Answer:
The correct option is D) the number of patients
Explanation:
The number of patients who arrive in a hospital to get treated will determine the flow unit of the hospital. The more facilities and positive environment a hospital will have, the more will be the patients who arrive in that hospital. Hence, if we want to check how the working staff of a hospital is, we should look for the number of patients who visit the hospital. A hospital which has a positive environment and more facilities will attract more number of patients.
Please help!! Punnett squares
Answer:
The women would be heterozygous for the blood type B.
Explanation:
For the child to develop blood type A, the mother should be heterozygous for the blood type B.
B O
A AB AO
B BB BO
Hence, the results from this punnet square tell that the a mother heterozygous from blood type B when crossed with a father having blood type AB, will have the probability to produce 25% AB type, 25% AO type, 25% BB type and 25% B0 type offsprings. This type of punnet square will be blood testing punnet square.
Darwin studied actual birds on the galapagos islands instead of using a simulation. What do you call this simulation?
Answer:
Control
Explanation:
This is the observation designed to minimize the effect of variables other than the independent variable.
A member of the health care team is researching the etiology and pathogenesis of a number of clients who are under his care in a hospital context. Which of the following aspects of clients' situations best characterizes pathogenesis rather than etiology?A. A client who has been exposed to the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteriumB. A client who has increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosisC. A client who was admitted with the effects of methyl alcohol poisoningD. A client with multiple skeletal injuries secondary to a motor vehicle accident
Answer:
The correct answer is B. A client who has increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis
Explanation:
Etiology is the study of origin or cause of any disease. Pathogenesis is the mechanism of causing disease by any pathogen. Pathogens use four-step to become pathogenic which are contact, colonization, invasion, and infection.
In pathogenesis the symptoms of disease is observed not the cause so in option B increasing serum ammonia level is the symptom of liver cirrhosis which characterize pathogenesis rather than etiology and in other option, only cause of a medical condition is described so the correct answer is B.
The situation that best characterizes pathogenesis is a client with increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis.
Explanation:The term 'etiology' refers to the cause or origin of a disease, while 'pathogenesis' refers to the development and progression of a disease. Out of the given options, the situation that best characterizes pathogenesis is option B - a client who has increasing serum ammonia levels due to liver cirrhosis. In liver cirrhosis, the impaired liver function leads to the accumulation of toxins like ammonia in the blood, resulting in elevated serum ammonia levels.
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A shipment of frozen fish arrives at your food establishment. You see that the outside bottoms of the shipping cartons have too much ice and the fish fillets held within the cartons have brown edges. These are signs of:__________.
Answer:
The options
A. Thawing and refreezing
B. Safe, high quality seafood
C. Seafood that has been kept in frozen storage too long
D. Seafood that has been blast chilled
The CORRECT ANSWER IS A.
A. Thawing and refreezing
Explanation:
The fish fillets held within the cartons have notable excessive brown edges and The outside bottoms of the shipping cartons having too much ice that is visible. This pinpoint to thawing and refreezing.
It is still permitted to refreeze thawed fish at home under standard at-home practice but it is not acceptable at shipping as it shows the fish wasn't stored in a
Cold condition without addressing how long it has been kept out of the cold condition. In addition, apparent damage to the fish affects its salability by lowering it.
Bonus tips:
Indicator of freshness to check for when purchasing fish:
Uniformly frozen,
no ice crystals
The colour of the fish should be bright and glossy
Ensure the wrapping is well tight and not damaged during the course of packaging.
The shipment of frozen fish has signs of freezer burn, which occurs when the freezing process is inadequate and the food is not properly protected from air. This condition leads to dehydration of the fish and quality loss. The freezing process must be carefully controlled to prevent such issues.
A shipment of frozen fish with excessive ice on the shipping cartons and fish fillets that have brown edges are signs of freezer burn. This indicates that the freezing time target was not met, and the freezing process must be modified. When fish is packaged in cardboard, the freezing process takes longer than when the product is not packaged. Freezer burn often results from dehydration due to air reaching the food, which sublimates the water from the frozen fish, leading to a mottled appearance and potential loss of texture and flavor. To prevent freezer burn, it is important to lower the freezer's temperature and tightly wrap products to minimize the availability of space for water to sublime. In addition, slow freezing processes can cause cell-wall damage and rupturing due to the formation of large ice crystals, further compromising the quality of the frozen fish, and potentially leading to product weight losses ranging from 4% to 10%.
