Red bone marrow, thymus; sites where stem cells become immunocompetent
A. Chyle
B. Lacteal
C. Lymph
D. Primary lymphatic organs
E. Secondary lymphatic organs

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Primary lymphatic organs

Explanation:

Primary lymphoid organ is the site of formation and maturation of lymphocyte. These lymphoid organs provide proper environment for the maturation of immune cells.

The primary lymphoid organ are red bone marrow and thymus. B- cells born and mature in the bone marrow. T cells from the site of origin migrate to the thymus for the maturation.

Thus, the correct answer is option (D).

Answer 2
Final answer:

The red bone marrow and the thymus are considered primary lymphatic organs because they are the places where stem cells differentiate and mature into immunocompetent cells. The red bone marrow is where all blood cells originate and the thymus is where T lymphocytes mature.

Explanation:

The red bone marrow and the thymus are both considered to be primary lymphatic organs. This is because they are the locations where stem cells differentiate and become immunocompetent, or capable of responding to specific antigens to defend the body.

Specifically, the red bone marrow is where all blood cells, including lymphocytes, originate. The thymus, on the other hand, is where T lymphocytes mature. These organs fit the definition of primary lymphatic organs more than chyle, lacteal, lymph, or secondary lymphatic organs, as stem cells don't become immunocompetent in these locations.

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Related Questions

Where are Peyer's patches found?
A) duodenum of the small intestine
B) ileum of the small intestine
C) large intestine
D) jejunum of the small intestine

Answers

Answer:

Option (B).

Explanation:

Peyer's patches are the small masses of aggregated small lymphatic tissues and provide immunity to an organism. Peyer patches are discovered by the scientiest Johannan Cornard Peyer.

Peyer's patches are located in the ileum region of small intestine. These patches control the growth of harmful bacteria and regulates the growth of intestine bacteria. T

Thus, the correct answer is option (B).

Final answer:

Peyer's patches are found in the ileum of the small intestine, specifically concentrated in the distal ileum, and are important for immune function in the gut.

Explanation:

Peyer's patches, which are part of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), are found in the ileum of the small intestine. These structures are lymphoid nodules that extend from the mucosa layer into the submucosa layer and play a crucial role in the body's immune response by sampling and responding to antigens present in the intestinal lumen. They are most prominent in the distal ileum and contain B lymphocytes in their germinal centers, along with T lymphocytes in the zones between follicles. Peyer's patches are covered by follicle-associated epithelium, which contains fewer goblet cells and includes specialized cells called microfold or M cells, which facilitate the uptake and transport of antigens.

List the functions of the cell membrane proteins.

Answers

Answer:

Membrane receptor proteins

Transport proteins

Membrane enzymes

Explanation:

hope that helps

Which cranial nerve moves the eye left to right?

Answers

Answer: The four cranial nerves involved in vision and movement of the eyes are the optic (I) nerve, oculomotor (III) nerve, trochlear (IV) nerve and the abducen (VI) nerve.

A neuron is stimulated with an electric pulse. The action potential is detected at a point 3.70 cm down the axon 0.0052 s later.When the action potential is detected 7.20 cm from the point of stimulation, the time required is 0.0063 s. What is the speed of the electric pulse along the axon? (Why are two measurements needed instead of only one?)

Answers

Answer:

[tex]32 \frac{meter}{sec}[/tex]

Explanation:

Speed is defined as the distance traveled per unit time.

Distance traveled is equal to the difference between the initial and final position of the neuron.

Speed can be derived from under given equation -

[tex]\frac{delta (x)}{delta (t)}\\[/tex]

Where delta x is the change in distance

delta t is the change in time.

Substituting the given values in above equation we get -

[tex]\frac{\frac{7.20}{100} -\frac{3.70}{100} }{0.0063-0.0052} \frac{meter}{sec} \\= 31.81 \frac{meter}{sec} \\[/tex]

[tex]= 32 \frac{meter}{sec}[/tex]

There can be a time delay between the point of neuron stimulation to detection of action potential. Hence, two measurements are  needed.

What is Heimlich maneuver and why is it performed?

Answers

Answer:

The Heimlich maneuver is a procedure used to help a choking person who is conscious and unable to talk. The Heimlich maneuver pushes air out of the person's lungs and makes him cough. The force of the cough may then move the object out of his airway.

What is the papillary response of the right eye when a light was shone into the pupil?

Answers

Final answer:

The papillary response of the right eye is the constriction of the pupil when a light is shone into it.

