Answer:
By experimenting and comparing the results on different body parts.
Explanation:
The "Two Point Discrimination Test" is designed to illustrate the density of touch sensitive receptors for different parts on our body and our ability to tell if there are two distinct objects that we are touching or not.
The density of touch receptors in different receptive fields on our body can be our hands and our back for example, the receptive field density is much more higher in our hands for evolutionary reasons so we are able to more easily tell two distinct objects apart that we are touching with our hands.
I hope this answer helps.
The two-point discrimination test measures the density of touch receptors in different areas of the body. It involves simultaneously touching the skin with two points and asking the patient to indicate whether they feel one or two stimuli.
Explanation:The two-point discrimination test is used to measure the density of touch receptors in different areas of the body. It involves touching the skin with two points simultaneously and asking the patient to indicate whether they feel one or two stimuli. The areas of the body with higher density of touch receptors, such as the fingertips, will have a smaller distance threshold for distinguishing two points compared to areas with lower density, such as the arms or legs.
For example, if two points can be distinguished when they are 2 mm apart on the fingertips, but can only be distinguished when they are 10 mm apart on the arms, it indicates that the density of touch receptors is higher in the fingertips. This test demonstrates how the density of touch receptors in a receptive field varies in different areas of the body.
Learn more about Two-Point Discrimination Test here:https://brainly.com/question/32347556
#SPJ3
Measles is a disease that causes fever and rash. The graph gives the number of measles cases in the United States between 1954 and 2008. The measles vaccine was introduced in the 1960s. What can you conclude using the information in the graph? a graph giving the number of measles cases in the United States between the years 1954 and 2008 shows a high around 775,000 cases in 1958 and a low of 0 cases in 2008
A. Measles is the leading cause of fevers for children under age 5 in the United States.
B. Visitors who are not vaccinated continue to spread measles in the United States.
C. The measles vaccine had little effect on the population of the United States. D. The measles vaccine eliminated measles in the United States.
Answer:D
Explanation:
Answer:
D. The measles vaccine eliminated measles in the United States.
Explanation:
Just took the test and got it right. :)
Peter recently traced his headaches, dizziness, and rapid heartbeat to eating soy food products. Most likely, Peter has a(n) ____.
Answer:
Peter has a "soy allergy".
Explanation:
Biochemically, immune system of the people with soy allergy identifies soy proteins as toxic. Therefore, their immune system signals the release of immunoglobulin antibodies. Next time when the person comes in contact with soy proteins, the antibodies recognize them and produce histamine. This release of histamine result into allergic reactions. According to the given conditions in the question, headaches, dizziness, and rapid heartbeat are most likely the result of soy allergy.
A snowshoe hare produces a white coat during the winter, allowing it to better hide from predators. As a result, it has thrived and over time a majority of snowshoe hares in the population also produce white coats in the winter. Which of the statements is/are true?a. The white-coated hare has higher fitness than other hares that do not change coat color.
b. The white-coated hare has a competitive advantage in its environment.
c. The new population of hares resulted from natural selection.
d. The alleles for a white winter coat increased over time.
e. all of the above
Answer:
A snowshoe hare produces a white coat during the winter, allowing it to better hide from predators. As a result, it has thrived and over time a majority of snowshoe hares in the population also produce white coats in the winter. Which of the statements is/are true?
The white-coated hare has a competitive advantage in its environment.
The new population of hares resulted from natural selection.
Explanation:
The analogy shown above describes the law of natural selection which explains why the organism that fits into a new environment survives as a result of inheritance of a distinct trait that differentiate them from others. Also, the organism has greater advantage over the environment because it has device means of survival over time
Answer:
a
Explanation:
to me it seems correct
Imagine that you are a genetic counselor, and a couple planning to start a family comes to you for information. Charles was married once before, and he and his first wife had a child with cystic fibrosis. The brother of his current wife, Elaine, died of cystic fibrosis. What is the probability that Charles and Elaine will have a baby with cystic fibrosis
Answer:
1/6
Explanation:
Assuming the disorder is not sex linked, Charles is a carrier so he will be Ff.
