Answer:
13m/s
Explanation:
The speed= distance traveled/elapsed time
Therefore speed=65/5
=13m/s
The Golgi apparatus...
A. strings together amino acids to produce proteins
B. is the site of carbohydrate breakdown
C. stores, modifies, and packages proteins
D. is composed of stacks of membrnaeous vesicles that are continuous with one another
Answer:
The correct answer is C. stores, modifies, and packages proteins
Explanation:
Golgi apparatus is an organelle that is bounded by a single membrane and it is a part of the endomembrane system. It is made up of 5-8 membrane-bound flattened sac known as cisternae.
Golgi apparatus receives the proteins which are made in the endoplasmic reticulum and it does storage, modification, and packaging of these proteins.
Protein glycosylation, sulfation, phosphorylation are the type of modification that occurs inside the Golgi apparatus. Then these proteins are packaged inside a vesicle and released into the cytoplasm from where they move to their target site. So the right answer is C.
What would happen to the electron transport system (ETS) and oxidative phosphorylation pathway in the presence of excess NADH if the mitochondrial matrix were not closed, but opened up to the cytoplasm?
Answer:
ETS: It would function normally and would oxidize NADH into NAD+
Oxidative phosphorylation: It would not synthesize ATP
Explanation:
Under normal conditions, the inner mitochondrial membrane does not allow the protons to cross it. As electrons are passed from NADH to the electron carriers of ETC, the protons are pumped into the intermembrane space. This makes the intermembrane space more acidic and has a higher concentration of protons than the matrix. The resultant proton concentration gradient is used to drive ATP synthesis.
If the matrix was opened up to cytoplasm, NADH would be oxidized normally by giving its electrons to the molecular oxygen. However, the proton concentration gradient would be dissipated due to the diffusion of protons towards the cytoplasm. It would not allow ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation.
Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: a. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. b. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. c. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. d. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injur
Neurogenic shock is a serious condition where failure of the nervous system leads to widespread vasodilation, or the widening of blood vessels, thereby causing significant drops in blood pressure. It commonly happens after a severe injury or trauma, particularly injuries to the spinal cord.
Explanation:Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a failure of the nervous system causing widespread vasodilation. In simpler terms, this means that the nervous system doesn't correctly regulate blood vessels, leading to their widening (vasodilation), which in turn decreases blood pressure significantly. This situation is different from an issue where there's too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container, massive vasoconstriction occurs after a spinal cord injury, or the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
When severe enough, neurogenic shock can be life-threatening and it generally happens after some types of severe injury or trauma, especially injuries to the spinal cord.
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Neurogenic shock is a vascular shock that occurs when the nervous system fails, causing widespread vasodilation. This happens due to injuries that damage the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata or the nervous fibers originating from this region. The treatment involves restoring tone to the muscles of the vessels and alleviating the underlying cause of the condition.
Explanation:Neurogenic shock occurs when failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. This type of shock happens due to cranial or spinal injuries that damage the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata or the nervous fibers originating from this region. When this happens, arterioles lose their normal muscular tone and dilate dramatically, causing vascular shock.
Another form of shock is anaphylactic shock - a severe allergic response that causes the widespread release of histamines, triggering vasodilation throughout the body. Observing the cause of the shock is important for proper treatment. Vascular shock, for example, is treated by restoring tone to the muscles of the vessels and eliminating or at least alleviating the underlying cause of the condition. This might include antibiotics and antihistamines, or select steroids, which may aid in the repair of nerve damage.
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Cellular slime molds live as individual amoeboid cells when food is plentiful. When food decreases, the cells may come together by the thousand in a form called a slug. This slug possesses cells called sentinel cells, which display a primitive immune function because they Group of answer choices
1. circulate through the slug, engulfing bacteria.
2. inserting spikes into bacteria, causing lysis of the bacteria.
3. will produce antibodies in the presence of a virus.
4. release signal molecules similar to cytokines.
Answer:
1. circulate through the slug, engulfing bacteria
Explanation:
A sentinel cell is a cell of the immune system that is in charge of "eating" any kind of parasite in the body. In this case, it circulates through the slug and whenever it sees a bacterium, virus or foreign object, the sentinel cell engulfs it immediately.
