Answer: No
Explanation: It is beneficial if the animals that are disadvantageous doesn't reproduce so it doesn't discredit natural selection. The traits in which variation is occured are more suitable for organism to live and reproduce in the environment are preserved and are passed from generation to generation.
However, natural selection effects limited number of progeny.
Answer: These types of exceptions do NOT discredit natural selection.
Explanation: Natural selection is based on the odds that certain traits will not adapt well in certain environments and ecosystems. It recognizes that organisms with mutations may be disadvantageous or not since the mutation is non-specific. In instances such as albinoism, the mutation is more likely to be disadvantageous though in some environments (like the desert) it could be a benefit. Natural selection is not an exact science or absolute rule, it is based on probabilities and variations, so exceptions will always exist.
About 12 to 24 hours after the last meal, a person's blood sugar level normally varies from 60 to 90 mg per 100 ml of blood, although it may rise to 130 mg per 100 ml after meals high in carbohydrates. That the blood sugar level is maintained within a fairly narrow range, despite uneven intake of sugar, is due to the bodily process called_______________.
The process that helps to maintain the blood sugar level within a fairly narrow range is ; Homeostasis
The insulin and glucagon hormones help in the maintenance of the sugar levels in the human body( Homeostasis ).The function of glucagon is to increase the blood sugar levels, while the insulin decreases high level of blood sugar levels.
Homeostasis is the process of maintaining stable living conditions of an organism by the organism in response to both internal and external changes. As seen in the question the blood sugar level is maintained within a fairly narrow range by both Insulin and glucagon hormones.
Hence we can conclude that The process that helps to maintain the blood sugar level within a fairly narrow range is ; Homeostasis .
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The process maintaining blood sugar level within a narrow range is homeostasis. It's primarily controlled by insulin, which reduces blood glucose by promoting its utilization, and glucagon, which increases blood glucose by stimulating glycogen breakdown during fasting or the postabsorptive state.
Explanation:The bodily process that maintains blood sugar level within a fairly narrow range, despite uneven intake of sugar, is called homeostasis. This process is primarily controlled by two hormones, insulin and glucagon. Blood glucose levels tend to rise after a meal, and especially high-carbohydrate meals which would trigger the release of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by the body cells and its utilization for energy production, thereby lowering blood glucose level.
On the other hand, during periods of fasting or the postabsorptive state, when glucose levels drop, glucagon is released from the alpha cells of the pancreas. Glucagon stimulates the breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver into glucose and its release into the blood, thus increasing blood glucose level. This process of regulation ensures that blood glucose is maintained within the optimal range for the body's function.
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Which of the following foods can be re-served?
nothing can be reserved once it has left the food preparation area.
bread that was not eaten by a previous customer,
crackers in the original wrapper that were not eaten by a previous customer.
KUID Shrimp that was not eaten by a previous customer.
Re-served foods are foods that have left the preparation area which was scheduled to be served to a customer but was not served due to either low patronage or high production of foods.
Instances of Re-served foodsA. Bread that was not eaten by a previous customer.
Bread that was not eaten by a previous customer cannot be re-served to another customer after a specified time period because as soon it has left the preparation area, it starts to lose its nutrients and after some time it starts to decay.
B. Crackers in the original wrapper that were not served to another customer.
Crackers in the original wrapper that were not served to another customer can be re-served because packaged goods are preserved from the preparation area and they tend to retain their nutrients and not decay.
C. KUID Shrimp that was not eaten by a previous customer.
KUID Shrimp that was not eaten by a previous customer cannot be re-served to another customer because Sea foods tend to decay vigorously.
On this note, Crackers in the original wrapper that were not served to another customer is the only food that can be re-served to another customer because of its preservation from it's preparation area.
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A single-celled organism isolated from a deep-sea, hot thermal vent was found to have a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. This organism is most likely a member of which of the following domains?
Answer:
Archaea
Explanation:
Three main domains exist according to classification, two of these domains are characterized to contain organisms that do not have a membrane bound nucleus, in other words, their single circular genetic material (DNA) is not housed by a nucleus. Instead, the naked DNA is found localized to a central region in the cytoplasm called NUCLEOID. These domains are bacteria and archaea domains and they are termed to be PROKARYOTIC.