Explanation:

The papillary response of the right eye when a light is shone into the pupil is the constriction of the pupil. This is called the pupillary light reflex. When light enters the eye, it stimulates the photoreceptor cells in the retina. The information is then sent to the brain through the optic nerve, which triggers a response in the muscles of the iris to constrict the pupil. This helps regulate the amount of light entering the eye and protects the retina from excessive light exposure.

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What tissue type has polarity and is avascular?

Answers

Answer:

Epithelia has polarity and is avascular.

What plane divides the body into front and back portions?

Answers

The coronal plane should be the correct answer

K... lets break this down... LOL Verified answers be like  

its coronal!

Lymphatic vessels remove excess fluid from tissues. Often after mammexront( the surgical procedure to remove of all or part of a breast) the lymphatic vessels draining the arm are damaged. Explain a consequence of this damage. What can be done to reduce the symptoms?

Answers

when the lymphatic vessels are damaged they will not be able to remove all the excess interstitial fluid from tissues. So edema is seen in the arm of that person because there is excess fluid in the interstitium.

Ways to reduce edema would be movement and elevation of that area(your arm) compressing and messaging it. These all help with the fluid entering the lymphatic vessels and leaving the interstitium. Another important factor is reducing ur salt intake so the edema doesn’t progress.

John is 17 and has been drinking heavily since he was 12. He drinks almost every day, but when he is particularly anxious, he drinks until he passes out. His father and his grandfather were diagnosed with alcohol use disorder; his father died of liver failure when John was 14. His mother and older brother do not drink at all, and they have always told John that he is the family’s black sheep, the rebellious one who is destined to be like his father. John feels that he has no idea who he is and is in desperate search of a self-identity. Based on the multipath model, write a brief essay considering the causes of John's behavior. Are genetics to blame? Early childhood experience? Problems with cognition/thought distortion? Wider society? There is no length requirement. Please make sure you address the issues and defend your opinion thoroughly.

Answers

Answer:

John is clearly going through a lot. There's many things that could of cause drinking at a young age. To really know the cause of the heavy use, we need to go back when he was 12. I don't believe this was really caused by genetics.  although the dad and grandfather was drinking, this is a learnt behavior. Children tend to follow a parent's path in life. being around drinking as a kid, can have deep impacts on a child's development. this could have of all started when his dad left an open beer out one day. This is the same with children who is around smoking parents. Although they might say "Don't ever smoke", the children is gonna end up smoking if something doesn't stop. When john's father died, it could of had another really serious impact on him. Plus, we dont know if there was any abusive behaviors going on. I dont think that drinking is the main issue in this case. Im not a psychologist, but i notice early signs of depression and possibly death. I do notice signs of an anxiety disorder also. I feel as if john's mother is adding on to the problem, by not supporting him and being there for him.

Explanation:

Final answer:

The causes of John's behavior relate to genetics, early childhood experiences, cognition/thought distortion, and wider society.

Explanation:

The causes of John's behavior can be attributed to a combination of factors. Genetics plays a role, as both his father and grandfather were diagnosed with alcohol use disorder. Early childhood experiences, such as growing up in a family where alcohol misuse and negative labels were present, can also contribute. Additionally, problems with cognition and thought distortion, particularly related to anxiety, may drive John to drink excessively. Lastly, wider society and the stigma associated with being the 'black sheep' of the family may affect John's self-identity and exacerbate his behavior.

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The only neurotransmitter used for signaling by the Purkinje neurons is ________.
a) glutamate
b) glycine
c) dopamine
d) GABA

Answers

Answer:

GABA

Explanation:

Purkinje neurons are located in the cerebellar cortex of an organism. These neurons receive impulse from the granule cells. These neurons were discovered by the czech scientiest Purkyne.

GABA ( Gamma amino butyric acid) is the only transmitter used by the purkinje cells for signalling. The GABA neurotransmitter blocks the neurotransmission and shows the inhibitory actions on cells.

Thus, the correct answer is option (D).

Which of these is characteristic of the photic zone of a freshwater biome?the presence of algaerelatively cool waterelatively stable water temperaturedead organic matterlow oxygen level

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is this: THE PRESENCE OF ALGAE.

Explanation:

Freshwater biome refers to bodies of water that contain relatively small amount of salt (typically about 1%) in comparison with the ocean. Examples of freshwater include: lake, ponds, streams, rivers, etc.

The freshwater biome is usually divided into different zones depending on the water depth and the amount of sunlight that is available at each depth.

