Answer: Option B) Yes, the solution is hypotonic, causing the cell to burst.
Explanation:
Because a hypotonic solution is of lower concentration to its surrounding, a cell placed in such solution absorbs the content of the solution, swells and then burst due to the uncontrolled inflow of the solution through its cell membrane.
Thus, the answer is Yes, the solution is hypotonic and cause the cell to burst.
Which of the following best describes how cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap influence the infectious rate of a virus on a surface as discussed in the article?
Group of answer choices
These cleaning products are not effective against reducing viral infections. Only alcohol based produces will cause the viruses to be no longer infectious.
These cleaning products break apart the DNA or RNA of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of reproducing.
These cleaning products are used to wash way the viral particles from the surface, but do not disrupt the components of the viruses themselves.
These cleaning products break apart the capsules of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of infecting an individual.
Answer:
These cleaning products break apart the capsules of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of infecting an individual.
Explanation:
Bleach oxidises organic molecules. This causes proteins to become denatured, or lose their shape. The viral capsule containing the DNA is a coat made up of proteins that is required for the virus to become infectious. Therefore, following bleach treatment, the viral protein capsule become oxidised, cause them to loses their shape, meaning the virus can no longer infect individuals.
Cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap disrupt the capsules of viruses, making them unable to infect. Chlorine and hydrogen peroxide are strong oxidizing agents that damage the protein and lipid structures of the virus, while soap disrupts the fats in the virus shell.
Explanation:Cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap have a significant effect on the infectious rate of a virus on a surface. These cleaning products function by breaking apart the capsules of the viruses, which renders them unable to infect an individual.
For instance, chlorine and hydrogen peroxide are powerful oxidizing agents, which can break the protein and lipid structures that make up the virus's envelope or capsid. When this outer structure is damaged or destroyed, the virus loses its ability to attach to host cells and start an infection.
Soap, on the other hand, disrupts the fats in a virus shell, effectively inactivating the virus by making it incapable of binding to human cells. Therefore, these cleaning products effectively reduce the risk of viral infection by physically destroying viruses present on surfaces.
Learn more about Effect of Cleaning Products on Viruses here:https://brainly.com/question/33834010
#SPJ3
During pregnancy a woman's blood volume increases to accommodate the growing fetus to the point that vital signs may remain within normal range without showing signs of shock until the woman has lost what percentage of her blood volume?
Answer:
The correct answer is - 40%.
Explanation:
The condition of the shock in an individual occur if she experienced the blood loss 40 % or more of her total blood pressure during pregnancy as she require enough amount of blood for the essential body organs to function.
As the fetus grow the women's blood volume is also increases to accommodate accordingly. This condition leads to blood loss of the mother. The critical limit is 40% of total blood.
Thus, the correct answer is - 40%
Sally, age 28, recently married John, age 45. They would like to have a child, but they are concerned that they may be at high risk to have a child with a chromosomal abnormality, like Down’s syndrome, because of John’s age. What is their genetic counselor likely to tell them?
Answer:
The doctor will talk to the couple about having a child at this age. As there is a huge age gap in between these two partners.
The female is of age 28 and the male is of age 45. At such an age there are chances that the child borne can suffer from different genetic disorders but not by down syndrome.
This is so because the Down syndrome occurs when the age of female is more than 30 or 35 years of age.
A genetic counselor would likely tell Sally and John that while John's age may slightly increase their risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality, the overall risk remains relatively low. They would also discuss various genetic testing options available to help them make informed decisions.
Explanation:Sally and John's concern about potential chromosomal abnormalities in their child due to John's age can be addressed by their genetic counselor. While maternal age is a well-known factor that can increase the risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality, such as Down’s syndrome, the effect of paternal age is not as striking and remains a topic of ongoing research. Some studies suggest that increasing paternal age might be linked to an increased risk of certain rare birth defects or psychiatric conditions, but the overall risk remains relatively low.
Therefore, the genetic counselor is likely to advise them that although John's age might slightly increase the risk of certain conditions, the overall risk remains low, and there are genetic testing options before and during pregnancy to assess the health status of their potential child. Ultimately, the decision on whether or when to have a child may take into account a variety of individual and combined health, lifestyle, and personal factors.
