The answer is species diversity. Hope this works!
Explain why a white fence appears to be white in your answer include the colors of light that your eye detects and tell how your brain interprets those colors
Answer:
all of the above
Explanation:
Consider a population of killer whales. The gene pool of this population would only contain alleles harboring beneficial or neutral mutations, as deleterious mutations are efficiently eliminated from the gene pool of a species.FalseTrue
Answer:
The statement given in the question is FALSE.
Explanation:
The gene pool of all populations of living organisms contain alleles that habour beneficial, harmful and neutral mutations and any of these mutations can be expressed at anytime. A mutation is said to be beneficial if it increases the ability of the organism to survive; it is described as neutral if it does not impact any change. A harmful mutation on the other hand is one that impact the living organism negatively.
If the binding of the CAP-cAMP complex promotes transcription of the induced lac operon, then how does the negative control of the lac operon by glucose function through the CAP-cAMP complex? See Section 18.3 (Page 373) . When glucose concentration is high, the concentration of CAP and the complex are high. When glucose concentration is high, the concentration of CAP and the complex are high. When glucose concentration is high, the concentration of cAMP and the complex are low. When glucose concentration is high, the concentration of cAMP and the complex are high.
When glucose concentration is high, the concentration of cAMP and the complex are low.
What would be the drug of choice in an adolescent who is diagnosed with syphilis during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Answer:
Penicillin G
Explanation:
I remember this vaguely, remove or whatever if wrong.
Using the rule of 10 percent in energy transfer, record the species names for each trophic level and the amount of energy available at that level if your producer level had 3,500,000 kilocalories of energy/area.
To not make it very complicated we can take only three species that will include producer, consumer of the producer, and a predator. We can take the grass, deer, and cougar.
The grass is the producer, and it is the one that has 3,500,000 kilocalories of energy/area. The deer eats the grass, thus gets energy from it, but only 10%, thus the deer will get 350,000 kilcalories of energy/area. The cougar is a predator, and it hunts the deer. When the cougar kills a deer and consumes it, the cougar will get 10% of the energy that the deer got, thus the cougar will get 35,000 kilocalories of energy/area.
In an ecosystem using the rule of 10% energy transfer, the producers receive the full 3,500,000 kilocalories of energy, the primary consumers receive 350,000 kilocalories, the secondary consumers receive 35,000 kilocalories, and the tertiary consumers receive 3,500 kilocalories.
Explanation:Using the rule of 10 percent in energy transfer, an ecosystem with a producer level that had 3,500,000 kilocalories of energy would distribute that energy across various trophic levels as follows:
Producers: (Grasses, algae, etc.) receive the full 3,500,000 kilocalories. Primary consumers (Herbivores like rabbits, deer) receive 10% of previous level, thus, 350,000 kilocalories. Secondary consumers (Small carnivores like foxes): receive 10% of primary consumers, thus, 35,000 kilocalories. Tertiary consumers (Large carnivores like lions): receive 10% of secondary consumers, thus, 3,500 kilocalories.
It's essential to remember that energy is lost in the ecosystem from one trophic level to the next, primarily due to the metabolic heat generated by the organisms at each level. This thermal energy cannot be utilized for growth or reproduction, thereby decreasing the energy available for the succeeding consumer level.
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Active transport occurs when molecules are moved across a semi-permeable membrane and
a concentration gradient.
A)down
B)up
the answer would be B (up)
I think the answer is B UP
Most populations demonstrate _____ growth, in which the population size increases exponentially until it levels off near the k value of the habitat for that species. intrinsic logarithmic logistic exponential extrinsic
Exponential growth then logistic growth as it levels off due to carrying capacity
The thick muscular layer of the uterus is the
The thick muscular layer of the uterus is known as the myometrium. It is the middle and thickest layer of the uterus wall and is made up mostly of smooth muscle.
What is the function of the myometrium?The function of the myometrium is that it generally holds the structural integrity of the uterus. It also generates force for parturition with the help of smooth muscle cells, components of the myometrium.
There are three different layers of the uterus are there. The outermost layer is known as the Perimetrium. It is the protective layer of the uterus.
The second layer is known as the myometrium which expands during pregnancy and contracts to push the baby out at the time of delivery. The inner layer of the uterus is known as the endometrium.
Therefore, the myometrium is the thick muscular layer of the uterus.