The photic zone is the first layer of the water body, which receives direct sunlight. The large quantity of sunlight receive by this zone make it possible for photosynthesis to take place in the region.

This zone is very important because it made up of plants such as algae and phytoplankton, which are primary producers of the biome; the rest of the living creature in the water bodies depend on these plants to survive.  

Which of the following is a dihybrid cross?a. RrMM Rrmmb. RRMM rrmmc. RrMm RrMmd. rrMM RRmme. RrMm rrmm

Answers

Answer:

c. RrMm x  RrMm

Explanation:

A dihybrid genotype is the one that is heterozygous for two genes. Hence, a dihybrid cross is a cross between two individuals that are hybrid for alleles of two different loci.

Among the given examples, the cross RrMm x RrMm is a dihybrid cross. Here, both given genotypes are heterozygous or hybrid for two loci (both genotypes have one dominant and one recessive allele for both the genes under study, R and r; M and m).

This cross explains the inheritance of two loci or two genetic traits. Hence, it is an example of dihybrid cross.

The hippocampus is necessary for __________, connecting memories of objects through space and time.
a) relational memory
b) object recognition memory
c) double dissociation memory
d) classical conditioning

Answers

Answer:

c) double dissociation memory

Explanation:

The hippocampus is necessary for double dissociation memory, connecting memories of objects through space and time.

Final answer:

The hippocampus is essential for relational memory, allowing for the connection of memories across time and space, different than object recognition memory, double dissociation memory, or classical conditioning. So the correct option is a.

Explanation:

The hippocampus is necessary for relational memory, which is the ability to connect memories of objects through space and time. Relational memory enables us to understand how different pieces of information are related to one another, such as recognizing an environment and remembering the events that happened there. While the hippocampus is involved with various forms of memory, including declarative and episodic memory as well as recognition memory, learning and recall that involve linking together stimuli, such as those we experience over time and space, are crucially dependent on the hippocampus. This distinguishes relational memory from other types like object recognition memory (which involves recognizing objects but not necessarily placing them in spatial or temporal context), double dissociation memory (a concept that deals with how different parts of the brain are specialized for different functions), and classical conditioning (a form of learning involving stimuli, which primarily involves the cerebellum).

Which of the following is not a prerequisite for continuous aerobic production of ATP?
a. acetyl COA must be present
b NAD and FAD must be available
c. oxygen must be present in the tissues
d. cellular enzymes must be present in sufficient concentration
e. all the above are necessary

Answers

Answer:

E

Explanation:

Aerobic respiration mainly occurs in the mitochondria of the cell and is known as the Krebs/Citric acid cycle. It begins when pyruvate from anaerobic respiration in the cytoplasm which is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle. Acetyl-CoA is transformed and the energy in its bond used to enable oxidation of NADH and FADH2. The H+ ions are pumped to the mitochondrial intermembrane space. The generated proton motive force is then used to generate ATPs by ATP synthase enzyme. Oxygen becomes the ultimate proton acceptor which is reduced to water. This whole process is facilitated by enzymes in the cell such as dehydrogenases.

What is the structural unit of compact bone?

Answers

Answer:

Osteon is the structural unit of compact bone.

Explanation:

Compact bone is present around the medullary cavity and forms the external layer of the bones. Compact bone is made up of structural units called osteon.

Osteon is also known as haversian sysytem. Osteons contain mineral matrix and connencted by canaliculi. Osteons helps in the transportation of blood. Osteonic canal is known as haversian canal and aligned parallel with the long bones. Osteon contains lamellae that forms the layer of the compact matrix. Osteon prevents the bone from fracture and resist the bending of bones.

Final answer:

The osteon is the structural unit of compact bone, containing concentric lamellae around a central Haversian canal with blood vessels and nerves. Osteocytes in lacunae receive nutrients through canaliculi, illustrating the bone's intricate support system.

Explanation:

The structural unit of compact bone is the osteon, also known as the Haversian system. Each osteon is composed of concentric lamellae, which are rings of calcified matrix. The laminated rings encircle the central canal, or Haversian canal, that houses blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels. These osteons are the fundamental functional units that provide strength and support to compact bone, allowing it to resist various stresses.

The lamellae are arranged around the central Haversian canal, forming a cylindrical structure. Osteocytes, which are mature bone cells, reside in small cavities called lacunae within the lamellae. Nutrition for the osteocytes is transported through tiny channels called canaliculi that connect the lacunae to the Haversian canal. This sophisticated network allows for nutrients and waste to be efficiently exchanged, maintaining the health of bone tissue.