These domains also lack membrane bound organnelles i.e their few present organnelles are not bounded by lipid layer. Archaea and Bacteria both have cell walls but what makes up the cell wall is different in both organisms. The organism will most likely be an archaea because it portrays its characteristics being that, an archaea is a unicellular prokaryotic organism with a cell wall. It also has the ability to thrive in extremely harsh conditions like the hot thermal vent described in the question.
The single-celled organism described is most likely a member of the Archaea domain due to its lack of a nucleus and the presence of a cell wall. Archaeans are known to thrive in extreme environments.
Explanation:The single-celled organism you described, that has been isolated from a hot thermal vent in the deep sea and possesses a cell wall but lacks a nucleus, is most likely a member of the Archaea domain. The major characteristics of the Archaea include a lack of nucleus or other membrane-bound organelles, presence of unique lipids in their cell membrane, a distinctive cell wall, and their ability to thrive in extreme conditions, like high temperatures.
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The _____________ muscle is responsible for lowering and raising the testicles in order to keep them at the right temperature for producing sperm.
Answer:
Dartos muscle.
Explanation:
The dartos muscle is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of the scrotum, adjusting the distance of the testicles from the body to maintain the ideal temperature for sperm production.
Explanation:The muscle responsible for lowering and raising the testicles to regulate temperature for optimal sperm production is the dartos muscle. Sperm are produced in a temperature-regulated process that works best when the scrotal temperature is around 2 to 4°C cooler than the core body temperature. The dartos muscle, along with the cremaster muscle, contracts when cold to pull the testicles closer to the body, warming them, and relaxes when warm to allow the testicles to hang farther from the body, cooling them. This action is essential for maintaining the right temperature, which is on average 91 degrees Fahrenheit, as opposed to the normal core body temperature of most males, which averages at about 98 degrees.
Together, these muscles can elevate the testes in cold weather, moving them closer to the body and decreasing the surface area of the scrotum to retain heat. Alternatively, as the environmental temperature increases, the scrotum relaxes, moving the testes farther from the body core and increasing scrotal surface area, which promotes heat loss.
Only one component bone of the right coxal bone articulates with this same bone component on the other side of the body. Which of the following bone components fits this description?a) pubis.b) ischium.c) ilium.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option a.
Explanation:
Pubis or the pubic bone is one component bone of the right and left coxal bone articulate together. This bone makes the pelvis, in the female uretheral sponge covers the pubic bone from front.
The pubic bone is also makes the inferior and anterior obturator foramen. The pelvic bones are joint together to pubic symphyasis.
Thus, the correct answer is - option a.
The pubis bone component of the right coxal bone articulates with its counterpart on the other side of the body at the pubic symphysis.
Explanation:The bone component that fits the description of articulating with the same bone component on the other side of the body is the pubis. The pubis is one of the three components of the coxal bone, also known as the hip bone. It forms the anterior part of the coxal bone and articulates with its counterpart on the other side at the pubic symphysis.
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when blood glucose levels are high The pancreas releases insulin. a.The liver releases insulin. b.The pancreas releases glucose. c.The liver releases glucagon. d.The pancreas releases glucagon.
The options were not well-ordered, it should be options A to E.
Answer: The correct answer is that the pancreas releases insulin.
Explanation:
Whenever the blood glucose level is high, the pancreas responds by releases insulin, a hormone secreted by its beta cells, and responsible for the regulation of blood sugar level by
- signalling cells of the muscle and liver to store excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN until energy need arises.
Unlike insulin, when blood glucose levels is low, Glucagon is released also by pancreas to stimulates glycogen breakdown to raise glucose levels
The part of the brain that, if lesioned, would MOST likely result in a disruption of language comprehension and expression is _____.
Answer:
Wernicke's area
Explanation:
The Wernicke's area is a part of the brain located in the temporal lobe of the left side of the brain. It is responsible for language development, comprehension of speech and expression.
