. The price of the bonds at 12% yield is $43,326,388.60

1b. The journal entries to record the issuance are as follows:

Dr Cash                                          $43,326,388.60

Dr Discount on the bond                  $7,673,611.40

Cr Bonds payable                                                    $51,000,000

2aAt the market rate of 9% bonds issue price is $55,692,404.03

2b.Journal entries when market rate is 9%

Dr Cash                                          $55,692,404.03

Cr Premium on the bond                                         $4,692,404.03  

Cr Bonds payable                                                      $51,000,000.00

3.The journal entries if Broadcourt Electronics purchashed the entire issue as shown in 2 above

Dr  Premium on the bonds                         $4,692,404.03  

Dr    Investment in bonds                         $51,000,000.00

Cr  Cash                                                                                  $55,692,404.03

Explanation:

Find attached.

The bond's issue price depends on the market yield at that time. Journal entries at issuance debit Cash and credit Bonds Payable. When purchased by a company, it debits Investments and credits Cash.

Firstly, we need to compute the price of the bond. The price at issue is the present value of the future cash flows, which are interest payments of ($51 million * 10%)/2 = $2.55M every six months for 40 periods (20 years * 2) and the face value of $51M at the end of the 20 years. Using the semi-annual market yield of 12%/2 = 6% (1-a) or 9%/2 = 4.5% (2-a), the present values of the cash flows can be calculated. Journal entries would consist of debiting 'Cash' and crediting 'Bonds Payable' for the issue price (1-b and 2-b).

For instance Broadcourt Electronics, the entry would debit 'Investments' and credit 'Cash' for the calculated price of the bonds (3).

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Final answer:

The Shadow Banking System and traditional banks both function as financial intermediaries, mediating the flow of funds between savers and borrowers, and acting as a middle man to reduce transaction costs.

Explanation:

The Shadow Banking System is similar to the traditional banking system in that it serves as a financial intermediary. One way it is the same is by intermediating the flow of funds between net savers and net borrowers, which is articulated in option A. Both systems help to facilitate the exchange of funds, reducing transaction costs, and serving as a form of middle man by connecting those with excess funds who wish to save with those who are in need of borrowing funds.

However, unlike traditional banks which perform the complete credit intermediation through a single entity, the shadow banking system involves a series of nonbank financial service firms, as mentioned in option C. Banks as financial intermediaries accept deposits and then use these to make loans, operating between savers and borrowers.

Answer:

1./

INITIAL INVESTMENT

= $1600000

ANNUAL NET CASH FLOW

= NET INCOME + DEPERICATION

= $250000 + [($1600000 - $350000) / 8]

= $250000 + $156250

= $406250

SALVAGE VALUE

= $350000

NPV

= -$1600000 + $406250 * PVIFA 10%, 8 PERIODS + $350000 * PVIF 10% *PERIOD

= -$1600000 + $406250 * 5.3349 + $350000 * 0.4665

= -$1600000 + 2167303.13 + $163275

= $730578.13

2./

AS THE NPV IS GREATER THAN 0 OR POSITIVE THE IRR IS GREATER THAN 10%

3./

INITIAL INVESTMENT

= $1600000

ANNUAL NET CASH FLOW

= NET INCOME + DEPERICATION

= $250000 + [($1600000 - $350000) / 8]

= $250000 + $156250

= $406250

SALVAGE VALUE

= $350000

NPV

= -$1600000 + $406250 * PVIFA 20%, 8 PERIODS + $350000 * PVIF 20% *PERIOD

= -$1600000 + $406250 * 3.8372 + $350000 * 0.2326

= -$1600000 + $1558862.5 + $81410

= $40272.5

4./

AS THE NPV IS GREATER THAN 0 OR POSITIVE THE IRR IS GREATER THAN 20%

Explanation:

The net present value (NPV) of the project is approximately $102,275.15. The internal rate of return (IRR) cannot be determined without making calculations. To calculate the NPV using a 15% discount rate, the same steps are followed but with a 15% discount rate instead of 10%.