Learn more about Genetic Counseling here:https://brainly.com/question/31833913
#SPJ3
Assuming no crossing over between the gene in question and the centromere, during what phase of meiosis do alleles segregate?
Answer:
During Anaphase stage
Explanation:
Meiosis is the type of cell division employed during gamete formation when each resulting gamete (daughter cell) has their chromosomal number reduced by half. Meiosis occurs in a two step division; Meiosis I and II. Meiosis I involves the separation of homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) while Meiosis II involves separation of sister chromatids (replicated chromosomes).
Alleles are present on the chromosomes which segregate or separate during the anaphase stage. Alleles received from each parent are separated in Anaphase I of meiosis I, which the identical replicated alleles are separated in anaphase of meiosis II.
The phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
Meiosis is a cell division in which a parent cell divides twice and thus generates four germinal cells having half the genetic material.Meiosis can be divided into two division steps: Meiosis I and Meiosis II.Each one of these stages can in run divided into Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase (in Anaphase I stage alleles segregate to opposite poles) and Telophase.In conclusion, the phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
Learn more in:
https://brainly.com/question/1757508
Pls hep me i don't understand!!!!!!
In the image below, does Group A or Group B have a stronger gravitational force between the objects in the group? Give one supporting detail for your answer. Two sets of circles. In Group A, the distance between the two objects is 5 m. In Group B, the distance between the two objects is 10 m.
Answer:
Group A.
Explanation:
The bigger 2 objects are, the more gravitation they exert upon each other. However, since size is unknown, you can assume that group A has stronger gravitation, since 2 equal-size objects put closer together have a stronger pull than 2 objects placed far apart.
Think about the earth orbiting the sun. It's in a good zone of not flying into the sun and also not flying away. If it got substantially closer, it would eventually just run straight into the sun.
During the last decade, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service has worked to reestablish the critically endangered California condor in its last stronghold, the mountains of southern California. Recently, the service has also tried to establish a second population in the Grand Canyon region of Arizona. Why would the Fish and Wildlife Service consider it a high priority to establish two populations that are geographically distant from each other
• Multiple condor populations reduce inbreeding.
• Multiple condor populations provide more opportunities for people to view the endangered species, which may cause more people to be concerned with its fate.
• Multiple condor populations reduce genetic drift within each population.
• Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes
Answer:
The correct answer is D. "Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes".
Explanation:
In 1975, The California Condor Recovery Plan was prepared by the California Cóndor Recovery Team integrated by the National Audubon Society, the U.S. California Department of Fish and Game, The Forest Service, the U.S. Bureau of Land Management, and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or Usfws.
The objective of this recovery plan was to maintain and keep a population of 50 condors distributed in the same areas as they used to inhabit in 1974, with a rate of 4 birth per year and the less possible mortality rate.
They supposed that if condors were widely geographically distributed, then not all of them would be under the same limiting local pressures, even possible catastrophes. If the annual birth rate was equal or higher than the mortality rate then a little population would be able to survive. Finally, if the species was in extinction danger state and under an extensive managing program, populations could recover their stability.
They were focused on protecting the nesting areas, protecting the feeding areas and preventing mortality.
Most water-soluble hormones exert their effects through the second messenger cyclic AMP (cAMP). This activity will test your understanding of the events that occur during cAMP signaling. Drag the events of cAMP signaling in the correct sequence from left to right.
Answer:
cAMP dependent pathway is important for processing of life.
Explanation:
cAMP pathway is also called as adenynyl cyclase pathway.
This mechanism requires different steps like-
G protein coupled receptor is a integral protein that is activated by different external stimuli which binds with the specific ligand.Extracellular ligand causes activation of GPCR which in turn is responsible for conformational change in the receptor and allows it to bind with the intracellular heterotrimeric G protein complex.The Gα stimulate G protein complex to exchange GDP for GTP and then the complex is released.Activated Gα binds with adenylate cyclase and catalyzes ATP to form cyclic AMP.Activation of cAMP leads to the activation of nucleotide gated ion channel, and PKa(Protein kinase A) which is also called as cAMP dependent enzyme.Once, PKA is activated,it causes phospholylation of other proteins like AMPA receptor,transcription factors which regulate gene expression, and convert glycogen into glucose.As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.A) thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)B) growth hormoneC) ADH D) ACTH
Answer:
ACTH
Explanation:
Corticotrophs from anterior pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone under stress conditions. ACTH stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland to secrete glucocorticoids. Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex. This hormone triggers the break down of fats and proteins as well as stimulate gluconeogenesis. All these physiological responses prepare the body to combat stress or emergency conditions.