His wife Elaine can be a carrier or not because her parents must have been both Ff
Possible F1 generation for her was FF, Ff, Ff and ff. She does not have the disease.
Therefore the total chance of her having FF was 1/3 whereas Ff will be 2/3
Probability of the kid having the disease will be calculated by;
(2/3×1/4) +(1/3×0)= 1/6
The probability that Charles and Elaine will have a baby with cystic fibrosis is 25%.
Explanation:The probability that Charles and Elaine will have a baby with cystic fibrosis can be determined by analyzing their family history and considering the genetic inheritance of the disease. In this case, Charles and his first wife had a child with cystic fibrosis, indicating that Charles is a carrier of the gene. Elaine's brother also had cystic fibrosis, suggesting that there is a high probability that Elaine is also a carrier.
Since cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease, both parents must be carriers of the faulty gene in order for their child to have the disease. Therefore, the probability of Charles and Elaine having a baby with cystic fibrosis would be 25%.
These figures show the four levels of protein structure: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure. Which level of protein structure is characteristic of some, but not all, proteins?1. Secondary level of protein structure
2. Tertiary level of protein structure
3. Quaternary level of protein structure
Answer:
3. Quaternary level of protein structure
Explanation:
The quaternary level of protein structure is exhibited by those proteins that have more than one polypeptide chain. The proteins that have two or more separate polypeptide chains are said to have multi subunits. These polypeptide chains of a protein may be identical or different from each other. The arrangement of these protein subunits represents the quaternary structure of these proteins. For example, hemoglobin is a protein that exhibits the quaternary level of protein structure.
___________________ are mutualistic fungi that help provide nutrients to trees, shrubs, and other plants.
Redundancy occurs when ___________specify one __________. Wobble pairing explains how it's possible for one_______ to read more than one codon. Wobble pairing allows a redundant code to be read by a small number of_________
Answer:
More than one mRNA codon,
Amino acid
tRNA
tRNAs
Explanation:
An amino acid acids are normally specified by one mRNA codon. Redundancy occurs when more than one mRNA codon specify one Amino acid.
Wobble pairing explains how its possible fore one tRNA to read more than one one codon. tRNA has anti-codons that bind to specific mRNA and in wobble pairing after the first two positions are paired the third binding will be more loose.
Wobble pairing allows a redundant code to be read by a small number of tRNA.
Meiosis guarantees that in a sexual life cycle, offspring will inherit one complete set of chromosomes (and their associated genes and traits) from each parent. The transmission of traits from parents to offspring is called heredity. Another important aspect of meiosis and the sexual life cycle is the role these processes play in contributing to genetic variation. Although offspring always resemble their parents, they are genetically different from both of their parents and from one another. The degree of variation may be tremendous. The following processes are associated with meiosis and the sexual life cycle: DNA replication before meiosis crossing over chromosome alignment in metaphase I and separation in anaphase I chromosome alignment in metaphase II and separation in anaphase II fertilization Sort each process into the appropriate bin according to whether it contributes to heredity only, genetic variation only, or both. (Note that a bin may be left empty.)
Answer:
HEREDITY ONLY:
none
GENETIC VARIATION ONLY:
none
BOTH:
all
Explanation:
In all the organism that reproduce sexually, produced offspring are genetically varied. As this genetic variation continues, it also leads to hereditary evolution of organism through gene flow from one generation to other. Therefore, the processes of DNA replication, crossing over, chromosome separation and alignment etc. ensure flow of genes from one generation to the next. This does not happen in organisms reproducing asexually.
Final answer:
Meiosis and fertilization are essential for heredity and genetic variation in sexual reproduction. Processes like DNA replication contribute solely to heredity, while crossing over and random alignment during meiosis promote genetic variation. Fertilization brings together both aspects by mixing parental genetic material.