To calculate the net present value (NPV) of the project, we need to discount the future net income and salvage value using the cost of capital. The NPV is the sum of the present values of each cash flow. In this case, the initial investment of $1,700,000 is not discounted because it occurs in the present. The annual net income of $190,000 is discounted for 8 years using a 10% discount rate. The salvage value of $250,000 is discounted back to the present using the same 10% discount rate.

The NPV can be calculated as follows:

NPV = -Initial Investment + Present Value of Net Income + Present Value of Salvage Value

NPV = -$1,700,000 + ($190,000 / 1.10^1) + ($190,000 / 1.10^2) + ... + ($190,000 / 1.10^8) + ($250,000 / 1.10^8)

By calculating this expression, we find that the project's NPV is approximately $102,275.15.

To determine whether the internal rate of return (IRR) is more or less than 10%, we compare the IRR to the cost of capital. If the IRR is greater than the cost of capital, the project is considered favorable. In this case, the IRR is not given, so we cannot determine whether it is more or less than 10% without making calculations.

If we want to calculate the NPV using a 15% discount rate, we follow the same steps as before but use a 15% discount rate instead of 10%. However, without any specific cash flows or further information, it is not possible to calculate the exact NPV using a 15% discount rate. We can only provide an estimation based on the given information.

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Answer:

House prices would be higher in San Francisco

Explanation:

House prices are very similar to prices of other goods and services. It is generally set by the market equilibrium, where the demand for housing meets the supply of housing.

Limited land in San Francisco means that the supply of housing would be low and unable to meet rises in quantity demanded. There would be a shortage of houses since the quantity demanded would be higher than the quantity supplied. Therefore, with a rise in demand, house prices are also likely to increase. On the other hand, Miami offers a lot of room for expansion which suggests that the supply of housing would be able to easily meet the quantity demanded. Thus, housing prices in Miami won’t be as high as those in San Francisco.

Answer:

The value of market shares is directly proportionate to the amount of money spent on advertising

Explanation:

Advertising is part and parcel of promotion, which is targeted at encouraging customers to buy one's product by taking them through the AIDA sequence of promotion.

AIDA is an acronym for Awareness,Interest,Desire and Action, where creating awareness by bringing the products to the attention of the customers through advertising results in interest and desire being aroused and eventually leading to action of buying the product which ultimately leads to repeat buying and increase in market share overall.

Answer:

See explanation section

Explanation:

Rowan Co.

Journal Entries

1. July 1 Investment - JBI Corp. Debit $580,000

Cash Credit $580,000

(As Rowan purchases JBI co. share as an investment, an asset (Investment) increases and another asset (Cash).

2. November 1 Cash Debit $4,400

Dividend on Investment - JBI Corp. Credit $4,400

(As JBI co. received dividend, Rowan co. received cash for investing in JBI co.'s 40%)

Calculation: $11,000 × 40% = $4,400.

3. December 31 Investment - JBI Co. Debit $88,000

Share of Net Income - JBI Co. Credit $88,000

(As Rowan Co. purchases JBI company' s share, they will receive the share of net income of JBI co.)

Calculation: $220,000 × 40% = $88,000

Answer:

It will shift to the right

Explanation: When the value to dollar in relation to other currencies increases,It will be favourable to the American investors as they will spend less in Dollar terms for the goods supplied and services rendered by citizens of other countries where the United States Dollars have a favourable exchange rate against their own currencies this will cause the AGGREGATE SUPPLY CURVE TO SHIFT TO THE RIGHT INDICATING A FAVOURABLE AGGREGATE SUPPLY.

Cost recovery deduction = $1520

Solution:

Given data

purchase price = $38,000

used the car  business  = 80%

used the car  personal = 20%

solution

cost recovery limit are,

cost recovery limit = asset value × statutory % × mid quarter convention  

We recognize the 5-year MACRS convention of car and the depreciation rate of MACRS is 20 percent in the first year.

so we use MACRS statutory % method

cost recovery limit = $38000 × 5%

cost recovery limit = $1900

we know maximum limit is $3160

so cost of recovery is $1900

so,

cost recovery deduction is

cost recovery deduction = cost recovery limit - personal use

cost recovery deduction = $1900 - ( $1900 × 20% )

cost recovery deduction = $1520

Answer:

Financing

Explanation:

Financing refers to usage of money and funds to finance the marketing agencies and promotions, in addition to financing the movement of goods through different channels of distribution.