Answer: Option D) ACTH is the he correct answer.
Explanation: Corticotropin-releasing hormone and vasopressin are responsible for the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which in result have effect on the release of hormone from adrenal cortex.
Cortisol is the hormone produce in response of ACTH effect on adrenal cortex. In the condition of stress; metabolic effects, nervous system effects are produced.
Which one of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans?
a. goiter.
b. blue baby syndrome.
c. risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes.
d. brittle bones.
Answer:
The correct answer is d. brittle bones.
Explanation:
Brittle bone disease is a genetic disorder that causes the bone to become fragile that easily breaks. It is also known as osteogenesis imperfecta which means imperfect bones.
In this disease, a gene that makes type 1 collagen becomes defected. Type 1 collagen is an important protein that is required to make bones. This defective gene mainly comes from parents. So brittle bone disease is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans while goiter, blue baby syndrome, and risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes are associated.
Final answer:
Brittle bones are not associated with nitrate exposure in humans. Nitrate exposure has been connected with health concerns such as blue baby syndrome and potentially goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, but not directly with brittle bones.
Explanation:
The answer to which of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans is d. brittle bones. While exposure to nitrates has been linked to a number of health concerns, brittle bones is not commonly associated with nitrate exposure. Exposure to high levels of nitrates is more notably connected with blue baby syndrome (where it interferes with oxygen delivery in infants' bloodstream), and there has been some research suggesting a possible link between nitrates and the development of certain health issues like goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, although some of these links are subject to ongoing research and debate.
Other conditions associated with environmental factors during prenatal development include lead poisoning, exposure to mercury, and iodine deficiency, which can cause conditions like cretinism and cognitive impairments. In infants, blue baby syndrome is a serious health concern that has been linked to nitrate exposure from drinking water containing nitrate levels exceed the maximum contaminant level (MCL).
Jane was involved in an automobile accident in which both her parents were killed. When you ask her about it, she says she has no memory of the accident. What ego defense mechanism is she using?
Answer:
The correct answer is- repression
Explanation:
There are many types of defense mechanism like repression, denial, projection, displacement, regression, etc. Repression is an unconscious defense mechanism that is ego employed to keep out the bad and threatening thought to come in mind.
So here when Jane is asked about the accident she says that she is not having any memory about the accident which shows that she is using repression as an ego defense mechanism to avoid that disturbing thought of accident to become conscious.
Animal tissues _____.
a. are composed of undifferentiated cells
b. are joined with each other by nerve cells
c. do not necessarily have specific functions
d. contain relatively small amounts of fluid
e. are organized into organs
Answer:
e
Explanation:
because it organized According
from tissue to organ from organ to system
Final answer:
Animal tissues are organized into organs, consisting of epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues that carry out specialized functions within the body.
Explanation:
The question asks about the nature of animal tissues. To answer it: animal tissues are organized into organs. This is because the tissues of multicellular, complex animals are four primary types: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues. These tissues are groups of similar cells carrying out related functions. They combine to form organs, such as the skin or kidney, which have specific, specialized functions within the body. Furthermore, organs are organized into organ systems like the circulatory system, comprising the heart and blood vessels, and the digestive system, which includes the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. These organ systems work together to sustain the organism as an entire living being.
A sample of adults with generalized anxiety disorder are participating in a Stroop task in which threat-related words are presented in different colors on a computer screen. As compared with adults without an anxiety disorder, the sample should take __________.
Answer:
The sample will take longer to name the colors of the words
Explanation:
It is normal to feel anxious once in a while. However people with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) are constantly worried, restless and have trouble concentrating.
The Stroop task is a psychological test where name of a color is written with a different ink. This will cause a delay in response time due to mismatch of stimuli.
Therefore, the sample which consists of adults with GAD will take longer to name the colors of the words.
