ANSWER:
Active genotype–environment correlation
EXPLANATION:
Genotype–environment correlations refer to genetic differences in exposure to particular environments.
There are three types of genotype–environment correlation:
1. Passive genotype–environment correlation: This refers to the association between the genotype a child inherits from his or her parents and the environment in which the child is raised.
2. Reactive genotype–environment correlation: This refers to the association between an individual’s genetically influenced behaviour and others’ reactions to that behaviour.
3. Active genotype–environment correlation: This refers to the association between an individual’s genetic propensities and the environmental niches that individual selects. For example, people who are characteristically extroverted may seek out very different social environments than those who are shy and withdrawn.
Answer:
"The process by which an individual seeks out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics is described as the active genotype effect."
Explanation:
Active genotype-environment correlation:The active genotype-environment can be simplified as the case in which any individuals behavior or response to the change is analyzed or judged which is relied upon the genotype or the genome of the subject inside an environment is called as active genotype-environment correlation.
When you observe a patient like Tina throughout an exam, there are many ways to determine whether a patient is experiencing respiratory distress. Identify one indicator of respiratory distress that can be assessed through observation alone.
Answer: difficulty in breathing.
Explanation: Rate of respiration becomes irregular per minute which is a sign of respiratory distress. They may be breathing rapidly. They will look uncomfortable, they may lie-down due to difficulty in breathing.
In this condition, try to check the air ways or pulse of the patient.
Answer:
Explanation:
Obvious and visible signs of respiratory stress include: fast respiratory rate, wheezing, cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin), sweating, audible breathing, moving backwards of the chest and speech incoherence.
Lipid-soluble hormones readily diffuse through capillary walls, whereas water-soluble hormones, such as proteins, remain in the blood.a. pass through capillary cells.b. pass through pores in the capillary endothelium.c. be moved out of the capillary by active transport.d. remain in the blood.e. be broken down to amino acids before leaving the blood.
Answer:
b. pass through pores in the capillary endothelium
Explanation:
The fenestrated capillaries and sinusoids have pores in their endothelium. These pores or the intracellular clefts vary in size between the fenestrated capillaries and sinusoids. Sinusoids have larger intracellular clefts. The pores serve as a passage for the movement of water-soluble substances, proteins and other substances that cannot cross the hydrophobic interior of the cell membranes.
Water-soluble hormones also cannot pass through the capillary walls. Therefore, these hormones pass through the pore or the fenestrations present in the endothelium of capillaries.
Which of the following factors directly affects the distance and speed of a migration of a protein during electrophoresis? A. affinity of protein to agarose/polysaccharides B. function of a protein C. solubility of protein D. size of protein E. shape of protein
Answer:
Protein electrophoresis is the process of the analayzing the present proteins in a specific mixture using the polyacrylamide or agarose gel. These gel are acts as the sieve to extract the proteins from the mixture on their character.
This is shows the migration of the protein on their various factors such as size, affinity to gel, and shape of the protein. The smaller the protein more it will move or migrate faster. Affinity t the gel of the method to the protein also affects the distance and sped of migration.
The adequate stimuli for olfactory receptors are chemicals, typically odorant molecules. For an olfactory receptor, which modality will induce a receptor potential of the largest amplitude?
Answer:
Moderate-intensity chemical.
Explanation:
Receptors may be defined as any cell, tissue or organ that has the ability to respond against the particular stimuli like light, smell and pressure. These receptors send information to the brain.
The olfactory receptor is involved in detecting the different type of smell. This will initiate the signaling process and generation of the action potential for the transformation of information. The moderate- intensity chemical can easily detect the change and induce the receptor action potential of the large amplitude.
Thus, the answer is moderate-intensity chemical.
Final answer:
The largest receptor potential in an olfactory receptor is induced when the receptor binds with its specific volatile odorant molecule, initiating a signaling cascade that leads to depolarization and potentially action potentials.