Once the sentinel cell has eaten the bacterium, it produces several enzymes and substances that degrade the bacterium.
biologists proposed 3 alternative hypothesis about dna replication. which of the three alternative hypothesis has been determined to settle the question about replication and by whom?
The hypothesis of semi-conservative mode of replication has been settled about replication by Watson and Crick.
Explanation:
Earlier for DNA replication, three hypothesis was made those were conservative mode of replication, Semi-conservative mode of the replication and dispersive mode of replication.
Meselson and Stahl used heavy nitrogen isotope in bacterial culture to see the presence of the isoptopes. In their experiment, they found those labelled with 15N had 15 N in their replicated cells and those with 14 N retain the same. With this, the hypothesis of semiconservative mode of replication given by Watson andCrick was accepted. It states that a DNA strand unwinds to form template for the daughter DNA to be formed hence genetic information remain conserved. Each strand synthesized will have one parent strand and the other will be daughter strand.
People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________.A. malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait
B. the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait
C. sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria
D. people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
According to the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), up to what percentage of your daily calories should be provided by carbohydrate?
The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) recommends that 45-65% of your total daily calories should come from carbohydrates, ideally from healthy sources.
Explanation:According to the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), it is recommended that 45-65% of your total daily calories be provided by carbohydrates. It's important to note that these should be healthy sources of carbohydrates such as whole grains, fruits, and vegetables, rather than refined carbs and sugars. The AMDR is a range of intake for a particular energy source that is associated with reduced risk of chronic disease while providing essential nutrients.
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Dr. Jones says that she has a hypothetical explanation about the relationship between the ingestion of caffeine and the experience of anxiety. Which term would BEST describe Dr. Jones's hypothesis?
Answer:
Her hypothesis is a theory
Explanation:
A theory refers to an explanation or hypothesis that is intended to explain something based on the general principles independent of the thing being explained therefore it simply a speculation hence it is unsubstantiated.
Dr. Jones has hypothetical explanation but it has not been tested to determine the relationship between ingestion of caffeine and anxiety. So its is simply a speculation making his hypothesis theory.
Recall that Archaea and Bacteria used to be grouped in the same category. How were archaeons first distinguished from other prokaryotes?
Answer:
By difference in there ribosomal RNA sequence
Explanation:
Both bacteria and archaea lack membrane-bound nucleus and earlier both are considered in the same categories. Carl Woese was the scientist who discovered that bacteria and archaea are not similar.
Carl Woese and his lab members checked the ribosomal RNA in some archaeans and concluded that the archaeans are more closely related to eukaryotes than bacteria. After the study on archean Carl Woese classified the prokaryotes into two domains i.e., bacteria and archaea.
Therefore by difference in the ribosomal RNA sequence archaeons first distinguished from other prokaryotes.
They were distinguished from other prokaryotes through the differences in ribosomal RNA sequences.
• The cell wall composition varies between bacteria and archae. The archae are the single-celled prokaryotes that possess distinct molecular features, which separates them from bacteria and other prokaryotes.
• An American microbiologist named Carl Woese based on the analysis of ribosomal RNA suggested that prokaryotes in reality comprises two distinct lineages, that is, archae and bacteria.
• Carl Woese along with his colleagues examined the ribosomal RNA in some archaeans and discovered that archae are most closely associated with eukaryotes than to bacteria.
Thus, based on Carl Woese ribosomal RNA study experiments he suggested that archaeans vary from other prokaryotes.
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answer correctly 50 POINTS!!
50 POINTSSS!!!!!!!!!!
3. A pedigree can be used to
a. determine whether a trait is inherited.
b. show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d. all of the above
4. Blood typing is an example of __________________. This is where there is one gene but that one gene can have several different characteristics
a. multiple alleles
b. dihybrid trait
c. homozygous dominance
d. incomplete dominance
Answer:
3. d
4. a
10. b
Respiration question. b
4. c
9. a
Explanation:
3. A pedigree is a family tree that maps how a trait appears in a family.It maps the inheritance of the trait from generation to generation, and shows scientists features of the trait, for example the pattern of inheritance, whether it is sex linked, and whether it is dominant or recessive
4. There are multiple alleles that cause different blood type phenotypes in humans, but these are all variations of one gene. There are A, B, and O alleles. A and B show codominance, if a person has both of these alleles they will express both as part of the phenotype.