When this part of the brain is damaged or lesioned, its functions will be impaired. The disorder is called Wernicke's aphasia and the patient will speak in fluent phrases that lack meaning.
Which of the following disciplines did Darwin draw information from in order to found the field of evolutionary biology and develop his theorya. demography
b. systematics
c. paleontology
d. taxonomy
e. geology
Answer:
b) Systematics
Explanation:
Darwin presented the theory of evolution and explained that the process of evolution occured because of natural selection which further explains that offsprings are produced from organisms and these organisms are able to survive in their environment.
As systematics is the branch of biology, which basically deals with evolutionary relationships of the organisms .Thus the darwin theory of evolution will be considered in the field of systematics.
Hence the option B) Systematics is the right option.
Darwin's theory of evolution was largely based on concepts and data derived from the fields of demography, paleontology, and geology.
Explanation:Charles Darwin, the founder of evolutionary biology, drew upon multiple academic disciplines to develop his groundbreaking theories. Particularly, he relied heavily upon concepts and data from demography, paleontology, and geology.
Demography provided him with insights into population dynamics, which formed the foundation of natural selection. Paleontology offered archaeological evidence of evolution over time through fossil records, proving the concept of 'descent with modification'. Geology made him understand that Earth's surface itself evolves, changing over very long timescales, which gave him a sense of the vast span of geological time during which evolution could occur.
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As a part of his workout regimen, a 21-year-old college football player often engages in squats and lateral arm holds. These are examples of what type of exercise?
a) aerobicb) isotonicc) anaerobicd) isometric
Answer:
The correct answer is- isometric exercise
Explanation:
Isometric exercise also called static strength training which requires contraction of a particular muscle group. In isometric exercise, the joints do not move and the length of the muscle does not change noticeably.
Squat and lateral arm hold are the example of isometric exercise. Isometric exercise improves the strength of a particular muscle or group muscle for example squat helps in building leg muscles.
Therefore if a girl is engaged in squats and lateral arm holds then it is an example of isometric exercise.
Final answer:
The college football player's workout regimen, including squats and lateral arm holds, consists of c) anaerobic and d) isometric exercises designed to increase muscle strength, mass, and endurance, without a significant change in muscle length during the isometric holds.
Explanation:
The college football player engaging in squats and lateral arm holds is primarily performing anaerobic and isometric exercises. Squats entail lifting and lowering the body's weight, which is a form of anaerobic exercise that includes periods of physical exertion and high-intensity, strength-training activities. Meanwhile, lateral arm holds involve maintaining an arm position against resistance without movement, which is an isometric exercise where the muscle tension remains constant despite no change in muscle length.
Skin color is controlled by three pairs of alleles. Someone with very light skin has 6 recessive alleles while someone with very dark skin has 6 dominant alleles. A person who has a skin color midway between lightest and darkest ________.
Answer:
Has three dominant alleles
Explanation:
Skin colour is a polygenetic inheritance and it is controlled by three genes pairs of alleles. The human skin is determined by the amount of melanin it contains. A combination of melanin producing alleles determines the skin color.
In the above question, the person has a skin color that is midway meaning only half of the alleles produced melanin. The total number of alleles is 6 and half of it is 3. So, only 3 alleles were dominant and the remaining three were recessive.
Answer:
The graph demonstrates the quantitative variation for skin pigmentation.
A bar graph has skin pigmentation color on the horizontal axis and Proportion of population on the vertical axis. From lightest to darkest skin colors, the proportions are: 1/64, 6/64, 15/64, 20/64, 15/64, 6/64, 1/64.
Which conclusion is supported by the graph?
More than half of the population has the central skin pigmentation.
The lightest and the darkest skin pigmentations are equally common in the population. **
The central skin pigmentation makes up more of the population than the rest of the skin pigmentation groups combined.
Fewer people have skin pigmentation lighter than the central peak than people who have pigmentation darker than the central peak.
Explanation:
The protein building instructions must be sent out to the cytoplasm. A copy of the instructions is made in the form of ________. This process is called ______________________.