Explanation:
The amplitude of a receptor potential in an olfactory receptor is greatest when the receptor is exposed to the specific chemical compound that it is optimally tuned to bind with. These chemicals, typically volatile odorant molecules, interact with receptor proteins on olfactory neurons. When an odorant molecule binds to its specific receptor, it initiates a signaling cascade involving a G protein called Golf, activation of adenylyl cyclase, a rise in cyclic AMP, and subsequently the opening of cation channels that leads to an influx of calcium and sodium ions. This influx then causes the opening of calcium-activated chloride channels. Due to high intracellular chloride concentrations in olfactory receptor neurons, chloride ions flow out of the neuron, further contributing to depolarization, which generates a receptor potential. This receptor potential may trigger the generation of action potentials if the depolarization crosses a certain threshold, thus relaying the signal to the olfactory bulb in the brain.
genetics book g how do you know that only a single gene is responsible for he color diferences between these snakes?
Answer:
Here is the full question:
An albino corn snake is crossed with a normal colored corn snake. The offspring are all normal-colored. When the first generation progeny snakes are crossed among themselves, they produce 32 normal colored snakes and 10 albino snakes.
a. How do you know that only a single gene is responsible for the color differences between these snakes?
b. which of these phenotypes is controlled by the dominant allele?
c. a normal colored female snake is involved in a test cross. This cross produces 10 normal colored and 11 albina offspring. what are the genotypes of the parents?
Explanation:
First of all, in genetics, Phenotype are the observable physical properties of an organism; these include the organism's appearance, development, and behavior. An organism's phenotype can be determined by its genotype, which is the set of genes the organism carries, as well as by environmental influences on these genes.
Allele, which can also be called allelomorph, is any one of two or more genes that may occur alternatively at a given site on a chromosome. Alleles may occur in pairs, or we may have multiple alleles affecting the phenotype of a particular trait. The combination of alleles that an organism carries is its genotype. If the paired alleles are the same, the organism’s genotype is said to be homozygous for that trait. If they are different, the organism’s genotype is heterozygous. A dominant allele (A) will override the traits of a recessive allele (a) in a heterozygous pairing.
(a) In the question, we have two phenotypes seen in the second generation of this cross: normal and albino. Therefore, only one gene with two alleles is needed to control the phenotypes like colour of the snakes observed. The 3:1 ratio of these phenotypes in the F2 generation will be seen only if a single gene is involved.
(b) The allele controlling the normal phenotype (A) is dominant to the allele controlling the albino phenotype (a).
(c) The male parent’s genotype is aa. The normally colored offspring must receive an A allele from the mother, so the genotype of the normal offspring of the testcross is Aa. The albino offspring must receive an a allele from the mother, so the genotype of the albino offspring of the testcross is aa. Thus, the female parent must be heterozygous Aa.
Which statement correctly describes the difference between a polar covalent bond and a nonpolar covalent bond?
A: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve sharing of protons whereas polar covalent bonds involve transfer of
protons.
B: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve sharing of electrons whereas polar covalent bonds involve transfer of electrons.
C: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve sharing of protons whereas polar covalent bonds involve sharing of electrons.
D: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two atoms that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent bonds involve two atoms that are unequal in their electronegativity.
E: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two electrons that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent
bonds involve two electrons that are unequal in their electronegativity.
answer is D
Explanation:
Polar covalent bonding is a type of chemical bond where a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms. ... If the electronegativity of two atoms is basically the same, a nonpolar covalent bond will form, and if the electronegativity is slightly different, a polar covalent bond will form.
Considering the definition of covalent bond, the correct answer is option D: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two atoms that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent bonds involve two atoms that are unequal in their electronegativity.
A covalent bond is a force that joins two atoms of non-metallic elements to form a molecule. Atoms share pairs of electrons from their most superficial layer (called the valence layer) to achieve the stability of the molecule that has been formed with the bond and thus comply with the octet rule.
On the other side, electronegativity refers to the tendency of the atom of a given element to attract electrons.
So, the covalent bond between two atoms can be polar or nonpolar.
Polarity depends on the difference in electronegativity of the joining elements. The greater the electronegativity difference, the greater the polar character of the bond. The most electronegative element will be the one that most strongly attracts the shared electrons, then a negative partial charge will be generated on said element, while a positive partial charge will be generated on the other element (less electronegative).
Finally, nonpolar covalent bonding occurs when pairs of electrons are shared between atoms that have the same or very similar electronegativity, favoring an equitable distribution of electrons.
In summary, the correct answer is option D: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two atoms that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent bonds involve two atoms that are unequal in their electronegativity.