10. The trait is recessive. This can be definitively determined because there are individuals in the youngest generation who have the trait even though neither of their parents have it. This means both parents must be heterozygous for the trait
Respiration question . b. The reactants of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water, which, with sunlight, are used to make sugars, which can be used as an energy source for the cell, and oxygen as a by-product. The glucose and oxygen are used in cellular respiration to produce chemical energy, with the release of carbon dioxide and water.
4. The inheritance cannot be sex-linked, because there is an affected male in generation II who must have got his Y chromosome from his affected dad (and therefore his X from his unaffected mother). This is likely autosomal dominant, because all the affected individuals go on to have affected children.
9. The chart shows that the closer the plant is to the light source, the more gas is produced. This gas is oxygen, which is released during photosynthesis. Therefore, the closer the light source, the more chemical energy available to drive photosynthesis and the more photosynthesis that is carried out
A chart illustrating the hereditary pattern of a family and its generation is called a pedigree chart. It represents the characters and illness of a family.
Pedigree is a chart that illustrates the traits inherited in a family and how it gets passed through generations. Also, it represents dominant and recessive alleles.The correct option is Option D. All of the above
A blood group is controlled by multiple alleles and is a non- Mendelian pattern of inheritanceThe correct answer for the blank is Option A. Multiple alleles
The trait is recessive because neither of the parents is diseased and it must be a heterozygous gene in the parent in this case.The correct answer is Option B. Recessive
Cellular respiration yields water and carbon dioxide from glucose in the presence of oxygen. While in photosynthesis the water and carbon dioxide along with solar energy forms oxygen and glucose.The correct answer is Option B. The products of cellular respiration are the reactants of photosynthesis.
This is an autosomal dominant disease caused all the infected individuals produced the infected progenies.The correct option is Option C. Autosomal dominant
The closer placement produces more gas that is oxygen that is produced during the process of photosynthesis.The correct answer is Option A. The closer the light source the higher will be the amount of oxygen.
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Describe your ideas about why indigenous groups of people in different parts of the world have different skin colors from other groups of people and use at least three different types of evidence that supports your ideas. (3pts)
Answer:
The indigenous groups of individuals in distinct parts of the world possess different skin colors from other groups of individuals. Following are the different kinds of evidence, which supports the idea:
1. The individuals would have moved around the globe, however, they would have still kept their skin color DNA.
2. There also would have been more individuals living all over the globe and the skin color of the individuals would have changed gradually with time.
3. Living at higher altitudes would have resulted in more variation as the amount of exposure would have been different from the individuals moving around the world.
Indigenous groups have different skin colors due to evolutionary adaptations to their environments, such as protection against UV radiation. The concept of race is not scientifically justifiable, and perceptions of skin color within racial groups are influenced by colorism.
Explanation:Indigenous groups of people in different parts of the world have different skin colors due to evolutionary adaptations to their environments. Skin pigmentation is an adaptation to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, with different tones offering different advantages. For example, those living at high altitudes in the Andes have higher concentrations of hemoglobin in their blood to compensate for low oxygen levels.
According to biological anthropologists, there is no scientifically justifiable way to divide the human population into racial categories. Any way you draw the lines, there will be more variation within categories than between categories. The concept of race has historically changed across cultures and has become less connected with ancestral and familial ties.
Additionally, the belief that one type of skin tone is superior or inferior to another within a racial group, known as colorism, has influenced societal perceptions of indigenous groups' skin colors. However, it is important to recognize that these perceptions are rooted in prejudice and discrimination, rather than scientific fact.
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It has been discovered that many plants synthesize molecules that destroy the corpora allata, which are the structures responsible for synthesis of juvenile hormone. Insects exposed to these molecules do not molt. Which statement reflects how levels of juvenile hormone disrupt the insect life cycle?
A) Reduced juvenile hormone prevents molting.
B) Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
C) Reduced juvenile hormone causes insects to molt prematurely into sterile adults.
D) Exposure to juvenile hormone causes juvenile insects to die.