Explanation:
In sexual reproduction, meiosis and fertilization play crucial roles in ensuring heredity and generating genetic variation among offspring. DNA replication before meiosis ensures that each chromosome is copied to prepare for division, contributing to heredity by preserving genetic information. Crossing over during prophase I and the random alignment of chromosomes during metaphase I are processes that introduce genetic variation.
The alignment and separation of chromosomes during metaphase II and anaphase II also contribute to heredity as they ensure each gamete receives a complete haploid set of chromosomes. Finally, fertilization restores the diploid chromosome number and combines genetic material from both parents, contributing to both heredity and genetic variation.
DNA replication: Heredity only Crossing over: Genetic variation onlyChromosome alignment in metaphase I and separation in anaphase I: Genetic variation onlyChromosome alignment in metaphase II and separation in anaphase II: Heredity onlyFertilization: Both heredity and genetic variationWhen a species is moved from its native area to a new area, it can become an invasive species and damage its new ecosystem. What is one reason these species are able to do damage to an ecosystem? a. When moved to the new location, the species fills in unoccupied niches.
b. Having been moved from its home country, the introduced species does not know the local language so is unable to communicate with its new neighbors and gets angry, lashing out at any nearby organisms and doing great harm.
c. When a species is transported, it leaves behind its predators and the diseases that previously kept its population in check. Therefore the species is able to grow to large and damaging numbers.
d. In nearly every case, when a species is moved across an ocean and into a new habitat it becomes a harmful invasive species simply because it is in a new habitat.
Answer:
c. When a species is transported, it leaves behind its predators and the diseases that previously kept its population in check. Therefore the species is able to grow to large and damaging numbers.
Explanation:
An invasive species is the species that is not native to the ecosystem in which that species has entered. Invasive species are responsible for the destruction of the ecosystem because they outcompete with native species and reproduce faster than them.
This happens because in the new ecosystem they do not have their natural predators which control their number and not the pathogens that cause disease in them. Therefore they grow exponentially and outcompete native species.
Describe the different types of DNA mutations: a. point mutation b. base substitution c. frameshift d. triplet repeat
Answer:
In point mutation, alteration affects only one single nucleotide.
In base substitution mutation, one single nucleotide is swapped with another nucleotide
In frameshift mutation, the addition or deletion of one or more base pairs could lead to shift in the arrangement
In triplet repeat mutation, a base pair repeats until it reaches threshold limit
Explanation:
In point mutation, alteration affects only one single nucleotide. This alteration could be insertion, deletion or substitution of only one single nucleotide.
In base substitution mutation, one single nucleotide is swapped with another nucleotide during the replication process of DNA.
In frameshift mutation, the addition or deletion of one or more base pairs could lead to shift in the arrangement of triple nucleotide bases.
For instance if the base pair is
AAT GCC CGA TCT
If insertion occurs at second base pair, then the frame will shift as below
AAT GAC CCG ATC T….
In triplet repeat mutation, a base pair repeats until it reaches threshold limit and then becomes unstable
Women with an inadequate weight gain during pregnancy are at higher risk of giving birth to an infant with what?
Answer:
The correct answer is - intrauterine growth restriction.
Explanation:
Intrauterine growth restriction or IUGR is a condition that occurs during the pregnancy of growth of the fetus in the mother's womb. It is found in women with normal or underweight conditions.
This can result in a baby small for gestational age which is also called SGA which is a case of the weight being below ten percent for the gestational age.
Thus, the correct answer is - intrauterine growth restriction.
science and engineering techniques used to manipulate living cells to produce useful products
Yes that would be genetic modification or stem cell research, such as the induced pluripotent stem cell that is completely man made.
A biologist observes that a particular plant species is found in a forest but not in a nearby meadow. She hypothesizes that the plants could grow in the meadow but are not found there because their seeds have yet to land in the meadow. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate this hypothesis?