Learn more:
https://brainly.com/question/12959177https://brainly.com/question/6802183?referrer=searchResultshttps://brainly.com/question/1646189?referrer=searchResultshttps://brainly.com/question/12661797?referrer=searchResultsAn experimental protocol requires that a nutrient deficiency be induced to assess its effects on memory. What is the most appropriate study design to use to address this question?
a. randomized controlled trial
b. epidemiological study
c. cell culture study
d. animal experiment
Answer:
Animal Experiment
Explanation:
Also known as animal testing. It involves the use Animal models which are non human animals in an experiment to test the effects of a variable on its' behavior or biological system.
In the said experimental protocol, it is required that nutrient deficiency be introduced to access its effect on memory cells. Hence an animal model will be needed for this type of experiment making an animal experiment as the appropriate study design to be used.
Think about the changes you see in the numbers of each bean subspecies after one year of predation. If this pattern continues over several years, which one of these hypotheses do you think best predicts the long term change in frequencies? a. Split Peas will be the most frequent sub-speciesb. Split Peas will be the less frequent sub-speciesc. Split Peas will be the most lethal speciesd. None of the above
Answer:
If the mentioned pattern continues over several years, Split Peas will be the most frequent sub-species.
Explanation:
As the species of peas would begin thriving after predation, it would genetically learn to grow up to adapt to the external condition on its own. This would cause the species to develop immunity against factors defiant for its growth and thrive in the given conditions after predation. Hence, split peas would group and multiply to become the most frequent sub-species.Show that N/N = r - a(N-b)^2 provides an example of the Allee effect, if r, a, and b satisfy certain constraints
Answer:
See the explanation
Explanation:
Let us denote the effective growth rate N/N by R(N).
To find if, and at which N, this effective rate is highest, we evaluate
[tex]\frac{d}{dN} R=-2a(N-b)[/tex] , under the assumption that r, a, b are all parameters independent of N.
At extremum, the above will vanish, giving
a(N - b) = 0.
If a ≠ 0, then the extremum occurs at N = b, which is possible if b > 0 (since it represents a population). If this extremum is a maxima, then
[tex]\frac{d^{2} }{dN^{2} } R=-2a<0[/tex] , which is possible if a > 0.
Hope this helps!
The allele effect is the interaction and the relation between the average of the individual fitness of a species and the population size of the area. It is a biological phenomenon that occurs due to genetic drift or natural selection.
What shows the Allele effect?Let the effective growth rate [tex](\dfrac{N}{N})[/tex] be given as [tex]\rm R(N)[/tex].
Evaluate at what value of N will be the effective rate the highest under the parameters r, a and b:
[tex]\dfrac{d}{dN} \rm R= -2a (N-b)[/tex]
From the above, it can be stated that the values are independent of N.
When at extreme conditions the above equation will be given as,
[tex]\rm a(N-b)=0[/tex]
If in this case [tex]a\neq 0[/tex], then the values of the [tex]\rm N=b[/tex] that is possible in the case of [tex]\rm b>0[/tex]. Now the equation will be:
[tex]\dfrac{d^{2}}{dN^{2}}\rm R=-2a<0[/tex]
Therefore, it is possible to have this value only when the [tex]\rm a>0[/tex].
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Which of the following techniques is used sparingly because there is a slight but genuine risk of miscarriage or damage to the fetus; however, it has a 99% accuracy in diagnosing genetic problems?
a. CT scan
b. ultrasound
c. amniocentesis
d. chorionic villus sampling
Answer:
d. chorionic villus sampling
Explanation:
The process of chorionic villus sampling requires to collect the chorionic tissues as a sample. This is done by inserting a catheter through the cervix or by penetrating the uterine wall through a needle. During the sample collection, there are chances that the fetus is damaged by the inserted device. However, the process gives accurate knowledge about any probability of the presence of genetic disorders in the fetus since the chromosomal content of fetus and chorion are identical.
Amniocentesis is used sparingly due to the slight but real risk of miscarriage or damage to the fetus. Despite this risk, it is highly accurate in diagnosing genetic problems. option C is the correct answer .