Answer:
B) Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
Explanation:
Given that, Plants synthesize(i.e plant produce a combination of elements) molecules that destroy the corpora allata. The corpora allata are structure responsible for synthesis (production) of Juvenile hormone.
This implies that, Plant produces molecules that destroy the structure responsible for the production of Juvenile hormone.
If we proceed, the question continues by saying Insect exposed to these molecules do not molt.(i.e insect exposed to these molecule do not change in growth)
What is molting?
Molting often called (ecdysis) is the phase of growth and development in insect that comprises of two main activities which are shedding and replacement of their culticular exoskeleton layer in order to make way for new growth and new stage of an insect.
Therefore from the aforementioned, the best statement that reflects how levels of juvenile hormones disrupt the insect liffe cycle is that : Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
Which of the following structural arrangements of the components in biological membranes facilitates the cell membrane's property of selective permeability?
Answer:
The correct answer is- proteins embedded into two layers of phospholipids
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is a mosaic of many components like phospholipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and cholesterol. This mosaic nature of cell membrane gives a fluid character to the membrane.
So due to this fluidity, the proteins present in the membrane can do movements like flip flop which helps in the movement of molecules across the membrane.
These proteins are called transporter which gives the property of selective permeability to the cell membrane because they bind specifically to some molecules and allow them to cross the cell membrane.
You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this indicate?
A. Closed head injuryB. Open head injuryC. Damage to C3, C4, or C5D. Damage to his thoracic spine
Answer:
Answer is C. Damage to C3, C4 or C5.
Explanation:
C1 - C7 are used to represent the number of vertebrae found at the cervical region of the vertebrae canal or column. The vertebrae column comprises off various vertebrae that protect the spinal cord,which starts from the neck region to the tail region.
The C3, C4 and C5 are at the midsection of the cervical region of the spine , and they provide support for the neck and the head.
These vertebrae contain nerves which if affected will cause a serious pain. which can actually affect his breathing. Because, the spinal nerves around the spinal cord are linked to the brain.
An important technique that helps provide insight into interesting genetic questions at the molecular level, such as reasons for hairless dogs, is called _____.
Answer:
DNA sequencing
Explanation:
DNA sequencing is a technique which helps in determining the DNA sequence of any organism. In the human genome project, all the bases that make DNA in humans are sequenced which helped doctors to determine the cause of many genetic diseases and also their treatment.
Hairlessness in dogs can be genetic and the mutated gene can be determined by sequencing the DNA of hairless dog and comparing it with the normal DNA sequence of dog. Therefore the correct answer is DNA sequencing.
In defining a disease to be studied, epidemiologists use the term disease broadly, but ___________ is a more accurate but cumbersome description of what is to be studied.
Answer: Health outcomes
Explanation:
Health outcome can be defined as the events that occurs after an intervention or care, these events can be measured clinically by physical examination, laboratory testing and imaging; self reported or observed.
Health outcomes are defined as changes in health of an individual or a group of individuals that result from specific healthcare interventions. Example of health outcome is improvement in a patient's eye sight after a cataract surgery.
Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?
-Secretion of granzyme
-Recognition of infected host cell using its TCR
-Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
-Secretion of perforin
Answer: Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
Explanation: Most cytotoxic T cells express T-cell receptors (TCRs) that can recognize a specific antigen on host cells. This is usually the first step in the destruction of infected host cells. This is followed by the release of two cytotoxic proteins that were earlier formed. First of which is the perforin which creates holes or pores in the membrane of target cells. Next comes the granzymes that induces cell death (apoptosis)
The step that cytotoxic T cells do not use to kill infected host cells is the recognition of infected cells using its CD4 glycoprotein. This is associated with helper T cells, not cytotoxic T cells which use TCR and CD8 protein for recognition. The cytotoxic T cells kill cells by secreting perforin and granzyme.
Explanation:The step that is NOT used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells is the recognition of the infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein. The CD4 glycoprotein is associated with helper T cells, not cytotoxic T cells. Cytotoxic T cells recognize infected cells using the T cell receptor (TCR) and CD8 protein, not the CD4 glycoprotein.