The Hershey and Chase experiments involved the preparation of two different types of radioactively labeled phage. Which of the following best explains why two preparations were required?
A. The bacteriophage used in the experiments was a T2 phage.
B. It was necessary that each of the two phage components, DNA and protein, be identifiable upon recovery at the end of the experiment.
C. Each scientist had his own method for labeling phage, so each conducted the same experiment using a different isotope.
D. Establishing the identity of the genetic material required observation of two phage generations.
Answer:
B. It was necessary that each of the two phage components, DNA and protein, be identifiable upon recovery at the end of the experiment.
Explanation:
Hershey and Martha Chase used radiolabeled the DNA of some of the bacteriophage cells with phosphorus (32P). They radiolabeled the sulfur (35S) of the coat protein in the second batch of the phage cells. They infected some of the bacterial cells with phage having radiolabeled DNA while the other E. coli cells were infected with the phage carrying radiolabeled coat protein. This allowed the clear identification of the radiolabelled molecule (DNA or protein) present in the host cell.
They observed that the E. coli cells infected with phage having radiolabeled DNA exhibited the radioactivity while the other batch of the host cell did not show it.
Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles results in ____________ in the thoracic volume which results in _______________ of the intrapulmonary pressure.
Answer:
Contraction of the diaphragm results in increase in thoracic volume which results in decrease of the intrapulmonary pressure.
Explanation:
During inspiration, air is taken into the lungs this requires that the diaphragm contracts to increase the volume of the thoracic cavity while intrapulmonary pressure decreases to allow intake of air.
Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles leads to an increase in the thoracic volume, which in accordance with Boyle's Law, results in a decrease of intrapulmonary pressure.
Explanation:When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, it results in an increase in the thoracic volume. This increase in volume causes a decrease in the intrapulmonary pressure.
This is because, according to Boyle’s Law, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. In this context, when the volume of the thoracic cavity increases (during inhalation), the pressure within it decreases, which draws air into the lungs.
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How many nerves and blood vessels are in a square inch of skin?
Answer:
20 feet blood vessels and 1000 nerve endings
Explanation:
The skin is the largest organ of the body and is composed of three layers that are epidermis, dermis and the subcutaneous layer. The outer layer is the epidermis consisting of cells that are tightly packed in around in 20 layers. The middle thick layer is the dermis that consist of glands, nerves, blood vessels, and hair follicles that provide skin its functions. The inner layer is the subcutaneous that is composed of connective tissue and fat.
The square inch of skin consist of 20 feet blood vessels, 1000 nerve endings, 650 sweat glands and 100 oil glands. The blood vessels supplies blood to the tissues and the nerve endings upon stimulation sends signals to the brain and generate response depending on the kind of stimulus like heat, pressure, pain, or temperature.
If two chromosomes of a species are the same length and have similar centromere placements and yet are not homologous, what is different about them?
As per the two chromosomes of the spies that have the same length the genetic contents in the non-homologous chromosomes would be different.
What are the homologous chromosomes?The homologous chromosomes are those with the same lengths, share the same position of the centromere and have the same types and the location of the genes.
If 2 chromosomes of that species are of the same length and have a similar centromere placement and yet are not the same the genetic content would be different.
Find out more information about the chromosomes.
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Chromosomes that are similar in length and centromere placement but not homologous differ in their gene sequences. Homologous chromosomes have identical gene sequences, while non-homologous chromosomes don't.
Explanation:If two chromosomes of a species are the same length and have similar centromere placements and yet are not homologous, what differentiates them is their gene sequences or genetic contents.
Homologous chromosomes are not only identical in length and centromere placement but also have identical gene sequences at specific locations, or loci, which contain the genetic information to specify certain traits.
These chromosomes are derived from different parents and carry the same genes but may have different versions of these genes called alleles.