Retailers usually use credit schemes to induce customers such as, payment in installments with zero interest payments. Such schemes enhance sales and also build consumer trust.

In the given case, Appliance Depot offers credit services whereby customers are granted convenient payment terms such as no down payment and interest free installments. This represents the marketing function of financing wherein the retailer facilitates financing customer's purchase via such credit schemes.

The offering of 'no money down' or 'interest-free' options by The Appliance Depot is related to the financing function of marketing, which facilitates purchases through loans and payment terms, expanding consumer access to goods.

The Appliance Depot's practice of offering “no money down” or “interest-free” payment options for customers to pay for their purchases over time is related to the financing function of marketing. This function involves providing various methods to assist customers in purchasing goods or services. Offering credit services, especially with enticing terms, serves as a strategy to make high-cost items more accessible to customers and can increase a merchant's sales by breaking down the overall transaction into two parts. The merchant firstly provides a loan on certain terms, making the purchase possible, and then the customer completes the purchase using the borrowed funds.

In the broader context of economics and business, the credit transaction is a fundamental part of consumer purchasing decisions, especially for large ticket items such as appliances. This concept of buying on credit has been a key component of the evolution of consumerism, allowing the expansion of the market for goods and services by making them more attainable for the public.

Final answer:

Choosing between re-performing a client's account reconciliation and inspecting documentation depends on the assurance needed, risk of misstatement, quality of client documentation, and historical errors. Re-performance is more direct and reliable but also more time-consuming compared to documentation inspection.

Explanation:

When planning to test a client's account reconciliation, the choice between re-performing the reconciliation and inspecting documentation depends on several factors. Re-performance might be chosen over documentation inspection if there's a need for higher assurance, when the risk of material misstatement is deemed to be high, or when the documentation provided by the client is not sufficiently detailed or objective. Moreover, if there's a history of errors in the client's accounting processes or discrepancies noted in previous audits, an auditor might opt for re-performance to verify the accuracy of the current reconciliation process.

Re-performance provides the auditor with first-hand evidence regarding the effectiveness of the client's internal controls and the accuracy of their account reconciliation. It is a more direct and often a more reliable method of testing than examining documentation, which could be incomplete or misleading. However, it is also more time-consuming and costly. In contrast, inspecting documentation can be efficient and effective when the internal controls environment is strong, and no significant issues have arisen in the past.

Answer:

Whispering Winds Gross profit is $402,100

Explanation:

Multi step income statement differentiate the the operating revenue and expenses from non operating revenue and expenses. It shows the gross profit, operating profit and net profit separately.

     Whispering Winds Corp.

 Income statement for the year 2019

Net sales                               $973,000

Less: Cost of goods sold     $570,900

Gross Profit                                            $402,100

Less:Operating expenses                     $220,300

Operating Profit                                     $181,800

Less: Interest expense                          $14,600  

Profit before Tax                                    $167,200

Final answer:

The gross profit for Whispering Winds Corp. in 2019 is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold from the net sales, resulting in a gross profit of $402,100.

Explanation:

To calculate the gross profit for Whispering Winds Corp., you subtract the cost of goods sold from the net sales. In this case, the company had net sales of $973,000 and the cost of goods sold was $570,900. The formula to calculate gross profit is:

Gross Profit = Net Sales - Cost of Goods Sold

So, using the provided figures:

Gross Profit = $973,000 - $570,900

Gross Profit = $402,100

Therefore, the gross profit for Whispering Winds Corp. in 2019 was $402,100.