Once recognition has occurred, cytotoxic T cells kill infected cells by secreting special proteins known as perforin and granzyme. Perforin forms pores in the membrane of the infected cell and granzyme enters the cell through these pores, triggering the cell to undergo apoptosis (cell death).
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Describe the means by which Hershey and Chase established that only the DNA of a phage enters an E. coli cell. What conclusions did these scientists draw based on these observations?
Answer:
Harshey and chase labeled T2 bacteriophage with radioactive sulfur and radioactive phosphorus. As DNA contains phosphorus, not protein and protein contain sulfur, not phosphorus, therefore, the presence of radioactivity in cell can determine which is the genetic material .
Then Harshey and Chase infected E.coli with T2 bacteriophage and centrifuged the cell. They found radioactive phosphorus in cell pellet and radioactive sulfur in supernatant.
So by this experiment, they concluded and proved that DNA is the genetic material that gets transfer from one generation to another.
The skin is the body's largest organ. It's made up of many different types of cells. Oils, produced by the sebaceous glands, prevent the skin from drying and splitting. The protein melanin, produced by melanocytes in the epidermis, protects the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation. Sweat, released through ducts to the skin surface, helps to cool the body. The types of cells that produce these compounds have different numbers of specific organelles, depending on their function.The oil from the sebaceous glands is produced by which of the following cell organelles?
a) ribosomes
b) brough endoplasmic reticulum
c) cell membrane
d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e) central vacuole
Answer:
d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum which is located inside the cytoplasm of an eukaryotic cell is composed of a disklike structure. It role is to integrate lipid production, synthesis of sex hormones e.g steriod hormones. They also produces the oil from the sebaceous glands that are release via the Hair follicles. The main purpose of the oil produced is to put a stop to hair from drying out.
Drag the correct word from the left into the sentence on the right to complete each sentence. In anabolic reactions that involve the synthesis of a large molecule from smaller precursor molecules, NADH and ATP arewhen they provide the needed electrons or energy. consumed In catabolic reactions that involve the breakdown of a molecule into smaller subunits, such as glucose to pyruvate, NADH and ATP are produced synthesized In the reaction Pyruvate +NADH-Lactate +NAD, pyruvate is being oxidized In the reaction Pyruvate NADH-Lactate +NAD, NADH is being reduced
Answer:
The correct matches are:
In anabolic reactions that involve the synthesis of a large molecule from smaller precursor molecules, NADH and ATP are consumed when they provide the needed electrons or energy.In catabolic reactions that involve the breakdown of a molecule into smaller subunits, such as glucose to pyruvate, NADH and ATP are produced. In the reaction Pyruvate +NADH-Lactate +NAD, pyruvate is being reduced. In the reaction Pyruvate NADH-Lactate +NAD, NADH is being oxidized.Explanation:
Being involved in synthesis, anabolic reactions require energy in the form of energy storing molecules such as NADH and ATP. Anabolic processes utilize energy produced by the catabolism of complex compounds.Catabolic processes produce energy or energy storing compounds by breaking down complex substances into simpler ones. All steps of cellular respiration are catabolic processes since they generate energy in the form of ATP or energy yielding molecules such as NADH and FADH2.Anaerobic respiration takes place during intense physical activity due to which adequate oxygen does not reach the cells. Insufficient oxygen shuttles the pyruvate molecules produced by glycolysis into the lactic acid pathway that reduces pyruvate into lactic acid.Since, NADH is donating its H+, it is being oxidized to NAD+.Anabolic reactions involve the synthesis of large molecules, consuming NADH and ATP, while catabolic reactions break down large molecules producing NADH and ATP. In the reaction, Pyruvate + NADH to Lactate + NAD, pyruvate is being oxidized and NADH is being reduced.
Explanation:In anabolic reactions, large molecules are synthesized from smaller precursor molecules, during which NADH and ATP are consumed as they provide the necessary electrons or energy. A classic example of an anabolic process is the synthesis of proteins from amino acids. On the other hand, catabolic reactions involve the breakdown of a large molecule into smaller subunits. For example, glucose breaks down into pyruvate in a process where NADH and ATP are synthesized or produced.