On the other hand, chromosomes that are similar in size and centromere placement but are not homologous will not carry the same genetic information.
For example, in humans, the X and Y chromosomes are a pair of sex chromosomes, but they are not homologous. They are similar length and have their centromeres placed similarly; however, their genetic contents significantly vary, except for a small region of homology that allows them pairing up during the formation of gametes.
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Some questions fall outside the realm of science; which of the following questions could not be answered using the scientific method?
a. What is the function of the appendix in human beings?
b. Why is it unethical to test newly developed drugs in animals?
c. Why do smokers develop lung cancer more frequently than nonsmokers?
d. Why is it so difficult to quit smoking?
Answer:
The correct answer is - option B.
Explanation:
Scientific method is the method that is based on sequenced scientific logic based steps to answer questions. Such questions are known as scientific questions that can be answered by the logic and not based on the believes or social norms.
The options provided with the questions are easily answer by the logic and scientific method by the knowledge except the option B that deal with ethical and unethical phenomena which is not depend on scientific knowledge.
Thus, the correct answer is option B.
The question that cannot be answered using the scientific method is 'Why is it unethical to test newly developed drugs in animals?' because it involves ethics, which cannot be scientifically tested.
Explanation:The question that could not be answered using the scientific method is 'Why is it unethical to test newly developed drugs in animals?' This is because ethics involve values and moral reasoning, which cannot be empirically tested or measured in the same way biological processes can be. Scientific methods rely on observation, measurement, and experimentation to test hypotheses about the natural world, and while they can help us understand the effects of drugs on biological systems, they cannot address moral and ethical questions such as the rights and welfare of animals.
To illustrate, questions that could be scientifically investigated include the function of the appendix in human beings and why smokers develop lung cancer more frequently than nonsmokers, as these can be explored via empirical evidence and experimental research. In contrast, why it is so difficult for some individuals to quit smoking could also have a biological basis, but it involves subjective experiences and psychological factors that are not solely within the realm of empirical science.
The nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell
A. contains the cell's DNA
B. separates the RNA from the cytoplasm
C. is surrounded by a nucleoid membrane
D. contains the cell's nucleoid membrane
E. is the site of organelle production
Answer:
A. contains the cell's DNA
Explanation:
Prokaryotic cells such as the bacterial cells and the cells of archaeans do not have a membrane-bound nucleus. Their genetic material DNA is present in the cytoplasm only. However, their genetic material is concentrated in a specific region inside their cells. This is called a nucleoid. Nucleoid does not have any surrounding membrane. It represents the nuclear area where the DNA of the prokaryotic cells is present.
The nucleoid region in a prokaryotic cell primarily contains the cell's DNA and does not have a distinct membrane, separate RNA, or produce organelles.
Explanation:The nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell primary function is to house the cell's DNA. Prokaryotic cells do not have a true nucleus or other membrane-bound organelles. Therefore, option A. 'contains the cell's DNA' is correct. Instead, their genetic material is located within a region called the nucleoid. This region is not surrounded by a nucleoid membrane as it would be in eukaryotic cells (disqualifying options C and D). It is also not specifically involved in separating RNA from the cytoplasm or in the production of organelles (eliminating options B and E).
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_______ is the pressure waves passing through the perilymph of the cochlea compress the vestibular membrane
Answer: A
Explanation: I had a test and I got A so if should be right but if it’s not I am really sry
In order for an action potential to begin, the neuron must _____.
Answer:
Answer is depolarize.
Explanation:
Depolarization is one of the four stages of action potential. Other stages are hypopolarization, repolarization and hyperpolarization.
Action potential is known to occur when different ions are able to cross neuron membranes.
Depolarization occurs when the charge across a cell membrane is reversed.
It should be noted that, stimulation of other neurons or sensory receptors must have occurred before depolarization.
The nerve impulses in the nerve fibers of muscle are considered as one of the examples of action potential.
The enzyme pyruvate kinase catalyzes the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate; the phosphate group is transferred to ADP to form ATP. This reaction is an example of:
Answer:
Oxidative Phosphorylation in glycolysis.