Answer:

Fees Income 112,400 debit

   Income Summary 112,400 credit

Income Summary 31,720 debit

    Advertising Expense 3,800 credit

    Depreciation Expense—Equip 800 credit

    Rent Expense 2,600 credit

    Salaries Expense 18,800 credit

   Utilities Expense 5,720 credit

income summary   80,680‬  debit

    Emilio Gonzalez, Drawing   6,200 credit

    Emilio Gonzalez, Capital    74,480 credit

Explanation:

We close the temporary account which are, reveneus and expenses against income summary then we close this account balance against Emilio Capital Account along with Emilio's drawings.

To journalize the closing entries in the general journal, transfer account balances to the Income Summary account and close it to the owner's capital account. The balance of the Salaries Expense account will be zero after closing entries are posted.

In order to journalize the closing entries in the general journal, we need to transfer the balances of certain accounts to the Income Summary account and then close the Income Summary account to the owner's capital account. Here are the closing entries:

After these closing entries are posted, the balance of the Salaries Expense account will be zero.

Explanation:

The period cost is the cost that is incurred with the passage of time. It mainly involves the major portion of the selling and administration expenses like - selling expenses, advertising expenses. It is a fixed cost

While the product cost involves the cost related to the product. It involves direct material cost, direct labor cost, and the manufacturing overhead cost. It is a variable cost

So, the period cost is the operating cost that are expenses when it is incurred

Whereas the product cost is treat as an asset for external financial reporting. First this is recorded as an asset on the balance sheet until asset is sold and then it is transferred to the cost of goods sold i.e expense account

Now on the income statement the product cost or cost of goods sold is subtracted from the sales revenue so that the gross profit could come

Then the period cost is deducted to find out the operating income

Now the classification of the product cost and the period cost are as follows

Shaft and handle of weed trimmer  = Direct material cost

Motor of weed trimmer   = Direct material cost

Factory labor for workers assembling weed trimmers  = Direct labor cost

Nylon thread used by the weed trimmer (not traced to the product)  = Manufacturing overhead cost

Glue to hold housing together   = Manufacturing overhead cost

Plant janitorial wages   = Manufacturing overhead cost

Depreciation on factory equipment   = Manufacturing overhead cost

Rent on plant   = Manufacturing overhead cost

Sales commissions  = Period cost

Administrative salaries  = Period cost

Plant utilities  = Manufacturing overhead cost

Shipping costs to deliver finished weed trimmers to customers = Period cost

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": Related Diversification.

Explanation:

Related Diversification refers to the expansion in product lines of a company investing in the manufacturing of new goods that are related to the lines already being offered. Firms do this to attract new customers without losing their specialty. This opposes Unrelated Diversification where companies venture into new business lines unrelated to the existing business.

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": The owners' equity that has accumulated as a result of profitable operations.

Explanation:

Retained Earnings are the part of the company's net profits it does not pay out as dividends to shareholders. The company retains the money and reinvests it in the company, or uses it to pay off a part of its debt. To see how much profits a corporation has kept, look under the Shareholder's equity in the Balance Sheet.

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": Top Managers.

Explanation:

Top Managers are the executives of every firm responsible for the decision-making of the operations of the corporation. They are the head of each department in the corporate structure that includes the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Chief Operations Officer (COO), Chief Information Officer (CIO), and Chief Marketing Officer (CMO) to mention a few. These are also referred to as "C-level positions".

Answer: Handling Sales Calls

Explanation: Sam would experience difficulty in handling sales calls. This is because of Sam's introverted personality, and it would make this task difficult for him to perform.

Also, Sam is someone who doesn't want to be interrupted whenever he's working on a project, this is in stark contrast with handling of sales calls, where an employee is constantly attending to calls from different customers.

Answer:

Capitation

Fee for service

Explanation:

Bundled payment provide a single payment to hospitals, doctor, physician, and other providers (for home care, lab, medical equipment, etc.) for a defined episode of care. It is described as "a middle channel" between fee-for-service reimbursement (that allows providers to be paid for each service they render to a patient) and Capitation (that allows for providers to be paid a "lump sum" per patient not regarding how many services the patient receives), given the risk is shared between payer and provider. Bundled payments was proposed in the health care reform debate of the United States as a strategy for reducing health care costs, especially during the Obama administration.