In the reaction of Pyruvate + NADH -> Lactate + NAD, pyruvate is being oxidized and NADH is being reduced. In simpler terms, pyruvate loses electrons (and is thus oxidized), while NADH gains electrons (hence it is reduced).
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does a cross bridge in a sarcomere of a fast fiber produce the same amount of forces as a cross bridge in a sarcomere of a slow fiber?
Answer:
Cross bridge in a sarcomere of a fast fiber produce higher amounts of force as compared to a cross bridge in a sarcomere of a slow fiber
Explanation:
When a muscle contracts, a cross bridge is formed between actin and myosin. The sarcomere shortens when a muscle contracts by reforming cross bridge. In general a muscle fiber is of three types – a) slow, b) Fast and c) intermediate.
The sarcomere of fast fiber generates high force but for a short period of time. On the other hand, sarcomere of slow fiber generate lower amounts of force but this force lasts for a longer period of time. Due to this difference, fast fibers are the predominant fibers in the body
A pea plant that comes from a line of true breeding tall plants is crossed with a dwarf pea plant. What are the phenotypes and genotypes of the F1 generation?
Answer:
All F1 progeny will be heterozygous(Tt) for tall character.
Explanation:
Ifpea plant that comes from a line of true-breeding tall plants than the genotype of the plant would be TT and when this plant is crossed with dwarf plant who have genotype tt for height trait then all the progeny will be tall phenotypically because all the phenotype would be heterozygous.
T T
t Tt Tt
t Tt Tt
So the genotype of all F1 generation offspring would be Tt and phenotype would be tall because all have one dominant allele of tall character.
The F1 generation from a cross between a true breeding tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant will have a 100% tall phenotype, with genotypes being heterozygous (Tt). This is due to the dominant nature of the tall allele.
When a pea plant from a line of true breeding tall plants is crossed with a dwarf pea plant, the F1 generation will display the tall phenotype, because tallness is a dominant trait. True breeding plants have two copies of the same allele, so the tall plant is homozygous dominant (TT), and the dwarf plant is homozygous recessive (tt). When these two are crossed, all F1 offspring will have a heterozygous genotype (Tt) and display the tall phenotype.
To illustrate this, a Punnett square could be utilised. The square would show all possible genotypes of the offspring from the cross, indicating that they would all inherit one dominant allele for height from the tall parent and one recessive allele from the dwarf parent, resulting in genotypes of Tt.
Hence, the genotypes of the F1 generation will be 100% heterozygous for the tall trait (Tt), and the phenotypes will be 100% tall, because the presence of at least one dominant allele (T) results in the tall phenotype.
An F1 plant that is homozygous for shortness is crossed with a heterozygous F1 plant. What is the probability that a seed from the cross will produce a tall plant? use a Punnett square to explain your answer and to compare the probable variations in the F2 plants.
Answer:
1/2 or 50%
Explanation:
Let's assume that the allele "T" gives a "tall" phenotype while the allele "t" gives a "short" phenotype to the plants. The genotype of the homozygous short plants would be "tt". The genotype of the F1 heterozygous tall plant would be "Tt". A cross between "Tt" and "tt" would give progeny in following ratio=
Tt x tt = 1/2 tall (Tt): 1/2 short (tt)
Therefore, there is 1/2 or 50% chance that the seeds from the given cross produce a tall plant.
The probability that a seed from the cross will produce a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{1}{2}\)[/tex] or 50%.
Here is the Punnett square for the cross between the homozygous short (tt) plant and the heterozygous (Tt) plant:
Out of these four possible outcomes, three result in a tall plant (since tallness is dominant and only one tall allele is needed for the tall phenotype). Therefore, the probability of getting a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\).[/tex]
However, the question asks for the probability that a seed will produce a tall plant, which means we are looking for the proportion of tall genotypes in the offspring. Since heterozygous tall (Tt) and homozygous tall (TT) are both tall, we count all instances of Tt and TT. In this case, there are no TT offspring, so we only count the Tt offspring.
There are three Tt offspring out of four total offspring, so the probability of a seed producing a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\)[/tex] or 75%.