Explanation:The technique used sparingly because it carries a slight but real risk of miscarriage or damage to the fetus, but it has a 99% accuracy in diagnosing genetic problems, is known as amniocentesis. In this procedure, a small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is sampled from the amniotic sac surrounding a developing fetus and the fetal DNA is tested for genetic abnormalities.
The other options, CT scan, ultrasound, and chorionic villus sampling, are also used to observe and diagnose potential issues in pregnancy. However, these techniques do not carry the same level of accuracy or risk as amniocentesis.
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Which of the following is least true of or related to an endocrine gland?
a.. it secretes hormones.
b. they are ductless glands.
c. secretions are trasported by the blood.
d. all hormones are steroids
Answer:
The statement that is least true of an endocrine gland is d. all hormones are steroids.
Explanation:
The endocrine glands are a set of glands that are devoid of excretory ducts (they are ductless glands), produce and release hormones (messenger substances) directly into the bloodstream. The hormones can be steriodeas, produced by endocrine cells from cholesterol and non-steroids, synthesized from amino acids (Proteins, peptides, glycoproteins, derived from simple amino acids)
In the polymerization in vitro of actin filaments and microtubules from their subunits, what does the "lag phase" correspond to? Nucleation Reaching steady state Nucleotide exchange ATP or GTP hydrolysis Treadmilling
Answer:
Nucleation
Explanation:
The first step of formation of new phase, structure or self-assembly is called as Nucleation.
It is mentioned in the book of Molecular Biology of the Cell that whenever, In-vitro polymerization of micro-tubules and actin filament occur the first step is called nucleation. In other words Lag Phase.
Reference: Alberts B, Johnson A, Lewis J, et al. Molecular Biology of the Cell. 4th edition. New York: Garland Science; 2002. The Self-Assembly and Dynamic Structure of Cytoskeletal Filaments.
Carbohydrate-based fat substitutes use plant polysaccharides to help retain moisture and provide a fatlike texture
Answer:true
Explanation:
Suppose that life exists elsewhere in the universe. All life must contain some type of genetic information, but alien genomes might not consist of nucleic acids or have the same features as those found in the genomes of life on Earth. What might be the common features of all genomes, no matter where they exist?
a. the ability to allow acquired traits to become incorporated into the genetic material
b. a large and varyýing number of building blocks that can reflect the complexity of lving organisms.
c. the entire set of information an organism, needs for reproduction organismS and development
d. must not be able to mutate to new forms
e. the ability to replicate the genetic information accurately for the next generation
Answer:
The correct answer is e. the ability to replicate the genetic information accurately for the next generation
Explanation:
As there are chances of existence of life in the universe but we can not say that they will have the same type of genetic material as we have but the ability of replication of genome and the ability to pass the genetic information accurately to the next generation will be the most common feature in all genome because without genome replication and transfer life can not evolve and proceed on any planet.
Therefore replication and genetic information transfer to the next generator is necessary. So the right answer is e.
All genomes, no matter where they exist, would contain the entire genetic information necessary for an organism's development and reproduction, have the ability to accurately replicate this information for the successive generation, and possess the capacity to vary or mutate, enabling evolution and adaptability.
Explanation:Despite potential differences in the specific components of life forms originating from different parts of the universe, some universal characteristics of genomes can be hypothesized.
Genetic Information: All genomes would need to contain a complete set of instructions necessary for an organism's development and reproduction. This instruction set would border the entire set of information an organism needs for reproduction and development. The ability to Replicate: This attribute, the ability to replicate the genetic information accurately for the next generation, is a fundamental feature of life, ensuring continuity of species. Variability: The genetic material should be capable of varying, allowing diversity and evolution. It contradicts option b, which states that genomes should not mutate to new forms. Mutations are vital for evolution and adaptability of all living organisms. Learn more about Genomes here:
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2. T/F. Chromosomes are replicated a second time just prior to the start of Meiosis II.
Answer: FALSE.
Explanation:
After the first replication in meiosis 1, chromosomes don't replicate the second time in meiosis 11.
There are four phases in meiosis 11 and they are the prophase, metaphase, anaphsse and telophase.
In meiosis 1, chromosomes are replicated. In meiosis 11 the replicated chromosomes are condensed I.e condensation of chromosomes during prophase 1. They chromosomes allign in metaphase 1.