Explanation:
Kinases are the enzymes which cause transfer of the phosphate group from one molecule to another molecule . As the PEP is converted to pyruvate in glycolysis by a pyruvate kinase enzyme it causes phosphorylation. It is one of the important regulatory steps of glycolysis.
Answer: ATP synthesis by substrate level phosphorylation
Explanation:
The dephosphorylation if phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate by pyruvate kinase is an example of substrate level phosphorylation where one molecule of ATP is generated during this reaction.
Pyruvate kinase catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from PEP to ADP, which produces one molecule of pyruvate and one molecule of ATP. This step is irreversible.
This reaction is an ATP synthesis by substrate-level phosphorylation
"Lena has a spiral fracture of her tibia just above where her ski boot ends. What is a spiral fracture, and why might this be a common injury to the tibia in skiing
Answer:
Spiral fracture is a torsion fracture
Explanation:
A spiral fracture is a type of bone fracture that happens when a rotating force (torque) is exerted along the axis of a bone. This fracture occurs mostly in bodily motions and is caused by a twisting force while one leg is fixed and the other is rotated along the axis.
The tibia is a larger and stronger bone, situated at the anterior part of the two bones in the leg below the knee region. The tibia provide support to body weight.
During Skiing (a sport recreational activities by the aid of using skis to glide on snow), a rotating force is (torque) is exerted along the axis of this tibia bone which is common and capable of causing injury to the tibia when skiing.
Middle ear infections can cause a conductive hearing, a child who experiences this type of impairment is likely to have difficulty hearing:
Answer:
Soft sounds
Explanation:
Conductive hearing loss occurs when the sound waves cannot be transferred in the ear due to the obstruction of any path such as the outer ear, the middle ear or the eardrum.If a person suffers from middle ear infection then the blockage would be in the middle ear and the person would suffer from conductive hearing loss.Due to this hearing loss the sound a person perceives becomes muffled and of softer due to which the sound that is already of lower frequency cannot be heard. Therefore, the child suffering from the given impairment would find it difficult to hear soft sounds.Jason, a 12-year-old boy, was awakened suddenly by a loud crash. As he sat up in bed, straining to listen, his fright was revealed by his rapid breathing (hyperventilation), a breathing pattern effective in ridding the blood of CO2. At this point, was his blood pH rising or falling?
Answer:
The pH of blood remains same...
Explanation:
That's because of the action of Bi-Carbonate buffer present in our blood. when the CO2 starts to dissolve the pH of blood starts decreasing but then he removal of Carbonic Acid from blood by neutralization process render the pH of blood still at standard range.
The vice versa of above happens if the pH start to rise rapidly.
Jason's blood pH was rising because his hyperventilation was rapidly expelling CO2 from his blood, reducing the potential for acid formation and thus lowering acidity or increasing the pH level.
Explanation:When Jason was hyperventilating, his body was working to quickly expel CO2 (carbon dioxide) from his blood. Carbon dioxide in the blood can combine with water to form carbonic acid, a compound which can lower blood pH. Thus, by rapidly expelling CO2, Jason's body was reducing the potential for carbonic acid production, leading to lesser acidity or a higher pH level. So, at this point, his blood pH was rising.
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When peas with red flowers are crossed with peas with white flowers and then the resulting plants are AGAIN crossed, what will be the ratio of pea plants with red flowers to plants with white flowers in this SECOND generation?
Answer:
Red flowers: white flowers 3:1
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel crossed an homozygous dominant pea plant that produced red flowers (RR) and a homozygous recessive pea plant that produces white flowers (rr). He got a F1 generation where all the offsprings were red-flowered heterozygous (Rr).
The hybrids in F1 generation were then self-crossed (see attached image). The phenotypic ratio was 3:1 i.e. 3 red-flowered pea plants to 1 white-flowered pea plants.
RR, Rr, Rr and rr
What is the abbreviation for a diagnostic procedure in which a small piece of muscle is removed to be sent to the laboratory for examination and analysis?
Answer:
The diagnostic procedure in which a small piece of muscle is removed to be sent to the laboratory for examination and analysis is called as biopsy.