Based on radiometric dating, the oldest rocks scientists have found on Earth are 4.6 billion years old, but not ALL rocks are that old. Why might some rocks be 4.6 billion years old, and other rocks are only 2 billion years old, while yet others are only a few thousands years old?
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Because similar to living things, some rocks are formed and it takes a long period to degrade them. During this period new rocks are born, some of these rocks can react with some compounds of the environment and can form new rocks or can be degraded.
What I try to say is that rock formation takes a lot of time and while some rocks disappear new rocks are created.
Final answer:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old, but not all rocks are that old.
Explanation:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old. However, not all rocks are that old. Some rocks may only be 2 billion years old, while others may be only a few thousand years old.
The reason for this variation in rock ages is due to the process of rock formation and geological events that have occurred over time. Rocks are formed through different processes such as volcanic activity, metamorphism, and sedimentation. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate.
For example, radioactive isotopes such as uranium-238 decay at a predictable rate to form daughter isotopes. By measuring the ratio of parent and daughter isotopes in a rock, scientists can calculate its age. The older rocks would have higher ratios of daughter isotopes, indicating a longer period of decay.
There are a number of lipids that are found in foods and contribute to various functions in the body. Triglycerides are the most common lipid found in food and in the body; they consist of a ____________ backbone attached to three fatty acids.
Fatty acids are classified based on the degree to which the carbon chain is saturated with ________
A fatty acid is ____________ if it contains no carbon-carbon double bonds, ____________ if it contains
two or more carbon-carbon double bonds, and ____________ if it has only one carbon-carbon double bond.
The unsaturated fatty acids can exist in one of two structural forms: the ____________ form occurs when hydrogens on both carbons forming the double bond lie on opposite sides of that bond.
When hydrogens on an unsaturated fatty acid lie on the same side of the carbon-carbon double bond, a ____________ formation exists.
Answer:
There are a number of lipids that are found in foods and contribute to various functions in the body. Triglycerides are the most common lipid found in food and in the body; they consist of a Glycerol backbone attached to three fatty acids.
Fatty acids are classified based on the degree to which the carbon chain is saturated with Hydrogen
A fatty acid is saturated if it contains no carbon-carbon double bonds, polyunsaturated if it contains two or more carbon-carbon double bonds, and monounsaturated if it has only one carbon-carbon double bond.
The unsaturated fatty acids can exist in one of two structural forms: the trans form occurs when hydrogens on both carbons forming the double bond lie on opposite sides of that bond.
When hydrogens on an unsaturated fatty acid lie on the same side of the carbon-carbon double bond, a cis formation exists.
What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? Select one: a. fibrocartilaginous tissue b. areolar tissue c. bone (osseous tissue) d. cartilage tissue
Answer:
c. bone (osseous tissue)
Explanation:
The extracellular matrix of the bone tissue consists of an organic component and an inorganic component.
The organic component includes Collagen , proteoglycans and glycoprotiens, While the inorganic component contains calcium and phopsphorus. The cells are present in the lacunae situated betwen the lamellae and contain a number of oblong spaces.
It also contains blood vessels as a typical long bons is supplied by a nutrient artery , periosteal vessels and epiphyseal arteries.
Hence C is the right answer.
Bone (osseous tissue) has lacunae, calcium salts, and is highly vascularized, distinguishing it from other tissue types like cartilage and areolar tissue.
Explanation:The tissue characterized by having lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels is bone (osseous tissue). Bone tissue is a type of connective tissue that has a rigid extracellular matrix with mostly collagen fibers embedded in a mineralized ground substance containing hydroxyapatite—a form of calcium phosphate. This combination contributes to the bone's hardness and its ability to support the body and protect internal organs.
Within this matrix, bone cells, or osteocytes, reside in small cavities known as lacunae. Bone tissue is highly vascularized, meaning it has a good blood supply, which is necessary for nutrient delivery and waste removal. This vascularization also allows bone tissue to recover from injuries more efficiently than non-vascularized tissues like cartilage.
Imagine a hypothetical habitat where there are many simple and complex multicellular organisms of roughly the same size. A new predator is introduced into the habitat that feeds by taking bites of the organisms, rather than consuming them entirely. Given this, which of the statements is most likely?