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The thick muscular layer of the uterus is known as the myometrium. This layer, part of the three-layered structure of the uterus wall, is responsible for uterine contractions. The uterus supports the developing embryo and fetus during pregnancy.
Explanation:The thick muscular layer of the uterus is the myometrium. The uterus wall is structured into three layers. The innermost layer is the endometrium, rich in blood vessels and mucus glands. The outermost layer is the perimetrium, a serous membrane composed of epithelial tissue. The myometrium, the middle layer, is a thick layer of smooth muscle responsible for uterine contractions during labor and menstrual cycles.
Contractions in the myometrium possibly also facilitate the transport of sperm through the female reproductive tract. The structure of the uterus, about the size of a woman's fist, plays a vital role in supporting the developing embryo and fetus during gestation.
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Ellis-van Creveld syndrome is a rare homozygous recessive disorder that affects bone growth. Individuals with this disorder are characterized by dwarfism, polydactyly, heart defects, and other symptoms. The recessive allele that causes it is extremely common in the Amish community of Lancaster County, Pennsylvania, and in the indigenous population of Western Australia. For example, the birth rate of this disorder in Lancaster County is 1 in every 5000 births ( compared to 1 in every 150,000 births worldwide). a) Approximately what percent of the Amish population are heterozygous carriers of the allele for Ellis-van Creveld syndrome? b) What percentage is homozygous dominant?
Answer:
1. 2.8%
2. 97.1%
Explanation:
If the birth rate of this disorder is 1 in every 5000 births it means that the frequency of the recessive homozygous genotype is 1/5000=0.0002If we name the gene for the disorder with A, than the genotypes are aa (homozugous recessive), Aa (heterozygous, carrier), AA (dominant homozygous).
According to the Hardy-Weinberg equation:
frequency of AA is p2 (P)
frequency of Aa is 2pq
frequency of aa is q2 (Q) and
p2+2pq+q2=1 (P+Q=1)
Q=0.0002 P=1-0.0002=0.9998
q= [tex]\sqrt[/tex]0.0002=0.014
p=[tex]\sqrt[/tex]0.9998=0.999
2pq=0.028=2.8%
2. According to the Hardy-Weinberg equation:
frequency of AA is p2 (P)
frequency of Aa is 2pq
frequency of aa is q2 (Q) and
p2+2pq+q2=1 (P+Q=1)
The frequency of the recessive homozygous genotype (Q) is 1/5000=0.0002
Q=0.0002
q2=0.0002 2pq=0.028 p2=?
p2= 1-0.0002-0.028 =0.9718=97.1%
Final answer:
Approximately 0.1% of the Amish population are heterozygous carriers of the allele for Ellis-van Creveld syndrome, and approximately 99.2% are homozygous dominant.
Explanation:The percentage of the Amish population that are heterozygous carriers of the allele for Ellis-van Creveld syndrome can be estimated using the Hardy-Weinberg equation. The formula for heterozygote frequency is 2 * p * q, where p represents the frequency of the dominant allele and q represents the frequency of the recessive allele. In this case, since the disorder is rare and the recessive allele is common in the Amish population, we can assume that [tex]q^2[/tex] quals the frequency of the disorder in the population. The frequency of the recessive allele, q, is then the square root of [tex]q^2[/tex]which is 1 in every 200 births. Thus, the frequency of the dominant allele, p, is 1 - q, which is 1 - (1/200) or 199/200. The heterozygote frequency is 2 * p * q, which is 2 * (199/200) * (1/200) or approximately 0.1%.
The percentage of the Amish population that is homozygous dominant can be estimated by squaring the frequency of the dominant allele, p. In this case, p is 199/200, so the homozygous dominant frequency is [tex](199/200)^2[/tex]ately 99.2%.
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Does anyone know the answers for Connexus "Biology B: Unit 5: Lesson 2: Biology semester B test?"
While specific test answers cannot be provided, studying resources such as OpenStax's 'Concepts of Biology' and Kamala Doršner's 'Essentials of Environmental Science' can help build the necessary knowledge for a Biology semester B test.
Explanation:As a tutor, I cannot provide specific answers to test questions from Connexus Biology B: Unit 5: Lesson 2: Biology semester B test or any other test, as it would be against educational policies and ethical standards. However, you can enhance your understanding of the topics by studying related materials from reputable sources. For instance, the OpenStax College resource, Concepts of Biology, can be very helpful as it covers fundamental biological concepts and is available under a Creative Commons license.