1. constructing a logical argument about why her hypothesis must be true
2. measuring how far the seeds typically travel from their parent plant
3. scattering seeds in several areas of the meadow and observing whether they start to grow
4. observing how long it takes the seeds to eventually reach the meadow
Answer:
3
Explanation:
An hypothesis is a proposed explanation to an observation or an intelligent guess about a phenomenon made with little evidence at the beginning before proceeding to do further investigation or research. The most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate the hypothesis is to scatter seeds in several areas of the meadow and observed whether they will start to grow.
The nurse in a primary care clinic and a client have come to see the primary care provider because the client is getting married and wants to have a prenuptial gynecologic examination. After the exam, the nurse asks about the woman's plan to have a family. The woman responds, "Why do I have to plan for a family?
Answer: She has a family history of thromboembolism.
Explanation: A woman visits the family planning clinic to request a prescription for birth control pills. Which factor would indicate that an ovulation suppressant would not be the best contraceptive method for her.
Name the possible ways that diseases are spread. Describe how this happens in communities.
Subject: Anatomy and Physiology
Indicate the oxygen requirements of the microorganisms growing in each thioglycolate tube. The surface of the tube is exposed to oxygen and is aerobic. Oxygen concentration decreases with depth; the bottom of the tube is anaerobic. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
In a thioglycolate tube, aerobic microorganisms grow at the surface where it is oxygen-rich, anaerobic microorganisms grow at the bottom where it is oxygen-poor, facultative anaerobes can grow throughout the tube and microaerophiles grow below the surface in low oxygen conditions.
Explanation:The oxygen requirements for microorganisms can vary. In a thioglycolate tube, the surface of the tube is aerobic because it is exposed to oxygen, meaning aerobic microorganisms grow here. As the depth increases in the tube, the oxygen concentration decreases, therefore anaerobic microorganisms grow at the bottom part of the tube since they do not require oxygen for growth.
There are also facultative anaerobes which can grow throughout the tube as they can adjust to both oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environments. Finally, microaerophiles that require low levels of oxygen can be found growing a little below the surface where the oxygen concentration is lower than at the surface but higher than at the bottom.
Learn more about Oxygen Requirements of Microorganisms here:https://brainly.com/question/36991027
#SPJ3
It has been suggested that scientists should attempt to genetically engineer a plant to have black leaves so that it would perform photosynthesis more efficiently. What is the likely reason behind this idea?
Answer:
Black color absorb more light that other color.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is the process in which leaves absorb solar energy and use it to convert CO2 and H2O into chemical energy called glucose(food).
As photosynthesis is dependent on the sunlight energy therefore it has been suggested to scientists that they should genetically engineer a plant to have black leaves as black color absorbs more sunlight than any other color. Black color absorb all the wavelength of sunlight and it does not reflect any.
So more light absorbance capability of black color should be the reason behind this idea.
Two populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees.What keeps the two populations separate?A. temporal reproductive isolation B. lack of hybrid viability C. behavioral reproductive isolation D. spatial reproductive isolation
Answer: D. spatial reproductive isolation
Explanation:
The spatial reproductive isolation can be defined as the reproductive isolation in which populations are separated by great distances, this can also occur when the members of the same population inhabit to different parts of the same area.
According to the given situation, the birds of the two populations have been separated by the peninsula. This is creating a spatial reproductive barrier between the two populations. When the members of the spatially separated populations brought together they will not be able to produce offspring. Due to the fact that the members of the population might have developed traits which get expressed in the progeny. Thus the offspring appears to be the intermediate of the two.
The difference between the images in the two eyes, or the ______, is the binocular cue the brain uses to see in three dimensions.
Answer:
Disparity
Explanation:
The disparity in vision refers to the imperfect match between the two eyes caused by the different views perceived at a slightly different angle by two eyes.
This difference between the image formed at the retina at a different angle gets fused and the brain perceives the fused image as a single perception by the eyes. This disparity thus allows the brain to analyse the 3D view of the sample and the binocular disparity between image helps determine the depth of the image.
Thus, Disparity is the correct answer.