Answer:
Complex multicellular organisms will suffer more, because vital differentiated cells that the rest of the organism requires will be lost.
Explanation:
As the new producer will take bites of organisms, the complex organisms will most likely be harmed more from such a mode of nutrition. This is because each part of a complex organism will be made up of vital differentiated cells which will be specialized to perform its function. Loss of such part will lead to certain permanent kind of disabilities in the complex organism.
When Jackie experienced her fourth miscarriage and was soon after diagnosed with cervical cancer, her doctor asked if she knew anything about her mother's pregnancy with her. The doctor likely suspects that the drug __________ is behind Jackie's problemss
Explanation:
Diethylstilboestrol, commonly known as DES or thalidomide was widely prescribed as an anti-miscarriage drug for 30 years between 1943 and 1973.
The production and sale of this drug was banned due to its carcinogenic side effects. It was also discovered that the effects of this drug can also manifest themselves in people whose mothers were administered with the drug.
If Jackie's mother consumed DES while she was pregnant with Jackie,, It is probable that Jackie's miscarriages and her cancer are an indirect effect of the banned drug.
The central principle of therapeutic massage is that the body's soft tissues will function optimally when the circulatory and lymphatic systems are unimpeded. true or false
Answer: True
Explanation:
The central principle of the therapeutic massage is that body's soft tissues will function more properly if the lymphatic system and the circulatory system of the body will not be hindered.
The better the blood flow the better will be the supply of oxygen to the various parts and organs of the body that helps in better function of body.
The clots or hindrance in these systems can result in pain and numbness in the different parts of the body.
"The statement is true. The central principle of therapeutic massage is indeed based on the belief that the body's soft tissues will function optimally when the circulatory and lymphatic systems are unimpeded.
Therapeutic massage is a form of bodywork that aims to improve the function of the body's soft tissues, which include muscles, tendons, ligaments, and fascia. The goal is to promote relaxation, reduce muscle tension and soreness, improve circulation, and enhance the body's natural healing processes.
The circulatory system is responsible for delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues and removing waste products. By improving circulation through massage, the body's cells can function more efficiently, which can lead to faster recovery from injuries and better overall health.
The lymphatic system is a crucial part of the immune system and helps to remove toxins and waste from the body. Unlike the circulatory system, the lymphatic system does not have a pump to move lymph fluid; instead, it relies on muscle movement and manual manipulation, such as massage, to facilitate lymph flow.
By applying various techniques, such as effleurage, petrissage, and tapotement, massage therapists can stimulate blood flow and lymphatic drainage, thereby helping to reduce swelling and improve immune function. This unimpeded flow in both systems is believed to contribute to the body's ability to maintain health and recover from injury or illness
There is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, what will happen?
Answer:
Yes, if there is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, the lac repressor loses its ability to bind DNA. It clear off the operator, clearing the way for RNA polymerase to transcribe the operon.
You are handed a model of a protein. It has a three-dimensional shape, and by twisting it, you can see that there is only one polypeptide chain in the model. You can see two alpha helices lined up next to one another in the model. From this evidence, you are looking at what level of protein structure? Tertiary T/F
Final answer:
True. The protein model described with a three-dimensional shape and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein, involving complex 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain.
Explanation:
Based on the description provided by the student, the model of the protein with a single polypeptide chain and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein. The tertiary structure is known for the large-scale three-dimensional shape formed from the folding and twisting of the polypeptide. Primary structure is defined by the sequence of amino acids. Secondary structure arises from local folding into common patterns such as alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets. Tertiary structure, on the other hand, involves a complex 3D construction due to the interactions between amino acid residues that are distant in the primary sequence, including hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and disulfide bridges. A protein's quaternary structure occurs when multiple polypeptide chains, or subunits, come together to form a complete protein complex, which is not the case here as described by the student.
A 78 year old grandmother presents for eval of weakness in her face. She has a longstanding history of HTN that has been under fair control. On physical exam you note that she has ptosis and miosis of the left eye and left facial anhidrosis. What is your most likely diagnosis?
A) Horner's syndrome
B) Anisocoria
C) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
D) Myasthenia gravis
Answer:
A) Horner's syndrome
Explanation:
Horner's syndrome:
Horner syndrome occurs due to damage of nerve pathway from brain to eye and face.