The chromosomes are separated into sister chromatids and move to the opposite poles during anasphae 1 and nuclear envelopes is formed arround the chromosomes in telophase 1 aftter it has been decondensed.
Recently, genes have been indentified in angiosperms that are important in preventing pollen from germinating or growing into the stigma. The locus where the genes are found has been termed the A. strict reproductive locus B. similarity locus C. selfless locus D. sterility locus
Answer:The locus where the genes are found has been termed the sterility locus.The correct option is D.
Explanation:
pollination is defined as the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or another flower. There are two types of pollination: self pollination. ( This occurs when the pollen from the anther is deposited on the stigma of the same flower) and cross pollination (transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower).
Recently there are some incompatible genes that prevents pollen from germinating or growing into the stigma of a flower in angiosperms.The locus where the genes are found has been termed the sterility locus. The pollens are either rejected or degraded.The degradation results from the activity of a ribonuclease encoded by the sterility locus. The ribonuclease is secreted from the cells of the style in the extracellular matrix, which lies alongside the growing pollen tube. I hope this helps. Thanks
Forskolin is a drug used by scientists to render adenylyl cyclase (AC) constitutively (always) active. What will this do to to PKA levels and IP3 levels?
a) increase PKA
b) increase IP3
c) no effect on PKA
d) no effect on IP3
Answer:
Both the PKA and IP3 levels increases. Hence, the correct answer is a and b.
Explanation:
Forskolin refers to a drug that increases the levels of cAMP or cyclic AMP by stimulating the enzyme adenylyl cyclase. The cAMP is an essential secondary messenger that ensures proper biological response of cells to hormones and other signals and also takes part in communication between the cells.
When Forskolin increases the levels of cAMP, it will stimulate the enzyme PKA or protein kinase A and at the same time also enhances the intracellular concentration of Ca2+ and IP3 (inositol 1,2,5 triphosphate).
Forskolin will increase PKA levels and have no effect on IP3 levels.
Explanation:Forskolin, a drug used to activate adenylyl cyclase constitutively, would increase PKA levels and have no effect on IP3 levels.
Forskolin activates adenylyl cyclase, which increases cAMP and subsequently increases PKA activity. It does not affect IP3 levels since IP3 production is not linked to cAMP or AC activity.
Adenylyl cyclase is responsible for converting ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP). By activating adenylyl cyclase with forskolin, there would be an increase in cAMP levels. Increased cAMP levels would then activate protein kinase A (PKA), leading to increased PKA levels.
On the other hand, forskolin does not directly interact with IP3 or affect IP3 levels. Therefore, there would be no effect on IP3 levels.
The following two genotypes are crossed: AaBbCc X+Xr AaBBcc X+Y, where a, b, and c represent alleles of autosomal genes and X+and Xr represent X-linked alleles in an organism with XX-XY sex determination.
a. What is the probability of obtaining genotype aaBbCc X+X+ in the progeny?Can you please explain.
Answer:
1/64
Explanation:
The following genotypes were crossed: AaBbCc X+Xr and AaBBcc X+Y
If we asume that the autosomal genes are in different chromosomes, then they will assort independently during meiosis and gametogenesis. In that case, we can use the Multiplication Rule of Probability to obtain the probability of having a specific genotype in the progeny. This rule states that when two or more events are independent, the probability of all them happening at the same time will be the result of the multiplication of the individual probabilities of each event.
We can separate each gene in the cross to determine the genotypic ratios in the offspring, and then multiply the probabilities of the aaBbCc X+X+ genotypes to obtain the overall probability of having progeny with that genotype.
Aa x Aa1/4 AA
2/4 Aa
1/4 aa
Bb x BB
1/2 BB
1/2 Bb
Cc x cc1/2 Cc
1/2 cc
X+Xr x X+Y1/4 X+X+
1/4 X+Y
1/4 X+Xr
1/4 XrY
The probability of having offspring with the aaBbCc X+X+ genotype will be: 1/4 × 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/4 = 1/64
The probability of obtaining progeny with the genotype aaBbCc X+X+ is 1/32, or approximately 3.125%.
The probability of obtaining a specific genotype in the progeny from a cross between two parents with known genotypes. The desired genotype is aaBbCc X+X+.