Answer:
1. RNA
2. Transcription
Explanation:
DNA stores the instructions required for the synthesis of proteins. However, the sequence of DNA does not directly serve as a template for protein synthesis. Rather, the template DNA strand is copied into the RNA. The process is called transcription.
The RNA in eukaryotes undergo modifications such as removal of introns and the addition of specific sequences at its 3' and 5' end. This mature mRNA that joins ribosomes for protein synthesis. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA is read in the form of triplets and each triplet code for a specific amino acid.
Limited pediatric pharmacologic research results in drugs being used in the pediatric population despite lacking federally approved indications for use in children. What term describes the use of drugs in this manner?
1 Off label
2 Anecdotal
3 Research equity
4 Informed consent
Answer 1) Off label
Example of common off label drugs
Prazosin (Minipress) for Nightmares.
Clomiphene (Clomid) for Male Infertility and multiple pregnancy
Memantine (Namenda) for OCD. ...
Clonidine (Catapres) for ADHD. ...
Quetiapine (Seroquel) for Insomnia.
Naltrexone (Revia) for Behavioral Addiction
The passage of nutrients and other substances into the walls of the gastrointestinal tract and then into the bloodstream is called _________.a. digestion.b. molecular.c. function.d. absorption.e. metabolism.
Answer:
d. absorption
Explanation:
all the process is an act of absorbing
Which term indicates an accumulation of crystalline depositions in articular surfaces, bones, soft tissue, and cartilage?
Explanation:
Tophi is a deposition of the mono sodium urate crystals who has high level of uric acid in the blood. This conditions known as hyperuricemia.
Tophi are indication of gout. Most of the people suffering from tophi might have previous attack of arthritis which eventually leads to tophi.
This is really painful and most of the pain occurs in the joints of the body.
A football quarterback can simultaneously make calculations of receiver distances, player movements, and gravitational forces. This best illustrates the activity of multiple ________.a. endocrine glandsb. endorphin agonists
c. neural networks
d. endorphin antagonists
e. thresholds
Answer: Neural networks
Explanation:
The brain woks by combination of the networks. There are different types of neurons that combines together to function.
The network of neurons that are combined together in such a way to process the data.
It has the ability to process data in such a way that multiple function can be performed together like decision making, receiver distance, et cetera.
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes _______.
A) polyphyletic
B) into a new order
C) monophyletic
D) paraphyletic
Answer:
c
Explanation:
The study of biological processes by comparing different species is known as
a. the comparative approach.
b. translational approach.
c. Gorzalka approach.
d. between-subjects approach.
Answer:
The correct answer is a. the comparative approach.
Explanation:
In the comparative method, we do the comparison between two different values, groups, cultures, etc. In a comparative approach, the similarities and differences are checked between two things to draw a conclusion.
Comparative study helps in finding out the relationship between two subjects. It can be used for hypothesis testing and theory building. Comparative study is and can be used in every field. So the study of biological processes by comparing different species is known as comparative study.
When a line cook in a restaurant cooks uses raw meat to cook a hamburger that becomes part of the restaurant's Super Burger Special (available only on Saturday nights during football season), the cook is taking part in a
A) transformation process.
B) turning point.
C) conversion process.
D) therblig.
E) metamorphosis.
A
Answer:
The answer is A) transformation process
Explanation:
Transformation Process:
In management, a transformation process is any measure that takes a particular input, transforms it and adds value to it for clients and customers. Transformation processes can be applied to all, commodities, customers and information.
In this particular case, the chef has taken a raw material i.e. the meat, transformed it into a hamburger and added value to it by adding the bun, vegetables, cheese etc.
The DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is measured. If the DNA content is x, then the DNA content at metaphase of meiosis II would be:
Answer:
2x
Explanation:
The G1 phase is a part of the interphase stage of the cell cycle, where the cell undergoes resting and preparation prior to division. Before division can occur, the cell needs to replicate its genetic material (DNA). The cell does this at the S-PHASE, after the First Gap or G1 phase.