In this condition particularly damage one side of the face and eye of the patient.
Symptoms:
Its symptoms include:
Miosis (pupil will become small)ptosis (upper eyelid will drooping)anisocoria (pupil size will be physically different between two eyes)anhidrosis (there will be no sweating or little in rare cases)So, The above mentioned condition proves the presence of Horner's syndrome.
The food web illustrated above shows plants and animals, but does not indicate bacteria. If bacteria were truly missing from this food web, what is the most likely effect on the community?
Answer: Bacterias are Decomposer and they complete the food web they turn inorganic waste like decay plant and animals into organic material. They help in returning nutrient to the soil for use by autotrophs, and which would now lead to a new food wen.
Explanation:
what is the substance found in many plants that is not considered a nutrient but has many healthful benefits?
Answer:
The correct answer is phytochemicals.
Explanation:
Phytochemicals refer to the components, which are generated by plants. They are witnessed in vegetables, fruits, beans, grains, and other plants. Some of these phytochemicals are considered to protect cells from destruction, which could result in cancer. The phytochemicals are not considered as nutrients, but possesses many health benefits:
1. It helps in ceasing carcinogens from attacking cells.
2. It helps to prevent the generation of potential cancer-resulting substances.
3. It assists the cells to prevent and eradicate any kind of cancer-like modifications.
Some of the phytochemicals, which are considered as the most beneficial ones are polyphenols in tea, beta-carotene and other carotenoids in vegetables and fruits, and isothiocyanates found in cruciferous vegetables.
Sexual selection favors individuals with traits that increase their ability to obtain mates, such as mating calls in crickets. Using this example, propose a scenario where sexual selection could contribute to divergence in sympatric speciation.male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopyVariation in ________ calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the _______ and a higher-pitched call in the _______. _______ in the _______ could start to prefer _______ with lower-pitched calls, and ________ in the _________ could start to prefer _________ with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Answer:
variation in male calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call in the warm forest canopy. Females in the forest floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Explanation:
To complte this exercise, you should fill in the blanks with the correct phrase taken from the options;
male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopy
Final answer:
Variation in mating calls related to different ecological niches like the forest floor and canopy could lead to female preference for specific calls, resulting in genetic isolation and sympatric speciation.
Explanation:
Sexual selection favors characteristics that improve an organism's chances of mating and producing offspring. It can lead to divergence in sympatric speciation, even in cases where different populations of the same species share the same geographic area but occupy different ecological niches, such as the cool forest floor and the warm forest canopy. Here is a proposed scenario:
Variations in mating calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call on the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call on the warm forest canopy. Females on the cool floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations, leading to reproductive isolation and potentially the formation of new species.
Which characteristic feature of a drug may increase the likelihood of drug transfer through breast milk?
Answer:
Size of the drug molecule
Maternal plasma concentration
Degree of ionisation
Explanation:
Size of the drug molecule
Most drug molecules, including alcohol, nicotine and caffeine, are small enough to enter milk. Exceptions are drugs with high molecular weights such as heparins and insulin.
Maternal plasma concentration
Passive diffusion is the primary pathway by which drugs enter milk. There is a good concordance between the time-course of maternal plasma-drug concentration and milk-drug concentration. Maternal plasma concentration is also affected by the drug’s distribution into different tissues. A high volume of distribution (as for sertraline) will contribute to a lower maternal plasma concentration and a subsequent lower concentration in milk.
Degree of ionisation
Drugs cross membranes in an un-ionised form. Milk is generally slightly more acidic (pH 7.2) than the mother’s plasma (pH 7.4) so it attracts weak organic bases such as oxycodone and codeine.7 Such drugs become ionised and ‘trapped’ in the milk. Conversely, weak organic acids such as penicillin tend to be ionised and held in maternal plasma.
An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress?
Answer:
The correct answer is alarm reaction stage.
Explanation:
The alarm reaction stage signifies towards the beginning of the symptoms, which the body encounters at the time of stress. As one knows about the fight or flight response, which is a physiological reaction towards stress. This reaction enables one to either flee or protect oneself in dangerous conditions.