In order to solve this problem, we need to analyze each gene separately. For the autosomal genes, we will use a Punnett square to determine the chance of each allele combination:
For the A allele, since both parents are Aa, the probability of the offspring being aa is 1/4.For the B allele, one parent is Bb and the other is BB. The probability that the offspring is Bb is 1/2, since the offspring will get a B from parent 2 and either a B or b from parent 1.For the C allele, both parents are Cc, so the probability of the offspring being Cc is again 1/2. This is calculated using a 2 × 2 Punnett square representing the distribution of alleles C and c.For the X-linked genes, since the female parent is heterozygous X+Xr and the male is XY, the probability of a female offspring receiving X+ from the mother is 1/2, and it must inherit X+ from the father (since the father can only pass on either X+ or Y to a female offspring). Therefore, the probability the female offspring has the genotype X+X+ is 1/2.
Taking all the probabilities together and assuming independent assortment of genes, we multiply the individual probabilities to find the probability of the genotype aaBbCc X+X+:
(1/4) for aa × (1/2) for Bb × (1/2) for Cc × (1/2) for X+X+
= (1/4) × (1/2) × (1/2) × (1/2)
= 1/32
Therefore, the probability is approximately 3.125%.
Explain why sister chromatid cohesion is important, and discuss the role of the proteins cohesin and separase in sister chromatid separation.
Answer:
Sister chromatid Cohesion is essential for the bi orientation of chromosomes on the mitotic or meiotic spindle, and is thus an essential condition for chromosome segregation.
Explanation:
Sister chromatid Cohesion:- it is the process by which sister chromatids are combined and held together during specific periods of the cell cycle.
Why Sister chromatid Cohesion is important?
This is essential for the bi orientation of chromosomes on the mitotic or meiotic spindle, and is thus an essential condition for chromosome segregation.
Protein Cohesion:- The proteins that bind the two sister chromatids, denying any premature sister chromatid partition, are a piece of the cohesion protein family. They regulates the separation of sister chromatids during cell division, either mitosis or meiosis. It hold sister chromatids together after DNA replication until anaphase stage is complete
Separase:- Separase is a protease enzyme which can cleave the Ssc1 subunit of the cohesin ring complex releasing the tension or strechness in the spindle and allowing segregation of sister chromatids.
Which situation could decrease the carrying capacity for humans in a certain
region?
A. A developer building high-rise apartment buildings
B. A scientist developing an inexpensive way to desalinate water
C. A crop disease becoming resistant to medicine
D. A researcher finding an effective cancer treatment
Answer:
A crop disease becoming resistant to medicine
Explanation:
The carrying capacity of a habitat is the maximum number of individuals of a given species it can support without depleting the available resources. The carrying capacity for humans in a certain region would decrease because of a crop disease becoming resistant to medicine that would reduce the yield. This would lead to increased starvation and malnourished people.
Answer:
A crop disease becoming resistant to medicine
Examples of obligate intracellular parasites that can only replicate inside a host cell are:
Answer: All Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites that can only replicate inside a host cell.
Explanation:
Obligate intracellular parasites are parasite that cannot complete their life cycle or live outside a host cell . They become living and replicate in a host cell. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites that reproduce and grow inside a host cell by using the intracellular resources in the host cell. Examples are human deficiency virus (HIV), AIDS virus, bacteriophage e.t.c.
Classify the descriptions as being representative of either the somatic nervous system or the autonomic nervous system. a. Voluntary Controlb. One lower motor neuronc. Stimulates skeletal muscle fibersd. involuntary controle. two lower motor neuronsf. innervates cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
Answer:
The correct classification would be as follows:
Somatic Nervous System
a) Voluntary Control
b) One lower motor neuron
c) Stimulates skeletal muscle fibers
Autonomic Nervous System
d) involuntary control
e) two lower motor neurons
f) innervates cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
Explanation:
Somatic nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system that is responsible for the various functions such as voluntary movements of muscles. It is also responsible for the stimulating impulse in between central nervous system that include skeletal muscle.
Autonomic nervous system is the part of the nervous system that is involved in bodily functions that function not consciously directed. Which is involved in innervates heart muscles and smooth muscles.