The cell duplicates its DNA in order to ensure that each daughter cell receives equal and correct number of chromosomes (DNA). Hence, if the measured DNA at G1 phase was (x), it replicates/doubles I.e x+x or x × 2 = 2x.
Therefore, at the Metaphase phase (division), the DNA content will be 2x before they separate in the anaphase stage.
If the DNA content of a diploid cell is x in the G1 phase, by metaphase of meiosis II the DNA content would be x/2, since meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half to the haploid state.
The question posed relates to the changes in DNA content throughout the cell cycle, particularly from the G1 phase of interphase to metaphase of meiosis II. In the G1 phase, a diploid cell has a DNA content represented by x or 2c, which stands for two sets of chromosomes (2n). When a cell undergoes meiosis, it starts with a doubled DNA content (4c after S phase), but through meiosis I and meiosis II, the DNA content and number of chromosomes are halved. By metaphase of meiosis II, the cell has completed meiosis I and has halved its chromosome number already to 2c (1n, where n represents the number of complete sets of chromosomes).
Therefore, if the DNA content is x (2c) in the G1 phase, at metaphase of meiosis II, the DNA content would be x/2 (the haploid content or 1c), since meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half.
The type of bond that forms to join monomers (such as sugars and amino acids) into polymers (such as starch and proteins) is a(n) __________ bond.
Answer:
Covalent
Explanation:
Covalent bonds are the ones that are formed by the sharing of electrons between the bonded atoms. Polysaccharides are the carbohydrates that have simple sugars bonded together by covalent bonds. Glycosidic linkage joins glucose residues of the starch together. Similarly, peptide bonds join the amino acids together to form proteins. Glycosidic bonds and peptide bonds are formed by sharing of electrons and are covalent bonds.
Monomers such as sugars and amino acids form polymers such as starch and proteins through covalent bonds. In specific terms, sugar monomers are joined via glycosidic bonds and amino acids are joined by peptide bonds - both are types of covalent bonds.
Explanation:The type of bond that forms to join monomers (such as sugars and amino acids) into polymers (such as starch and proteins) is a covalent bond
These covalent bonds form when two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons. In the case of forming complex carbohydrates like starch - mono-saccharides (sugar monomers) are joined together via glycosidic bonds - a type of covalent bond. Similarly, amino acids, the monomers of proteins, are joined by peptide bonds, which are also a specialized type of covalent bond.
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Title II of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act prohibits registered public accounting firms from providing certain nonaudit services. These services include all of the following except:
Answer:
A.
tax preparation services.
All of the following are correct about the typical American diet except that it is _________.a. low in calcium. b. low in vitamin D. c. high in sodium. d. high in fiber.
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Final answer:
The typical American diet is high in sodium and low in fiber, vitamin D, and calcium, and lacks an emphasis on nutrient-dense foods. It is not high in fiber, contrary to one of the options provided.
Explanation:
The typical American diet is often criticized for its nutritional imbalances. Among the concerns is that the diet is generally high in sodium and low in essential nutrients such as dietary fiber, vitamin D, and calcium. Moreover, the diet tends to be heavy in calories from solid fats, added sugars, and refined grains, which can displace more nutrient-dense food options. In contrast, a healthier eating pattern would emphasize the consumption of vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and dairy products that are fortified or in their low-fat or fat-free forms to provide these essential nutrients while controlling calorie and sodium intake.
The correct answer to the question is that the typical American diet is not high in fiber; it is actually low in fiber. Over the decades, Americans have increased their consumption of foods high in sugar, which are low in fiber, thereby affecting overall health and nutrition adversely.
Biodiesel is a type of fuel that can be made from animal fat. During production, animal fats are chemically reacted with alcohol to produce fuel. Biodiesel may be used as an energy source in vehicles. Which conclusion is best supported by the information?
Answer:
Biodiesel can be defined as an alternative fuel that is obtained from animal fats, vegetable oils, whether unused or burned. It is done by a chemical reaction called transesterification or another process called esterification. The final product is mixed with alcohol (usually methanol) and can be used in vehicles, either in certain diesel-biodiesel ratios or some engine modifications if it is desired to use alone.