Essential topics such as human biology, chemistry of life, nutrition, cells, and DNA and protein synthesis are all crucial for a strong foundation in biology. Reviewing these chapters and using other supplied resources like Essentials of Environmental Science by Kamala Doršner or the video on Branches of Biology can increase your comprehension and prepare you for the types of questions that may appear on your test.
I also recommend focusing on developing a deeper understanding of the material by engaging with the AP Biology Curriculum Framework, posing scientific questions for cause-and-effect relationships, and practicing with test banks that correlate questions to varying levels of Bloom's Taxonomy for a comprehensive study approach.
Which of the following sequences can be found in the core promoter of RNA polymerase II? Select all that apply.
A. InrB. BREC. EnhancerD. DPE
Answer:
A. Inr, B. BRE, D. DPE
Explanation:
Core promoter of RNA polymerase II is a sequence of DNA that initiates transcription (contains the transcription start sites). Core promoter is usually 60 to 120 base pairs and in its structure it contains a binding site for RNA polymerase and also structural motifs such as Inr, BRE, DPE, TATA box etc. involved in the regulation of transcription (e.g. binding of enhancers).
The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic actions, or opposing actions are A) motor and sensory. B) sympathetic and parasympathetic. C) presynaptic and postsynaptic.D) forebrain and hindbrain. E) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
Answer:
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic
Explanation:
e autonomic nervous system also called the vegetative nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system which inervates smooth muscle and glands. Thus, it directly affects the function of internal organs and regulates functions such as the heart rate, digestion, respiratory rate, urination etc. This nervous system control is unconscious.
The autonomic nervous system is divided into: the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system and the enteric nervous system.
Parasympathetic nervous system works when organism is at rest so it is known as system responsible for "rest and digest functions". On the other hand, sympathetic nervous system works at active and stressful situations and it is known as "fight and flight" system.
You perform a series of experiments on the synthesis of the pituitary hormone prolactin, which is a single polypeptide chain 199 amino acids long. the mrna coding for prolactin is translated in a cell-free protein synthesizing system containing ribosomes, amino acids, trnas, aminoacyl-trna synthetases, atp, gtp, and the appropriate initiation, elongation, and termination factors. under these conditions, a polypeptide chain 227 amino acids long is produced.
Answer:
the answer is dont look it up anymore figure it out
Explanation:
What kind of analysis focuses on the order in which derived characters appeared in organisms?
Answer:
cladistic analysis
Explanation:
Cladistic classification is classification in which organisms are put in group based on their shared characteristics and the most recent common ancestor. So, organisms of the same group are are closely related. Cladistic analysis are methods for the estimation of relationships among organisms and it includes the use of data on the traits of those organisms. The result of cladistic analysis is a diagram-tree which is called cladogram. Cladogram represents relations among organisms.
Cladistics is the analysis focusing on the sequence of derived character emergence in organisms, using homologous traits and the principle of maximum parsimony to construct phylogenetic trees, reflecting evolutionary relationships.
Explanation:The type of analysis that focuses on the order in which derived characters appeared in organisms is cladistics. Cladistics involves organizing organisms into clades, which are groups that descended from a single ancestor. This method pays particular attention to homologous traits, which indicate shared evolutionary history. Using cladistics, scientists apply the concept of maximum parsimony to determine the simplest and most probable evolutionary pathway. This pathway is one with the fewest major divergences but is well supported by the available evidence.
In practice, phylogenetic trees are constructed to visualize these relationships and the emergence of derived traits relative to ancestral ones. The relative appearance of these traits helps scientists to understand the sequence of evolutionary events. Hence, when reconstructing a phylogeny for organisms based on characteristics such as their circulatory system traits, those with the most primitive features would appear towards the base of the tree, while derived features would place an organism higher on the tree.
Which of the following is NOT a major urine formation process?A) tubular secretionB) micturitionC) glomerular filtrationD) tubular reabsorption
Answer:b
Explanation:the others don’t make sense
Describe the components of the peripheral nervous system and central nervous system and explain how they work together in your body.
The CNS processes information and makes decisions using the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS transmits signals between the CNS and the rest of the body, controlling voluntary and involuntary actions, and creating a feedback loop for continuous communication.
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) and central nervous system (CNS) are two main parts of the nervous system that work in tandem to control the functions of the body.
The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord. It is responsible for processing information and making decisions. The brain is the center of thought, emotion, memory, and decision-making, while the spinal cord serves as a conduit for signals between the brain and the rest of the body.