Explanation:
Biopsy is the examination procedure of the tissue of organism by taking small piece of muscle.In order to diagnose the neuro muscular disorder biopsy examination is carried out.Normally biopsy result is obtained in around 2 to 3 days if it is not a complex case.The tissue sample (piece of muscle) is taken in the lab and pathologist take all the tests on it.Answer:
"Muscle Biopsy" is the abbreviation for a diagnostic procedure in which a small piece of muscle is removed to be sent to the laboratory for examination and analysis.
Explanation:
The microscopically or biochemically examination of a piece of muscle tissue which is removed from an organism in medicine is called as "muscle biopsy".
There are basically two major methods for performing this diagnostic procedure: A method in which small amount of tissue is taken out as sample by inserting biopsy needle into a muscle or by open biopsy in which muscle tissue is removed by making a small cut in the skin and muscle.
This procedure is helpful in discovering issues related to musculoskeletal, connective, nervous and vascular systems of body. It is known for detecting polymyositis or dermatomyositis known as inflammatory diseases of muscle and polyarteritis nodosa called as connective tissue and blood vessels diseases.
You have entered a 5K race. As you finish the last 500 meters, your body has converted _____ energy to _____ energy, and has lost some of this energy as _____.
Answer:
First blank: Chemical potential energy
Second blank: Kinetic energy
Third blank: Heat.
Explanation:
Chemical potential energy is the energy for stored in the body system for work. It's stored inform of ions and these ions are released for biophysicochemical activities of the body.
However, the chemical potential energy is converted to kinetic energy, which is the energy for motion in the body.
Then, heat is lost to the external environment during conversation of chemical potential energy to kinetic energy (based on the law of thermodynamics).
__________ is sometimes used in late first-stage labor and during delivery in order to block sensation in an area of the body or to block consciousness.
Answer:
Epidural anesthesia is sometimes used in late first-stage labor and during delivery in order to block sensation in an area of the body or to block consciousness
Explanation:
Epidural anesthesia blocks pain in a particular region of the body. The reason for epidural anasthesia is to provide analgesia (pain relief) rather than anesthesia (total lack of feeling). Epidurals is a regional anesthesia that works by blocking the nerve impulses from the lower spinal segments.
The correct answer is epidural anesthesia.
Juan cut his finger on a piece of glass. After a short time, he felt no pain in his finger. Juan's pain was likely reduced by a natural pain reliever in his brain. This natural pain reliever is the neurotransmitter(s):
Answer:
Answer is endorphins.
Explanation:
Endorphins are considered or known to be one of the brain chemicals , which are generally referred to as the neurotransmitters.
The endorphins carry out their activities by interacting with the opiate receptors in the brain in order to reduce pain.
Stress and pain are considered as the major factors that cause the release of the endorphins.
It should be noted that , the activity of the endorphins can be related to that of morphine.
That is why they are referred to as natural pain reliever.
They are the ones that reduce Juan's pain.
Endorphins are neurotransmitters in the brain that act as natural pain relievers. When the body experiences pain or stress, it releases these chemicals to alleviate discomfort. This is what likely happened to Juan after he cut his finger.
Explanation:Juan's pain was likely reduced by the neurotransmitter known as endorphins. Endorphins are chemicals in the brain that act as natural pain relievers. They have similar effects to drugs like morphine. When the body experiences pain or stress, it releases endorphins to help alleviate that pain. In Juan's case, after cutting his finger, his pain subsided because his brain released endorphins to help manage and lessen his discomfort. This process is part of a body's natural response to injury.
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Which of the following sentences best descrives the difference between a global alignment and a local alignment between two sequences?
A) Global alignment is usually used for DNA, while local alignment is usually used for protein sequences.
B) Global alignmnet has gaps, while local alignments does not have gaps
C) Global alignment finds the global max, while the local alignment finds the local max.
D) Global alignment aligns the whole sequence, while local alignment finds the best sub-sequence that aligns
Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
A sequence or the arrangement of the DNA, protein, or RNA sequence to recognize the part that shows similarities due to the evolutionary, structural, or functional relation in between sequences.
There are two types of alignment techniques in bioinformatics one global and other local. Local alignment is more helpful as it is better in identifying dissimilar sequences that might contain regions of the similarities. Global alignment techniques align the whole sequence whereas local alignment aligns subsequences.