For the F2 generation, if we were to self-fertilize the heterozygous tall (Tt) plants from the F1 generation, we would expect the following Punnett square:
The expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation would be 1:2:1 for homozygous tall (TT), heterozygous tall (Tt), and homozygous short (tt), respectively. This is because there is one TT, two Tt, and one tt outcome in the Punnett square.
In summary, the probability that a seed from the cross between a homozygous short plant and a heterozygous plant will produce a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\)[/tex] or 75%. The expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation from self-fertilizing the F1 heterozygous tall plants is 1:2:1 for TT:Tt:tt.
A nursing student has begun a clinical placement at a large hospital that serves a diverse population. The student has consequently acquired a new appreciation for the fact that nursing combines art with science. What is the clearest manifestation of the scientific basis for nursing
Answer:
Answer is Providing evidence - based nursing care.
Explanation:
It should be note noted that, the development of an accumulating body of unique scientific knowledge, which makes it easier to predict the specific nursing interventions that are most likely to produce the expected or desired result, is referred to as the evidence-based practice.
It should be understood that the process of participating in continuing education and mentoring are important and beneficial, but ,they are not considered as the direct manifestation of the scientific basis for nursing.
The evidence-based practice is made possible due to the scientific basis that underlies nursing.
A mother asks the nurse how to swaddle her newborn because she heard that it helps infants calm down. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching.
Answer:
The nurse should include the following;
Swaddling is the method of wrapping the baby in cloth e.g blanket, to create comfort, warmth, calmness and to make them feel secured.
Physiologically, peripheral cyanosis is common to new born hands and feets,This is because the baby's circulatory system is not fully developed.This old technique provides warmth for the limbs of the baby to maintain even distribution of heat energy in the body.
Other benefits of Swaddling
It induces sleep in babies
It reduces startle reflex, because baby’s limbs are rap up and immobile therefore no free movement which may promote startle reflex.
How to swaddle a baby
The blanket should be spread out in diamond shape, A corner of the blanket should point upwards, while the top corner should be folded down to the short height of 6 inches.
The baby should be placed in supine position, with the head on the folded top corner, while the remaining body parts occupies the full length of the blanket.
The left side of the blanket should be wrapped over the left arm and chest. while the other part of the blanket should be inserted under the right arm and back . This leaves the baby’s right arm free.
Risk.
The wrapping should not be tight. Enough rooms should be given to the limbs of the baby to allow bending of the limbs. Baby should be able to bend her legs up and stretch out of the hip
.
Explanation:
The purpose of swaddling a newborn is to provide comfort, security, and promote better sleep by mimicking the womb environment.
Comfort: Swaddling provides a sense of security and comfort to newborns. It recreates the feeling of being in the womb, where they were confined and cozy. This can help reduce anxiety and calm a fussy baby.
Reduced Startle Reflex: Newborns have a strong startle reflex that can wake them up from sleep. Swaddling restricts their arm movement, reducing this reflex and allowing for longer, uninterrupted sleep.
Better Sleep: Swaddling can contribute to longer and more restful sleep for both the baby and parents. Babies tend to sleep better when they feel secure and cozy, which can help establish a more predictable sleep pattern.
Safety: When done correctly, swaddling can help keep loose blankets away from the baby's face, reducing the risk of suffocation. It also prevents the baby from accidentally scratching their face.
Thermal Comfort: Swaddling provides a sense of security and comfort to newborns. It recreates the feeling of being in the womb, where they were confined and cozy. This can help reduce anxiety and calm a fussy baby.
It's important to note that while swaddling has its benefits, it must be done safely. The swaddle should allow for hip movement to prevent hip dysplasia, and the baby should be placed on their back to sleep to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
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Question
What is the purpose of swaddling a newborn?
Mary Morgan has just been brought into the emergency room of City General Hospital. She is perspiring profusely and is breathing rapidly and irregularly. Her breath smells like acetone (sweet and fruity), and her blood glucose tests out at 650 mg/100 ml of blood. She is in acidosis. Which hormone drug should be administered, and why?
Answer:
The insulin must be administered.
Explanation:
In the given question the Mary has the acidosis that is the level of pH in the blood have dropped below 7.
It is also provided that the smell of her breath is fruity due to the accumulation of fruity smell molecules called ketones which could be the result of the ketosis. Ketosis occurs when the cellular respiration uses fat as a substrate instead of the carbohydrate. This shows Mary has a condition called ketoacidosis.