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is composed of all the nerves that branch out from the brain and spinal cord and extend to other parts of the body, including the limbs and organs. The PNS is divided into the somatic nervous system, which controls voluntary movements and actions, and the autonomic nervous system, which regulates involuntary responses such as heart rate, digestion, and respiration.
The autonomic nervous system is further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems, which generally have opposite effects on target organs, such as increasing or decreasing heart rate.
The CNS and PNS work together as follows:
1. Sensory Input: Sensory receptors in the PNS detect stimuli from inside or outside the body and send this information to the CNS via sensory neurons.
2. Integration and Processing: The CNS receives sensory information, interprets it, and determines an appropriate response. This involves complex neural networks and can include conscious thought processes in the brain.
3. Motor Output: Once a decision is made, the CNS sends out commands through motor neurons in the PNS to effector organs (muscles and glands), which take action based on the CNS's instructions.
4. Feedback Loop: The effects of these actions are then monitored by the PNS, which sends feedback to the CNS, creating a continuous loop of communication that allows the nervous system to adjust its responses as necessary.
Sometimes critics charge that evolution is based on mere speculation because it cannot be directly observed or experimentally induced. Is this true of evolution by natural selection?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
When scientists speak of evolution as a theory they do not mean that it is a mere speculation. It is a theory in the same sense as the propositions that the earth is round rather than flat or that our bodies are made of atoms are theories. Most people would consider such fundamental theories to be sufficiently tested by empirical evidence to conclude that they are indeed facts. As a result of the massive amount of evidence for biological evolution accumulated over the last two centuries, we can safely conclude that evolution has occurred and continues to occur. All life forms, including humans, evolved from earlier species, and all still living species of organisms continue to evolve today. They are not unchanging end-products.
Evolution by natural selection is one of the best substantiated theories in the history of science, supported by evidence from a wide variety of scientific disciplines, including paleontology, geology, genetics and developmental biology.
The assertion that evolution by natural selection is based purely on speculation is not accurate. In science, the 'theory of evolution' is a thoroughly validated explanation of natural events that have been extensively tested and supported over time. Although large-scale evolutionary changes, like the formation of new species, occur over periods longer than a human lifespan and can't be directly observed, we have indeed witnessed instances of evolutionary processes.
Explanation:The criticism that evolution by natural selection is based on mere speculation and cannot be experimentally induced or directly observed is a misunderstanding of what a scientific theory represents. In scientific terms, a theory like the 'theory of evolution,' is a well-founded explanation of natural phenomena that has been tested and validated over time.
It's not 'just a theory' in the everyday vernacular sense of a guess or speculation. In fact, there is extensive support for this theory in multiple fields of science, including genetics, paleontology and biogeography. Further, the majority of working scientists back the theory of evolution.
When critics claim that evolution is not observable, it's essential to clarify that while we cannot directly observe large-scale changes like the formation of new species (since it happens over extended periods), we indeed can and have observed instances of evolutionary processes, such as antibiotic resistance in bacteria and changes in species in response to environmental pressures.
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What is the number of oxygen atoms in molecular oxygen and in ozone.
three
Ozone (O3) is a triatomic, molecule, consisting of three oxygen atoms. Ozone in the upper atmosphere protects living organisms by preventing damaging ultraviolet light from reaching the Earth's surface. O3 is the formula for ozone. It has three oxygen atoms.
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There is a liquid capsule inside a cup full of liquid. The cup full of liquid has salt in it and the liquid capsule has no salt in it. In which direction will the solvent flow?
A. From the capsule to the larger cup
B. From the larger cup to the capsule
C. Equally between the capsule and the cup
D. The salt does not have to move
Answer:
A. From the capsule to the larger cup
Explanation:
Solvent movement occurs from region of higher concentration to that of its lower concentration. In the given example, the liquid capsule has higher solvent concentration since it does not have solute. Presence of solute in larger cup makes it hypertonic solution with respect to the liquid inside cup. Hence, solvent will move from hypotonic solution (liquid in capsule) to hypertonic solution.
The solvent, which is water, will move from the larger saltwater-filled cup to the capsule with no salt, due to osmotic pressure driving water towards the higher concentration of solutes inside the capsule.