Thus, the correct answer is - option D.
The main difference between global and local alignment is that global alignment aligns the whole sequence, from end to end, while local alignment finds the best sub-sequence that aligns well, not necessarily aligning the entire sequence.
Explanation:The correct answer to the question is D) Global alignment aligns the whole sequence, while local alignment finds the best sub-sequence that aligns. In the field of bioinformatics, alignment refers to the process of identifying regions of similarity between two sequences, which could be DNA, RNA or proteins, to reveal the relationships between them.
In the context of global alignment, the entirety of both sequences is taken into account and aligned from end to end, often resulting in mismatches and gaps. This is best used when the sequences are of similar length and are suspected to have evolved from a common ancestor.
On the other hand, local alignment tries to find a region of one sequence that aligns well with a region of the other sequence - not necessarily the entire sequence. This is especially useful when the sequences are of different lengths or are suspected to contain domains or segments of similarity.
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Name a degenerative joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue in the joint or organs.
Answer: Rheumatoid Arthritis
Explanation:
In patients suffering from rheumatoid arthritis, accumulation of urates occur in the joints due to the deficiency of a vital enzyme, as a result the immune system produces antibodies that attack these joints or organs where urates are found.
This eventually leads to inflammation & degeneration of the joints, characterized by painful swelling and stiffness
A critical part of the plasma membrane is that it is selectivley permiable. This allows the plasma membrane to regulate transport across cellular boundaries:_______.
Answer:
Answer is true.
Explanation:
A cell membrane is considered as selectively permeable because it controls or regulates the type of molecules that can pass through it. Substances of small molecules are allowed by the cell membrane while substances with large molecules are not allowed to pass through. For example , amino acids and simple sugar can easily pass through the cell membrane while protein and starch can't pass through it.
The cell membrane is considered or described to be boundary or border between the interior part and exterior part of the cell.
The entrance of a microbe into an individual's vascular space has initiated opsonization. How will the health care provider explain this process that is critical in stopping the infiltration of the microbe through opsonization?A) Stimulation of B cells by helper T cells.B) Coating of microbe to aid phagocyte recognition.C) Release of proteins that stimulate cell production by the bone marrow.D) Lysis of intracellular microbes by cytotoxic T cells.
Answer:
B) Coating of microbe to aid phagocyte recognition
Explanation:
Opsonization is the process and mechanism which targets the foreign body and helps in the recognition of the pathogen by the phagocytic cells such as the macrophages and dendritic cell.
The opsonization enhances the process of phagocytosis as the opsonin substances which could be the antibodies, proteins or other molecules which could be easily recognised by the phagocytic cells gets attached to the pathogen.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
Opsonization is the coating of a particle with proteins that facilitate phagocytosis of the particle by tissue macrophages and activated follicular dendritic cells (FDCs) as well as binding by receptors on peripheral blood cells
For ectotherms, such as lizards, their body temperature and metabolic rate may change with the environmental temperature. What do researchers call the resting metabolic rate at a given temperature for an ectotherm?
Answer:
Standard metabolic rate
Explanation:
The resting metabolic rate at a given temperature for an ectotherm is called Standard metabolic rate. On the other hand, the resting metabolic rate at a given temperature for an endotherm is called Basal metabolic rate.
Standard metabolic rate is the minimal metabolic rate required to sustain an organism life at a stipulated temperature. In darkened environment when at rest and unstressed and at post-absorptive state(i.e not actively involved in food digestion), the Standard metabolic rate of an organism can be effectively measured.
During the _________ stage of birth (which is called the "descent and emergence of the baby" stage), the mother bears down hard to push the baby out of her body; this stage typically lasts 45-60 minutes.
Answer:
Second
Explanation:
Childbirth involves three stages:
The first stage starts with the onset of true labor and lasts until the cervix is completely dilated to 10 cm.
The second stage continues after the cervix is dilated to 10 cm until the delivery of your baby. This stage is called the "descent and emergence of the baby" stage. It involves the pushing by the mother and the delivery of your baby. Now that your cervix has fully dilated to 10 cm, this is the time for mother to help by pushing. This stage can last from 20 minutes to 2 hours.