Explanation:
Biodiesel is an important source of alternative energy, since it is a renewable fuel that can be obtained from a wide variety of vegetable and animal fats. It is less harmful to the environment by not generating the same levels of toxic gases that cause the greenhouse effect. On the other hand, glycerin, as a obtained by-product, can be used in applications such as detergents, food additives, cosmetic products, lubricants, etc. Characterizing animal fat may require a high degree of transesterification, producing a high quality biodiesel, which is currently used to recover the organic waste produced by the livestock industry.
Answer: d) biodiesel is considered a renewable energy source because it is made with animal fat
Explanation:
Sorry I’m really late but for people that need it now?
Griffith called the process he observed transformation because
A. the mouse had been transformed.
B. the harmful bacteria had been transformed.
C. the harmless bacteria had been transformed.
D. the experiment had been transformed. Previous Next
Answer:
c. The harmless bacteria had been transformed.
Explanation:
Fredrick Griffith carried out the first experiment that showed bacteria can get DNA by transformation in 1928.
He used two different strains of the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae a)type-III-S or smooth strain-Covered by a protective polysaccharide capsule hence lethal
b) type II-R or rough strain-Lacked the polysaccharide hence non-lethal
In his experiment he observed heat killed Type-III-S strain was not able to kill the mice. However, when its remains was added with rough strain then the blend was able to kill the mice.
When he collected blood from the dead mice it had live strains of both smooth and rough type.
He came to a conclusion that non-lethal type II-R strain was transformed into lethal type II-S strain by a "transforming principle" that was supposed to be the part of dead III-S strain bacteria.
The correct answer is: C. the harmless bacteria had been transformed.
Why did Griffith call the process he observed transformation?Griffith called the process he observed transformation because the harmless bacteria used in his experiment had been transformed into a harmful form. In his famous experiment, Griffith worked with two types of bacteria: a harmless strain and a harmful strain.
He observed that when he injected mice with a mixture of heat-killed harmful bacteria and live harmless bacteria, the mice died. Upon further investigation, he found that the harmless bacteria had somehow taken up genetic material from the heat-killed bacteria and had been transformed into a harmful form.
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Which of the following describes osmosis?
a. Oxygen transfers into red blood cells through small gaps in the cell membrane from the oxygen- rich environment surrounding the cells
b. Large molecules are brought into the cell by wrapping the cell membrane around the molecules to form a vacuole.
c. Water moves across the cell membrane from the side with high osmotic pressure towards the side with low osmotic pressure.
d. Membrane proteins provide a pathway for larger particles to move across the cell membrane and bring the cell and environment closer to equilibrium.
Answer:
The correct option is C.
Explanation:
Osmosis is a good example of passive transport. In this transport across the cell membrane without any input of cellular energy movement of atomic substance occurs.
Osmosis is defined as the movement of water across the selectively permeable cell membrane from the high osmotic pressure potential towards the area of low osmotic pressure potential. Some examples of osmosis are skin soaking up water, plants receiving water, and when exposed to freshwater red blood cells swelling up.
Osmosis, described in option 'c', is the movement of water from a high to a low concentration through a semi-permeable cell membrane. It aims at achieving a equilibrium state, and is present in various biological processes like water absorption in plant cells.
Explanation:The process that best describes osmosis is option 'c'. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semi-permeable cell membrane from an area of high water concentration (or high osmotic pressure) to an area of low water concentration (or low osmotic pressure). This natural process aims to achieve a state of equilibrium, where the water concentration is the same on both sides of the membrane.
To provide an example, plant cells use osmosis to absorb water from the soil. Inside the cell is a solution with various solutes. Compared to the surrounding soil, this solution has lower water concentration or higher osmotic pressure. Therefore, water from the soil enters the plant cell via osmosis, moving from an area of high water concentration to low water concentration.
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Summarize the aerobic phases of cellular respiration?
Answer:
1. Kreb's cycle breakdown the acetyl CoA into CO2 and H2O. The energy released is stored in the reducing powers (NADH and FADH2).