Explanation:The direction in which the solvent will flow when there is a liquid capsule with no salt in it inside a cup full of salt-containing liquid is based on osmotic principles. The solvent, in this case water, will naturally move from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration in an attempt to equalize the solute concentration on both sides of the membrane. Since the liquid inside the capsule has no salt, it has a higher water concentration compared to the saltwater in the cup. Therefore, the correct answer is:
B. From the larger cup to the capsule
This is due to the osmotic pressure that drives water towards the area with a higher concentration of solutes, which would be the inside of the salt-free capsule. The process of water moving across a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution to a more concentrated solution is known as osmosis.
Which of the following sensory receptors is incorrectly paired with its category?a. Hair cell - mechanoreceptorb. Snake pit organ - thermoreceptorc. Taste receptor - chemoreceptord. Olfactory receptor - electromagnetic receptor
Answer:
Olfactory receptor - electromagnetic receptor
Explanation:
Olfactory receptors (smell receptors, odorant receptors) are chemoreceptors, responsible for the detection of smell. Olfactory receptors are located in the olfactory receptor cells (neurons) in the nasal cavity. Odor molecules attach for the cilia, extensions of the olfactory receptor cells. As a consequence, activated olfactory receptors start signal transduction and thus transmit information about odor to the brain.
If blonde hair is dominant and designated as "b" and brunette hair is recessive and designated as "b," probability would predict that if a couple each with a "bb" hair color genotype had four children, _____ would have blonde hair.
Plummet squares help here: 4 children and dominant so 75% would probably have blonde hair. Sorry if it is wrong there are no answer choices so...
~ Destiny ^_^
If both parents were to pass on their brunette hair genes (with genotype 'bb') all their children will have brunette hair given that brunette is the recessive trait and can only be expressed when both genes are present.
Explanation:In genetics the dominant trait is the one that will appear even if an individual only has one copy of the dominant gene (in this case, blonde hair). The recessive trait (brunette hair in this case) will only appear if the individual has two copies of that gene. In the scenario presented both parents have the recessive brunette gene hence the genotype is 'bb' for both. Given this information if a couple each with a 'bb' hair color genotype had four children all these children would inherit the 'bb' genotype. Therefore assuming the traits for hair color follow simple Mendelian inheritance all children would be expected to have brunette hair. It's important to highlight that environmental factors and the possibility of mutations could potentially influence these outcomes to some extent but that's beyond the scope of this question.
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The diagram shows the moon and Earth in space.
Which is the best label for the dotted-line arrow?
force of Earth’s gravity
moon’s attraction to the Sun
moon’s motion without gravity
orbit of the moon around Earth
Moon is moving in a straight line. FORCE of INERTIA resists change of straight line movement.
The answer is A. Force of Earth's gravity
Moon's motion without Gravity, Atleast I think. The reason being because it leaves the earth's gravity field because the yellow line is it's rotation.
A scientist investigated DNA replication in two groups of cells, labeled A and B. She injected radioactively labeled nucleotides into cells of each group and allowed DNA replication to begin. When replication was halfway completed, she injected a drug into the cells to stop replication. She then examined the cells to determine the distribution of the newly-synthesized DNA. She found each cell of group A had many segments of new DNA in its nucleus, while each cell of group B had a single segment of new DNA in its cytoplasm. What can the researcher conclude about the cells? A. Group B cells are eukaryotic because they must have a single origin of replication. B. The cells in group A are eukaryotic because they replicate their DNA in the cytoplasm or nucleus. C. Group A cells are prokaryotic because they must have many origins of replication. D. The cells in group B are prokaryotic because they replicate their DNA in the cytoplasm.
Answer:
D. The cells in group B are prokaryotic because they replicate their DNA in the cytoplasm.
Explanation:
The cells of group A are prokaryotic because it is prokaryotes which do not have a double membranous structure called nucleus for storing their genetic material. The genetic material of prokaryotes is spread in the cytoplasm in the form of a circular DNA which is called as nucleoid. Since they do not have a separate organelle like nucleus for storage of their genetic material, they are bound to replicate their DNA in the cytoplasm. In contrast to prokaryotes, eukaryotes have nucleus for storage of their genetic material and in eukaryotes replication is an exclusively nuclear event.