The third stage involves the delivery of the placenta.
The stage of birth in question is the second stage of labor, also known as the pushing stage. It lasts for 45-60 minutes and involves the mother pushing the baby out of her body.
Explanation:The stage of birth described in the question is known as the second stage of labor. During this stage, also known as the pushing stage, the mother uses her abdominal muscles to bear down and push the baby out of her body. It typically lasts 45-60 minutes but can vary depending on the individual.
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For 1981, 1987, and 1990, how does the frequency of left-mouthed breeding adults compare to the frequency of left-mouthed individuals in the entire population?
Answer:
The variation might occur in the population that leads to the evolution of the species. This variation may occur due to natural selection, mutation or recombination.
The variation might change the genotype and allelic frequency of the population and might also change the phenotype of the individual in the population. The breeding adults of the left mouthed in 1981, 1987 and 1990 shows variation and was equally opposite phenotype which is more common in the population.
In tigers, a recessive allele causes an absence of fur pigmentation (a white tiger) and a cross-eyed condition.
Part A
If two phenotypically normal tigers that are heterozygous at this locus are mated, what percentage of their offspring will be cross-eyed? Express your answer using the percent symbol and no spaces (for example, 10%).
Part B What percentage of cross-eyed tigers will be white? Express your answer using the percent symbol and no spaces (for example, 10%).
Answer:
A) 25%
B) 100%
Explanation:
This involves a single gene. Let's assume the gene is Z. The dominant allele (Z) produces a tiger with normal phenotype i.e. presence of fur pigmentation and no cross eye while the recessive allele (z) produces a tiger with no fur pigmentation (white) and cross-eye.
According to the question, a heterozygous tiger will have normal phenotype because the dominant allele (Z) is masking the expression of the recessive pair (z). Hence, in a cross between Zz and Zz (two heterozygous tigers), four possible offsprings will be produced, in which three(3) will be phenotypically normal (Zz) and one(1) will be phenotypically recessive (zz) i.e. possess cross-eye and white furs. Hence, the percentage of cross-eyed (recessive) tiger offsprings will be 1/4 × 100 = 25%. (See attached image)
For question B; The recessive allele for the gene induces both lack of fur pigmentation and cross-eyed phenotypes I.e. The two recessive phenotypes are caused by the same recessive alleles on the same locus. This means that a tiger that is cross-eyed must also be white-furred or lack fur pigmentation. Hence, the percentage of having a cross-eyed tiger that is white is 100%.
When two heterozygous tigers are mated, 25% of the offspring will be cross-eyed, and 100% of cross-eyed tigers will be white.
Explanation:In tigers, let's assume white fur and cross-eyed condition are represented by the recessive allele 'a', and the normal pigment and eye condition are represented by the dominant allele 'A'. If two heterozygous tigers (Aa) are mated, the probability of having cross-eyed (recessive phenotype) offspring can be found by setting up a Punnett square.
The genotypes of the offspring would be as follows:
AA (normal)Aa (normal, but carrier)Aa (normal, but carrier)aa (cross-eyed and white)This means, 1 out of 4 or 25% of the offspring will be cross-eyed, which answers Part A.
For Part B, since all cross-eyed tigers must be homozygous recessive (aa), 100% of cross-eyed tigers will be white. Thus, all cross-eyed tigers will have white fur.
Genes: Group of answer choices a) are segments of DNA that code for proteins b) are located on chromosomes c) come in pairs but segregate during the formation of gametes d) assort independently of each other if they are on different chromosomes e) all of the above are true
Answer:
e) all of the above are true
Explanation:
Genes are the stretch of DNA that code for a specific polypeptide chain. Genes are present in linear order on the chromosomes. A diploid organism has two alleles of a gene. The two alleles of a gene separate from each other during the segregation of sister chromatids in anaphase-II of meiosis.
This results in the presence of one allele for each gene in a gamete. Also, the alleles of two different genes segregate in a random way and produce new combinations of genes in the progeny. Random segregation of alleles of two genes occurs when they are present at different chromosomes.