Furthermore, Volkmann's canals run perpendicular to the Haversian canals, providing an avenue for the vascular and nerve supply from the periosteum and endosteum to reach each osteon. This integration of structure and function makes the osteon an exceptional example of the complex architecture found in compact bone tissue.

Which cranial nerve innervates several different systems including blood pressure, digestion, and cardiac rhythm?

Answers

Answer:

Vagus nerve.

Explanation:

Vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve and largest among all the cranial nerves. This nerve transmits information to or from the surface of brain to the tissue or organ.

Vagus nerve is responsible for regulation of various functions like sweating, blood pressure, digestion, peristalsis and cardiac rhythmicity. Cranial nerve innervates in different system of body like digestion, blood pressure and cardiac rhythm.  

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic used to name muscles?
a. location
b. size
c. origin and insertion
d. number of fibers

Answers

Answer:

I believe it's size

Muscles are defined as the organizational level that is formed by the aggregate of the tissues. The number of fibers is not the characteristic of name muscles. Thus, option d is correct.

What are muscles?

Muscles have been part of the level of organization that is aggregates of the soft tissues that together make the organs of the organisms. Various muscles are involved in various functions. The skeletal, smooth and cardiac are the main muscles.

The muscles are named in three major ways that include the shape and size of the muscles compared to other muscles of the body. Like the cardiac muscles are unique to the circulatory system.

It can also be named by the virtue of its location and point of attachment which includes skeletal muscles that are attached to various ligaments. They can also be named based on their origin and action like the heart muscles.

The number of fibers is not a characteristic property to define and name the muscles of the body as fibers are the integral part that varies in number and cannot be accounted for in the naming.

Therefore, option d. a number of fibers are not used to name, muscles.

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Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a basic amino acid? The positively charged R group of a basic amino acid could bind DNA. All of these choices are correct. The hydrophilic R group of a basic amino acid will be located in the interior of a protein. A basic amino acid would be considered both polar and hydrophobic. The R group of a basic amino acid would only be able to form covalent bonds with other molecules.

Answers

Answer is A. The positively charged R group of a basic a.a could bind to DNA.

Basic amino acids have a positive charge and acidic amino acids have a negative charge. DNA also has negative charge because of the phosphate group in nucleotides. So they have opposite charges and can form ionic bonds.
Hope this helps:)

Final answer:

The correct statement about a basic amino acid is that its positively charged R group could bind DNA. Basic amino acids have hydrophilic R groups on the surface of proteins and are polar, not hydrophobic. The correct answer is a. The positively charged R group of a basic amino acid could bind DNA.

Explanation:

The true statement regarding a basic amino acid is that the positively charged R group could bind DNA. Basic amino acids like lysine and arginine have hydrophilic and positively charged side chains that can interact with negatively charged molecules, such as DNA.

On the contrary, the hydrophilic R groups of basic amino acids would typically be located on the exterior of a protein to interact with the aqueous environment. Basic amino acids are considered polar due to their charge but are not hydrophobic. While they can form various types of bonds, including hydrogen and ionic bonds, they do not only form covalent bonds with other molecules.

The sternal angle indicates the location of the __________ pair of ribs.

Answers

Answer: second pair

Explanation:

The sternal angle is a synarthrotic joint brings together by sternum body and manubrium. It marks approximately second pair of costal cartilages. Coastal cartilage is attached with second rib.

The complete statement is "The sternal angle indicates the location of the second pair of ribs."

How to complete the statement?

The sternal angle, also known as the Angle of Louis or the manubriosternal joint, is an important anatomical landmark located at the junction between the manubrium (the upper part of the sternum) and the body of the sternum. It can be palpated as a prominent ridge or angle on the front of the chest.

The sternal angle serves as a reference point for various anatomical and clinical measurements. One notable significance of the sternal angle is that it corresponds to the level of the second pair of ribs. Specifically, it aligns with the cartilaginous connection between the second rib and the sternum.

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Forensic anthropologists: a. ​apply anthropological techniques to legal matters. b. are primarily concerned with the recovery of material culture remains. c. examine the relationships between medical treatment and culturally determined views of disease. d. ​study disease and trauma in ancient populations. e. ​study nonhuman primates.

Answers

Final answer:

Forensic anthropologists a)  apply anthropological techniques to legal matters, examining human remains to aid in criminal investigations and providing court evidence. They estimate vital statistics and use cultural cues for identification, often collaborating with law enforcement.