The increased level of the glucose in the blood shows that the glucose is not absorbed by the cell which involves the insulin therefore the doctor should administer the insulin drug to the patient.
Thus, insulin is the correct answer.
Administer insulin to address high blood glucose levels and symptoms of ketoacidosis.
In the case of Mary Morgan's symptoms, with a blood glucose level of 650 mg/100 ml and signs of ketoacidosis, administering insulin is crucial. Insulin helps lower blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose into cells, which can help correct the ketoacidosis and its associated symptoms.
A man is a carrier for Wilson's disease (Aa) and Rotor syndrome (Rr). Assume the genes involved in these two disorders are both on chromosome 13 (a non-sex chromosome). Below are possible representations of his genotype (labeled #1, #2, and #3). Which of them could be correct?
A. #1 only
B. #2 only
C. #3 only
D. #2 and #3 only
E. #1, #2 and #3
Answer:
The correct answer is "#2 and #3 only"
Explanation:
A and a are alleles, and R and r are alleles. Alleles of a gene are found at the same locus on homologous chromosomes. Every pair of the alleles depicts the genotype of a particular gene. Homozygous genotype occurs when two similar alleles at same locus and heterozygous in case of two nonidentical alleles. Due to the alleles there occurs a change in the appearance. An alleles create differences in gene.
After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known asA) rigor mortis.B) tetany.C) treppe.D) oxygen debt.E) depolarization.
Answer:
A) rigor mortis
Explanation:
Rigor mortis is the condition of the partial contraction of muscles when the muscles cannot contract or stretch. It occurs after death as the ATP supply to muscle cells stops. The leaky cellular membranes results in leakage of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. The presence of calcium in sarcoplasm triggers the binding of myosin heads to actin. The myosin heads remain attached to actin and muscles are prevented to be relaxed.
Because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the water molecule and the covalent bonds that form it are described as __________.
Answer:
Polar/ Hydrophilic
Explanation:
Electronegative atoms is the tendency of an element to attract a pair of electrons to itself.
Since water, H2O is composed of H+ and O2-, oxygen os the most electronegative element and this is because of it incomplete outer shell i.e valence electron is 6 (4 electrons in its p- orbital) and so it needs a pair of electrons to become stable, hence its high affinity for electrons.
Hydrogen on the other hand cannot lose its only electron and it has one electron in its s orbital. So there is sharing of these electrons, hence the definition of covalent bond.
A polar covalent bond is formed because the electronegativity difference between Oxygen a d Hydrogen is not negligible.
Shane, an 11-year-old boy, has autism spectrum disorder (ASD). His fraternal twin brother, Topher, is at higher risk for having ASD than would be the case if Topher were just a sibling. Why is that so?
Answer:
Genetic and Environmental Factors
Explanation:
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a developmental disorder that affects how a person behaves, interacts with others and learns.
Studies have found that when one identical twin has ASD, chances are extremely likely that the other twin has it, too.
Genetic and environmental factors are connected. Environmental factors includes such influences as parental age at conception, maternal nutrition, infection during pregnancy and premature.
For example, genetically, fraternal twins share about half of their genes. Because these twins shared a womb, they are more likely to have had the same environmental influences than non-twin siblings.
Topher is at higher risk of having ASD because he's a fraternal twin of Shane who has ASD. Fraternal twins share more genetic material than non-twin siblings. There is a known genetic factor in ASD, hence, a higher risk.
Explanation:Topher, being a fraternal twin to Shane who has autism spectrum disorder (ASD), has a higher risk of also having the disorder compared to if he were just a sibling. This is because genetics play a significant role in the development of ASD. While fraternal twins do not share exact genetic information as identical twins do, they still share a larger proportion of their genetic materials than siblings who are not twins.
Studies show that if one twin has ASD, the other twin--though not identical--has a 31% chance of also having ASD, compared to about 3-14% for non-twin siblings. This demonstrates the combination of genetic factors and shared environmental influences in the development of ASD.
Learn more about Autism Spectrum Disorder here:https://brainly.com/question/34764807
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