Thus, the correct answer is -
Somatic Nervous System
a) Voluntary Control
b) One lower motor neuron
c) Stimulates skeletal muscle fibers
Autonomic Nervous System
d) involuntary control
e) two lower motor neurons
f) innervates cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
Always close the fume hood sash when not in use and lower to approximately 12 inches when in use.A. TrueB. False
Answer:
Option A. True
Explanation:
Fume hoods are constructed in way that when not in use sash should be closed or lower. The reason for lowering sash is that there is an airfoil which exhaust dangerous vapor out of the room even when its shut. It continuously remove hazardous vapors out of the room. Attached is a picture of fume hood.
How many carbon and hydrogen atoms would be contained within this molecule?
Answer:
The molecule contains five (5) carbon atoms and ten (10) hydrogen atoms.
Explanation:
The name of the compound is cyclopentane which contains five (5) carbon atoms each bonded to two (2) hydrogen atoms making ten (10) hydrogen atoms in total.
Choose the ONE BEST answer explaining how oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA levels are balanced to maximize flux through the citrate cycle when energy charge in the cell is low.
Oxaloacetate is required for mitochondrial shuttle systems, and therefore it makes sense to activate pyruvate carboxylase by ATP and inhibit it by malate.
None of the answers are correct.
The best way to balance the input of carbon into the citrate cycle is to regulate the production of citrate using vitamins like panthothenic acid, which is the cause of beriberi in southeast asia.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is activated by CoA but inhibited by its product acetyl- CoA, whereas pyruvate carboxylase is activated by acetyl-CoA to produce more oxaloacetate for the citrate synthase reaction
Under conditions of low energy charge in the cell, it makes sense to stimulate pyruvate decarboxylase so that flux through the citrate cycle is maximal, but when CoA is high, maximize the PDH reaction
Increased NADH levels inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase and thereby restricts flux through the pyruvate carboxylase reaction, this in turn, activates the malate dehydrogenase reaction
Acetyl-CoA can be produced by the degradation of fat, and therefore, it is advantageous to stimulate ketogenesis by increasing the amount of oxaloacetate through activation of the isocitrate dehydrogenase reaction
Pyruvate carboxylase and pyruvate dehydrogenase both require thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP), which facilitates coordinate regulation of the two enzymatic reactions and increased citrate cycle flux.
Imagine that you want to compare a new diet for tadpoles that are reared in the laboratory to the traditional laboratory diet of boiled lettuce. You want to decide if the new diet will be associated with an increase in the average weight of the tadpoles. The new diet is a meat-based commercial fish food. In your experiment you keep all other factors, such as tadpole density, temperature, pH, amount of food, etc., constant. The only difference between your control and experimental groups is the type of food the tadpoles receive. Write a null hypothesis for this experiment: Write an alternate hypothesis for this experiment: What is the independent variable? What is the dependent variable? Would you want to test only one pan of tadpoles fed lettuce, and only one pan of tadpoles fed meat? Why or why not? After you weighed your tadpoles at the end of the experiment, how would you determine if the type of diet significantly affected tadpole size?
Answer:
Hi
Hypothesis: There will be a significant difference between the tadpole weight gain before applying the commercial fish-based diet and the measures after some diet to the diet.
Null hypothesis: There is no significant difference in the means of the tadpole weight before and after the commercial fish-based diet.
Alternative hypothesis: There is a significant difference in the means of the tadpole weight before and after the commercial fish-based diet.
The independent variable is the amount of the commercial fish-based diet given to tadpoles, since it is the variable that is controlled in the experiment. The dependent variable is the tadpole weight gain, since it is the variable that is investigated and measured.
The gain or not in tadpole weight is the variable that we would use to know if the change in diet affects the size of the tadpole.
Explanation:
The null hypothesis for this experiment is that there is no significant difference in the average weight of tadpoles fed the new diet compared to the traditional diet. The independent variable is the type of diet and the dependent variable is the average weight of the tadpoles. Statistical analysis should be conducted to determine if the type of diet significantly affected tadpole size.
Explanation:The null hypothesis for this experiment would be that there is no significant difference in the average weight of tadpoles fed the new diet compared to the traditional diet. The alternate hypothesis would be that the new diet is associated with an increase in the average weight of the tadpoles.
The independent variable in this experiment is the type of diet the tadpoles receive - either the new meat-based commercial fish food or the traditional boiled lettuce. The dependent variable is the average weight of the tadpoles.