Explanation:

Forensic anthropologists a) apply anthropological techniques to legal matters. Their work focuses on the examination of human remains to identify deceased individuals and provide evidence in court. These professionals estimate an individual’s stature, health, injuries, sex, age, and lifestyle through analyzing bones and sometimes DNA. Forensic anthropologists may also use cultural cues such as clothing and jewelry to assist in identification. They collaborate with law enforcement and medical experts to piece together the story of a crime, often testifying as witnesses in trials. Forensic anthropology is a subfield of biological anthropology applied in real-world problems, such as the identification of individuals in mass graves, natural disaster victims, or crime victims. They play a crucial role in supporting law enforcement in identifying human remains and providing insights into the causes and circumstances of death.

Muscle that turns the palm up
a. Supinator
b. Semitendinosus

Answers

Hello There!

The muscle that turns the palm up is called the "Supinator"

The supinator muscle is in the forearm.

List the cells that form bone tissue.

Answers

Answer:

The skeletal system of beings, especially human beings, is a pretty simple, and yet complex one. When talking about bone tissue, and bone structure, we have, in essence three main cell types which actually form it, while inside bones we have the appearance of other types of cells which are not directly related to the bone itself.

These three types of bone-related cells, are: the osteoblast, the osteocytes and the osteoclasts.

The osteoblast is essentially the basic cell unit of bone tissue and its orgin, like osteocytes, are the mesenchymal progenitor cells. The osteocyte, is another type of osteoblast but has the particular characteristic that it is start shaped, and it is immovable and trapped within the web created in a formed and calcified bone. They do not divide, they do not change, but remain during their period of life until they die. The third type is the osteoclast, the cell that is responsible for the reformation of bone tissue by breaking and reabsorbing bone tissue. An important fact about these cells is that through the process of reorption, they ensure the correct blood levels of calcium.

what does reverse transcriptase use to form DNA​

Answers

Answer:

-RNA molecule.

Explanation:

Reverse transcriptase or RT can be defined as an enzyme that synthesizes cDNA (complementary DNA) molecules by using RNA molecule as template. This process is known as reverse transcription.

Reverse transcriptase enzyme is found in many RNA viruses, prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Telomerase in an example of reverse transcriptase, which is found in eukaryotes and replicates ends of linear chromosomes.

Thus, the correct answer is 'RNA.'

Which of the following would not result in an increase in the arterial blood pressure?
a. Increased heart rate
b. Increased blood volume
c. Increased arteriolar vasodilation
d. Increased sympathetic stimulation
e. Increased stroke volume
f. Both a and e
g. Both b and c
h. Both d and e
i. a, b, c, and d

Answers

Answer:

Increased sympathetic stimulation....

The pressure of the blood on the walls of the arteries is called arterial pressure. Increased sympathetic stimulation does not increase arterial blood pressure.

What is sympathetic stimulation?

Sympathetic stimulation is the ability of the vessels to resist high blood pressure by the stimulation of the sympathetic nerves. This is essential for the prevention of over perfusion and dysfunction.

The sympathetic stimulation can raise the heart rate, constrict blood vessels, increase blood pressure, decreases large intestines movement and dilate the pupil of the eye.

When the sympathetic stimulation is increased then the blood pressure on the walls of the arteries remains unaffected and does not increase.

Therefore, option d. increased sympathetic stimulation does not increase arterial blood pressure.

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The cell continually produces carbon dioxide as a by-product of cellular respiration. How does the cell keep the carbon dioxide from building up in the cytoplasm and poisoning the cell?

Answers

Answer:

Breathing out the carbon dioxide

Explanation:

Blood is the medium through which carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs from where it is exhaled out.

The Carbon dioxide produced in cells after respiration diffuses into the blood  in exchange of oxygen delivered to the cells for further respiration. Blood while flowing through the lungs passes carbon dioxide to its alveoli which is then exhaled out and oxygen is inhaled from outside.

Hence, cell keep the carbon dioxide from building up in the cytoplasm and poisoning the cell by exhaling CO2.

small group of 100 people decide to isolate themselves from the world and move to a small and remote deserted island. Out of this population, 10 of the individuals have albino skin, which is due to the homozygous recessive condition (aa). Determine the frequency of the dominant (p) and recessive (q) allele? How many individuals would you expect to be homozygous dominant (AA), heterozygous (Aa) and homozygous recessive (aa)?