2. The electron transport chain oxidized the reducing powers into their oxidized forms. During this electron transport, the proton concentration gradient is produced across the inner mitochondrial membrane that drives ATP synthesis.
Explanation:
Kreb's cycle and electron transport chain (ETC) are the aerobic phases of cellular respiration. The carbon skeleton glucose enters Kreb's cycle in the form of acetyl CoA and is completely oxidized into CO2 and H2O. For one molecule of glucose, Kreb's cycle produces four molecules of CO2, 6 NADH, and 2 FADH2. In addition, two ATP are also formed by substrate-level phosphorylation.
The NADH and FADH2 enter ETC and are oxidized by giving their electrons to the molecular oxygen. Here, some of the energy of electrons is used to pump the protons from the matrix to intermembrane space. The resultant proton concentration gradient drives ATP synthesis. NADH produces the proton gradient enough to drive around 3 ATPs while FADH2 supports the formation of around 2 ATPs by oxidative phosphorylation.
All of the following foods decrease LES pressure EXCEPT: Select one: a. chocolate b. caffeine c. milk d. peppermint
After crossing true-breeding yellow and green pea plants, Mendel allowed the yellow F1 plants to self. As a result of this F1 self-cross, he observed 5920 yellow peas and 2103 green pea plants. Determine whether or not these data are consistent with his law of equal segregation.
Answer:
The data are not consistent with law of equal segregation.
Explanation:
According to law of segregation, the ratio of yellow peas to green peas at F2 should be 3:1.
yellow green
Observed frequencies 5920 2103
Expected frequency [tex]\frac{3}{4}*8023[/tex] = 6017.25 [tex]\frac{1}{4} * 8023[/tex] = 2005.75
Using Chi square([tex]X^2[/tex]):
[tex]X^2[/tex] yellow = [tex]\frac{(observed frequency - expected frequency)^2}{expected frequency}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{(5920 - 6017.25)^2}{6017.25}[/tex]
= 1.57
[tex]X^2[/tex] green = [tex]\frac{(2103 - 2005.75 )^2}{2005.75 }[/tex]
= 4.72
[tex]X^2[/tex] total = 1.57 + 4.72 = 6.29
Degree of freedom = 2 - 1 = 1
[tex]X^2[/tex] tabulated (α = 0.05) = 3.841
The calculated Chi square value is more than the tabulated Chi square value, hence, the conclusion is that the data are not consistent with law of segregation.
Which of these statements is correct?
A. Scientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing.
B. Science can be used to prove or disprove the idea that deities or spirits cause earthquakes and other natural disasters.
C. Science does not require observations that other people can confirm.
D. Only discovery science can lead to important conclusions about nature.
Final answer:
The correct statement is that scientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing (A). Science focuses on the natural world and relies on observations that other researchers can confirm. Discovery and hypothesis-driven scientific approaches are both valuable for making conclusions about nature.
Explanation:
The correct statement among the options provided is A. Scientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing. This is a fundamental aspect of the scientific method, which involves formulating hypotheses and then conducting experiments and making observations to test these hypotheses. The results are then analyzed, and conclusions are drawn, which may either support or refute the hypotheses. This process can lead to revisions or further testing, contributing to a more accurate understanding of the natural world.
At a conference, the speaker's grand finale was sautéing mealworms (insect larvae) in butter and serving them to the audience. They were crunchy (like popcorn hulls) because their exoskeletons contain the polysaccharide ______________
1.linoleic acid
2.cellulose
3.chitin
4.collagen
5.glycogen
Answer:
3) Chitin
Explanation:
Most insectcs are arthropods which are covered with a hard exoskeleton that helps in their movement and also provide protection to soft tissue. This exoskeleton is made up of protein (sclerotin) and polysaccharide called chitin. Chitin is also found in cell wall of fungi.
Chitin is most abundandant aminopolysaccharide in nature and second most abundant carbohydrate on earth. Chemicaly chitin is known as poly (β-(1-4)-N-acetyl-D-glucosamine. Chitin is flexible, transparent and, as u tasted, crunchy subatance.
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