Answer: "FEE - FOR - SERVICE" is considered to be a form of bundle payment.

Explanation: Bundle payment is a means of using incentives to compensate workers for a job done. In it's simplest term, it means the different ways of paying wages and salaries.

Fee-for-service is a retrospective type of payment, where workers are paid directly from the employer, for doing their job. The employee get less payment when the cost price is high, and high payment when the cost price is low. The employer checks the performance and level of each employee and pays directly to them.

Answer:

Attached is the solution hope it helps:

To calculate financial metrics for TRC Corporation using FIFO, we find that the sales revenue is $27,279, COGS is $21,030, ending inventory is $3,519, and gross profit is $6,249. These calculations show the impact of FIFO on TRC Corporation's financials.

To calculate the ending inventory, cost of goods sold (COGS), sales revenue, and gross profit for TRC Corporation using the FIFO (First In, First Out) inventory method, we follow these steps:

This calculation provides a clear picture of TRC Corporation's inventory, showing how the FIFO method impacts the company's financial metrics.

Answer:

$31,442

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Years             Cash flows              Discount factor         Present value

0                     $100,000.00              1                      $100,000.00

1                      $10,000.00        0.9433962264

2                     $10,000.00        0.88999644

3                                                 0.839619283

4                      $10,000.00         0.7920936632

5                      $10,000.00          0.7472581729

6                      $10,000.00          0.7049605404

7                       $10,000.00          0.6650571136

8                       $10,000.00           0.6274123713

9                       $10,000.00           0.5918984635

10                     $10,000.00            0.5583947769

Total                                                  7.3600870514

Now the present value is

= $10,000 × 7.3600870514

= $73,600.87

The single payment is

= $100,000 - $73,600.8705

= $26,399.1295

After considering the 6% APR, it is

= $26,399.1295 ÷ 0.839619283

= $31,441.72

The discount factor should be computed below

= 1 ÷ (1 + rate) ^ years

where,  

rate is 6%  

Year = 0,1,2,3,4 and so on

Answer:

The current price of the bonds is $1,102.96  

Explanation:

In arriving at the current price of the bonds, I discounted all future cash flows of the bonds into present value by multiplying the cash flows payable by the bond with relevant year discounting factor.

PV=FV/(1+r)^n

For detailed computation on the bonds current price find attached.

Answer:

See the pictures attached

Explanation:

Answer:

Detailed solution is given below:

Red Bison expects to generate $140 million in net income and spend $25.8 million on capital projects. The expected dividend payout ratio is dividends paid ($114.2 million) divided by net income, which is 81.57%.

Calculating Red Bison Petroleum Producers' Dividend Payout Ratio

Red Bison Petroleum Producers Group plans to maintain a capital structure of 70% debt and 30% equity. According to a residual dividend policy, dividends are paid out from net income after all acceptable investment opportunities have been financed. The company expects to generate $140,000,000 in net income and has a capital budget of $86,000,000, which will be financed according to the capital structure. The equity portion of the capital budget is 30%, so Red Bison will use 30% of $86,000,000, which amounts to $25,800,000, from its net income for financing the capital projects. If the company uses only $25,800,000 from its $140,000,000 net income for capital investment, it will have $114,200,000 ($140,000,000 - $25,800,000) left to distribute as dividends. The dividend payout ratio is calculated as dividends paid divided by net income. Therefore, the expected dividend payout ratio for Red Bison Petroleum Producers would be $114,200,000 / $140,000,000, which simplifies to 81.57%.

Answer:

correct answer is electronic marketing channel

Explanation:

Amazon  is American multinational technology company that was founded on July 5, 1994  by Jeff Bezos

Amazon initially start an online marketplace for the book but later expand to sell software, electronic , video games,  and furniture and toy etc

as it is an online retail store that make product and service to customers

so that it is an electronic market channel.

so correct answer is electronic marketing channel