Answers

Answer:

Frequency of p [tex]= 0.684[/tex]

Frequency of p [tex]= 0.316[/tex]

Number of individuals with homozygous dominant (AA) [tex]= 47[/tex]

Number of individuals with heterozygous (Aa)[tex]= 43[/tex]

Number of individuals with homozygous recessive (aa) [tex]= 10[/tex]

Explanation:

Out of 100 people, 10 have albino skin (aa)

So, the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals [tex](q^{2})[/tex] is [tex]\frac{10}{100} = 0.1[/tex]

Now, q will be

[tex]= \sqrt{q^{2} } = \sqrt{0.1} \\= 0.316[/tex]

As per Hardy Weinberg's equation -

[tex]p + q = 1[/tex]

Substituting the value of q in above equation, we get -

[tex]p + 0.316 = 1p = 1 -0.316\\p = 0.684[/tex]

Now the frequency of homozygous dominant (AA) will be

[tex]p^{2} = 0.684^{2} \\= 0.467[/tex]

Hence, out of 100 people [tex]0.467 * 100 = 46.7 or 47[/tex] people are homozygous dominant (AA)

Like wise out of 100 people [tex]0.1 * 100 = 10 [/tex] people are homozygous recessive (aa)

As per As per Hardy Weinberg's equation-

[tex]p^{2} + q^{2} + 2pq = 1\\[/tex]

Substituting the values in above equation, we get -

[tex]0.467 + 0.316 + 2pq = 1\\2pq = 1 -( 0.467+ 0.1)\\2pq = 0.433[/tex]

So, out of 100 people [tex]0.433 * 100 = 43.3 or 43[/tex] people are heterozygous (Aa)

What is the purpose of the reflective material in the choroid coat? What is it called?

Answers

Answer:

Purpose: to impart better night vision to nocturnal animals by increasing the available light for photoreceptors.

It is called "tapetum lucidum".

Explanation:

The reflective material in the choroid coat of some nocturnal vertebrates is called "tapetum lucidum". Its function is to improve the night vision of nocturnal animals. The tapetum lucidum serves to reflect the dim light available in the night. The reflected light re-stimulates the photoreceptor cells present in the retina. This increases the available light for night vision.

Tapetum lucidum makes the eyes of nocturnal mammals to shine at night.

Final answer:

The reflective material in the choroid coat, known as the tapetum lucidum, reduces internal reflection of light, providing a clearer image and is especially beneficial for night vision in nocturnal animals. Humans, on the other hand, have melanin in the choroid coat to absorb light and prevent internal reflection.

Explanation:

Purpose of Reflective Material in the Choroid Coat

The purpose of the reflective material found in the choroid coat is to reduce reflection of stray light within the eye, enhancing visual acuity by preventing internal glare and light scattering. This reflective material, known as the tapetum lucidum, is particularly significant in nocturnal animals as it amplifies light to improve night vision. The tapetum lucidum achieves this by reflecting visible light back through the retina, thus giving animals with this layer better ability to see in low light conditions. The reflective effect of the tapetum lucidum also causes the eye-shine observed when light is shone into the eyes of certain animals at night.

In humans, however, this feature is absent as the human choroid coat is pigmented with melanin that serves to absorb light rather than reflect it. The melanin within the choroid coat ensures that any light entering the eye does not reflect internally, which would otherwise cause blurring and decrease in the sharpness of vision.

What is osteoporosis? How is it caused, and how can it be prevented?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Osteoporosis is a disease of bones. It occurs when bones loose density and structure of bone becomes porous. This condition leads to weaking of bones and the bones may break.

Causes : The low calcium diet in food, estrogen deficiency in women, Vitamin D deficiency and high levels of thyroid hormone secretion, too much alcohol consumption, smoking and medical condition of cystic fibrosis also result in bone weakening are responsible causes of osteoporosis.

Prevention : It can be prevented by medication, weight bearing physical exercises which can prevent loss of bones and provide strength, healthy diet with calcium and Vitamin D supplements.

Which of the following is not true about the antigens?
a. They have immunogenicity which means they provoke immune responses
b. They have reactivity which means they react with the antibodies or cells they provoked
c. They are often large protein molecules
d. They always invade the human body from the external environment
e. They may be natural or man-made molecules

Answers

Answer:

d. They always invade the human body from the external environment

Explanation:

Antigens are the molecules that have the ability to stimulate immune response and are mostly protein in nature. However, an antigen may be self or non-self molecule.

This means that antigen may enter the human body from the external environment (the non-self antigen) or any molecule present inside the body may serve as antigen (self-antigen). Self-antigens are responsible for autoimmune disorders.

Other Questions
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