In the condition, the heart rate enhances, the adrenal gland discharges a stress hormone known as cortisol, and one gets a boost of adrenaline that enhances energy. This fight-or-flight response takes place in the alarm reaction stage.
Final answer:
An increase in heart rate and blood pressure during a stressful encounter like facing an armed gunman represents the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome or fight-or-flight response, mediated by epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Explanation:
An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in the alarm reaction stage of the body's response to stress, also known as the fight-or-flight response. This response is mediated by the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla via the Sympatho-Adreno-Medullary (SAM) pathway. The function of these hormones is to prepare the body for extreme physical exertion in potentially life-threatening situations. Once the stress is relieved, the body quickly returns to normal.
A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is now presenting with eye pain and intraocular pressure of 50 mm Hg. An immediate iridotomy is scheduled. Which of the following describes the desired effects of this procedure?
asked Oct 13, 2016 in Nursing by Federico
A) Reverse optic nerve damage
B) Restore vision
C) Improve outflow drainage
D) To relieve pain
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C.
Explanation:
Iridotomy is a procedure which is used to treat condition like narrow angle glaucoma and chronic open angle glaucoma, angle closure glaucoma and other chronic glaucoma conditions. In many cases iridotomy is needed to be performed immediately.
Iridotomy procedure in this case is helpful as it is improve the outflow of the drainage which is causing the intraocular pressure which is 50 mm in this case and also will help in reducing the pain.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
What type of interaction between two chemicals causes one chemical that is not toxic to become more toxic?
Answer:
Potentiating effects
Explanation:
In medical field, Potentiating refers to the enhancement of potency or effect of any drug, chemical or treatment method.
In case of chemicals, potentiating effects are caused when one drug or chemical comes in contact with another drug and chemical and their combined pharmacologic effect is higher than the combined or individual response of each drug. For example – Pharmacologic effect of alcohol and sedative and diazepam potentiate the effect of alcohol.
The energy released is trapped in the form of ATP (Links to an external site.) for use by all the energy-consuming activities of the cell. The process occurs in two phases: glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid the complete oxidation of pyruvic acidto carbon dioxide and water. Fermation is the chemical breakdown of a substance by bacteria, yeasts, or other microorganisms, typically involving effervescence and the giving off of heat. the process of fermentation involved in the making of beer, wine, and liquor, in which sugars are converted to ethyl alcohol.
ATP is used and released during the metabolic processes.
Explanation:
In the process of Respiration, a glucose molecule is eventually broken down into carbon dioxide and water. During this process, some ATP is produced directly in the reactions that transform glucose. However, more ATP is produced later in a process called oxidative phosphorylation.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place by the movement of electrons through the electron transport chain, a series of proteins embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
Fermentation process takes place when the availability of oxygen is less. In this process glucose instead of converting into CO2 and water gets converted into lactic acid or any other alcohol.
A recent commercial advertised for a wristband that claimed to restore health and balance by taking advantage of natural frequencies of your biofield. It supports its claim by showing several people first struggling to balance without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wristband. Why should you be skeptical of the claims made in this ad?
Answer:
The answer is - It was not a controlled experiment
Explanation:
A control experiment can be defined as that in which the all variable is kept constant and intact and then used as a standard of comparison or measurement to the experimental component.The commercial showing several people initially struggling to balance without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wrist band is not a controlled experiment.
Claims made in the ad promoting a wristband for health and balance should be questioned as they are not based on controlled scientific research or recognized scientific principles. The experiment shown in the ad does not include a control group, and the principles referenced are often associated with pseudoscience.
Explanation:You should be skeptical of the claims made in this advertisement as they lack important factors that contribute to scientific credibility, such as controlled variables and peer-reviewed research. The concept mentioned, 'natural frequencies of your biofield,' is not grounded in science and typically used by companies selling pseudoscientific products. Claims of health improvement and balance enhancement should be supported by rigorous scientific research, with results published in established peer-reviewed journals. Moreover, the ad performs an experiment that doesn't compare the wristband's affects with a control group, thus it's hard to tell if the improvements in balance are due to the product or perhaps a placebo effect.
Learn more about skeptical here:https://brainly.com/question/37558672
#SPJ11