It would not be sufficient to test only one pan of tadpoles fed each diet because the results could be biased. Instead, multiple pans of tadpoles should be used for each diet to account for any individual variations.
To determine if the type of diet significantly affected tadpole size, statistical analysis should be conducted on the weight measurements of the tadpoles from both the control and experimental groups. This analysis could involve techniques such as t-tests or analysis of variance (ANOVA) to compare the means and determine if any observed differences are statistically significant.
Which of the following is NOT a function of nucleotides?
a) expressing the genetic code providing most of the energy for cellular processes
b)storing the genetic code providing substrates for the citric acid cycle providing electrons to the electron transport chain
Answer: b) storing the genetic code providing substrate for the citric acid cycle providing electrons to the electron transport chain.
What is the probability that the first offspring from the cross listed below will show the dominant phenotype for all loci? (type as a decimal and round to 5 decimal places)a. AA bb
b. Dd ee x
c. Aa
d. BB dd
e. Ee
Answer:
0.25000
Explanation:
There is an error in the way the question is written, the cross to analyze is:
AAbbDdee x AaBBddEeIf the genes assort independently, we can predict separately for each gene the proportion of the offspring that will have the dominant alleles using Mendel's law of segregation.
AA x Aa1/2 AA
1/2 Aa
Phenotype: all A
bb x BB1 Bb
Phenotype: all B
Dd x dd1/2 Dd
1/2 dd
Phenotype: 1/2 D, 1/2 d
ee x Ee1/2 Ee
1/2 ee
Phenotype: 1/2 E, 1/2 e
Genes are independent, so the probability of having all dominant phenotype offspring (A_B_D_E_) can be calculated by multiplying for each gene the probabilities of having at least one dominant allele in the offspring:
1 (A_) × 1 (B_) × 1/2 (D_) × 1/2 (E_) = 1/4 = 0.25Final answer:
The probability that the first offspring will show the dominant phenotype for all loci is 0.25 or 0.25000 when rounded to five decimal places. This is determined by multiplying the probability of inheriting the dominant alleles from the paired loci of the parents' genotypes.
Explanation:
The probability that the first offspring from the cross listed will show the dominant phenotype for all loci can be calculated using principles of Mendelian genetics and the Punnett square. To have the dominant phenotype for all loci, each offspring must inherit at least one dominant allele for every gene from their parents.
For locus A: since one parent is AA and the other is Aa, there is a 100% chance of getting at least one dominant A allele.
For locus B: one parent is bb and the other BB, so the offspring will have Bb genotype and show the dominant phenotype for B.
For locus D: the parents are Dd and dd, thus the probability of offspring having at least one dominant D allele is 1/2.
For locus E: the parent genotypes are ee and Ee, so the probability of offspring having at least one dominant E allele is 1/2.
Now, multiplying these probabilities together: 1 (A) x 1 (B) x 1/2 (D) x 1/2 (E) = 1/4 or 0.25.
To obtain five decimal places as requested, we represent 0.25 as 0.25000.
Which replacement for the boldfaced sentence is best?
The rangers put out the forest fire that was burning quickly. It took them only a few minutes.
A) The rangers put out the forest fire that was quickly burning.
B) The rangers put out the forest fire that quickly was burning.
C) The rangers put out the forest fire that was burning quickly.
D) The rangers quickly put out the forest fire
Answer:
The correct option is D) The rangers quickly put out the forest fire
Explanation:
The statement D, ' the rangers quickly put out the forest fire' best describes the statements 'The rangers put out the forest fire that was burning quickly. It took them only a few minutes.'
Statement D tends to be short and more accurate to describe the scenario mentioned in the question. Hence, it can be considered to be the best replacement which is short and accurate.
Air pollution only occurs as a result of human activity
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T or F
Need answer ASAP
Answer: False.
Explanation:
Air pollution occur when harmful substances or gases are released into the air which is harmful to humans, plants and animals.
It is not all human activities that lead to air pollution , some are of natural sources.
The non human activity that lead to air pollution are dust and wildfire, dust occur when a vast land is been swept or blown by wind,volcanic eruption which lead to release of particulate substances,animal digestion I.e digestion of food eaten by animals especially cattle lead to release of methane as waste product which cause air pollution e.t.c