Answer:
D is correct
Explanation:
Wildlife can be scarce in many large, densely populated cities. A few plants and animals can be found in these areas. For example, rats, mice, pigeons, cockroaches, and other insects are common in cities. Trees can grow by sidewalks or in local parks. Some cities even have small populations of coyotes within city limits. Do you think these cities meet the definition of an ecosystem? Explain your reasoning.
the answer for PLATO is:
"Yes, because these organisms likely depend on each other for survival. For example, plants and grasses can make food for insects and other small animals, such as rats. Carnivores can eat the small animals and obtain energy from them. Humans are also living things, sk they contribute to the ecosystems of these organisms. They can provide food for rats and insects. Humans can also water the plants"
Paraphrase that as you will.
Answer:
Yes, because these organisms likely depend on each other for survival. For example, plants and grasses can make food for insects and other small animals, such as rats. Carnivores can eat the small animals and obtain energy from them. Humans are also living things, sk they contribute to the ecosystems of these organisms. They can provide food for rats and insects. Humans can also water the plants
Explanation:
How is a species added to the endangered species list
Answer:
When there is a huge influence of factor (or more factors) that affect the survival of the species.
Explanation:
List of Endangered and Threatened species is a list of living organisms that need protection.
endangered means it the species is in danger of extinctionthreatened means that the species is in the stadium before becoming endangeredFactors that affect the survival of the species are:
destruction or modification of their habitat (usually under the influence of human activity)diseasehigh predation influence overutilization of an animal or plant (for comercial, educational or other purposes)natural disasters etc.Kisspeptin is a protein in humans that has an important role in initiating secretion of the releasing factor gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Endocrinologists are finding that the protein kisspeptin and its receptor are central to sexual maturation at puberty. Neurons that release kisspeptin carry estrogen receptors. If this is a negative feedback system, high levels of estrogen would be expected to: decrease kisspeptin synthesis. increase kisspeptin synthesis. neither increase nor decrease kisspeptin synthesis because steroid hormones do not affect protein synthesis.
Answer:
decrease kisspeptin synthesis
Explanation:
Kisspeptin is a protein involved in the regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH): it stimulates the secretion of GnRH. GnRH than stimulate the release of gonadotropins such as follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland. FSH stimulates the production of estrogens by the granulosa cells of the ovarian follicles.
In negative feedback system, high levels of estrogen will bind to their receptors on neurons that release kisspeptin and inhibit its further release.
High levels of estrogen would decrease kisspeptin synthesis in a negative feedback system by signaling the body to maintain hormone balance.
Explanation:If kisspeptin neurons have estrogen receptors and are part of a negative feedback system, then high levels of estrogen would be expected to decrease kisspeptin synthesis. This is because in a negative feedback system, when the levels of a hormone (in this case, estrogen) are high, it typically signals the body to reduce the production of the hormone or the initiators of its production to maintain homeostasis. Therefore, in this scenario, increased estrogen would lead to a decrease in kisspeptin production, which in turn would lead to a decrease in the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), ultimately reducing the secretion of gonadotropins like Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
What are the benefits of cyclic electron flow in photosynthesis?
Result in the formation of ATP
Three generations of a family afflicted with hemophilia are illustrated in the pedigree chart. Family members used the pedigree chart and the laws of genetics to predict the occurrence of the disease. From the information in the chart, one can determine that hemophilia is
Answer: genetic mutation maybe?
Explanation: i know that it is a genetic mutation and that it is passed from mothers to children, not from the father. the queen held the trait in her DNA and all the male children had it but the queen never showed any signs of having hemophilia
Answer:
sex-linked and occurs more in males than females.
Explanation:
In sex-linked traits, a common pattern you see is that the trait occurs more in males than females! Hope this helps! :)
25 points each!!
How might an organism benefit by carrying out fermentation instead of cellular respiration?
Answer:
it gives you more energy quicker
Explanation:
Fermentation makes it possible for cells to continue generating ATP through glycolysis.
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Ciprofloxacin inhibits DNA gyrase, a bacterial topoisomerase that cuts DNA ahead of the replication fork, winds the DNA in a direction that relieves the twists added during DNA synthesis, and then reseals the DNA. In ciprofloxacin-treated bacteria, newly synthesized DNA is found in fragments. Based on this evidence, what activity of DNA gyrase is likely to be inhibited by ciprofloxacin? ligase activity. DNA polymerase activity. primase activity. helicase activity
Answer:
ligase activity
Explanation:
This is because ligase has the role to connect DNA fragments.
DNA gyrase is one of the enzymes involved in prokaryotic DNA replication. It introduces negative supercoils into DNA and for this process ATP is required. This enables the process of replication to continue.