From an evolutionary perspective, why is the conscious awareness of ongoing sensations advantageous for animals? a. It provides the opportunity to choose responses rather than to respond instinctively. b. It facilitates the development of complex motor and sensory control. c. It allows animals to respond instinctively to oncoming threats. d. It enables animals to have a sense of mortality and a strong will to pass on their genes.
Answer:
The correct answer is: c. It allows animals to respond instinctively to oncoming threats.
Explanation:
Animals always remain aware of all the sensations that take place in its environment.This is because when awake, all the sense organs of the organism remain active. But it is possible that some of the organs are more active than the other. Under normal condition, animals sense all the events happening in the surrounding environment but decide and respond to those which they think to be necessary for them.But the adaptation of the characteristics of conscious awareness of the surroundings is of particular advantage under the conditions of threat.Under the conditions of threat, animals do not get the time to choose and decide whether to respond or not. They always have to give a response instinctively in order to evade the threat.This instinctive reaction of what exactly is required to be done in case of a threat is acquired due to the adaptation of the capability to remain aware of the ongoing sensations.
Which of the following pathogens are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms that belong to the Kingdom Protista?
a.) viruses
b.) fungi
c.) bacteria
d.) protozoa
Answer:d.) protozoa
Explanation:protozoa is a unicellular eukaryotic organism that belongs to kingdom protista. Protozoans depends on other organism for there food because they do not produce there own food. Some protozoa can be parasitic in nature.
Example of protozoa is amoeba.
If toxic fumes are generated while performing an experiment, await instructions from your lab instructor; follow them completely and as quickly as possible. true false
Answer:True
Explanation:
The toxic fumes in the laboratory is very common when performing any experiment inside the laboratory.
There are various types of chemical reaction which can fortunately or unfortunately result in evolution of the toxic fumes.
In this case the person should not panic and just listen to the instructor carefully.
Follow it as soon as possible.Carefully and completely empty the place and go to some place which has fresh air.
True/False: Western blotting allows the visualization of proteins with the use of antibodies that specifically bind to the proteins of interest?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
What are the functions of each cell part:
1. Cytoplasm
2. Cell Membrane
3. Nucleus
4. Endoplasmic Reticulum
5. Ribosome
6. Mitochondria
7. Lysosome
8. Golgi bodies
9. Vacuole
10 Chloroplast Cell wall
Answer:
Each part perform specific function for cell.
Explanation:
1. Cytoplasm ; Site for various chemical reactions.
2. Cell Membrane ; Protective covering; Material transport regulation.
3. Nucleus ; Control center of cell; Constitute genetic material
4. Endoplasmic Reticulum ; Material processing; movement inside the cell
5. Ribosome ; Protein synthesis
6. Mitochondria ; power house of cell
7. Lysosome ; Digestion, break down of substances.
8. Golgi bodies ; transport of material and packaging.
9. Vacuole ; waste & water storage.
10 Chloroplast Cell wall; protection, transportation, Photosynthesis.
The functions of each cell part include: Cytoplasm is a gel-like substance that fills the cell and acts as a medium for cellular processes. The Cell Membrane controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell. The Nucleus contains DNA and controls the activities of the cell.
Explanation:Cytoplasm: It is a gel-like substance that fills the cell and acts as a medium for cellular processes.Cell Membrane: It controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell, providing protection and support.Nucleus: It contains DNA and controls the activities of the cell.Endoplasmic Reticulum: It is responsible for the synthesis and transport of proteins and lipids.Ribosome: It is the site of protein synthesis.Mitochondria: They produce energy in the form of ATP through cellular respiration.Lysosome: They contain enzymes that break down waste materials and foreign substances in the cell.Golgi bodies: They modify, sort, and package proteins for transport within and outside the cell.Vacuole: It stores water, nutrients, and waste materials in the cell.Chloroplast: It is found only in plant cells and is responsible for photosynthesis.Cell wall: It provides strength, support, and protection to plant cells.Learn more about Cell Parts Functions here:https://brainly.com/question/12553639
#SPJ3
Scientific thinking: what clues about biology might road kill provide?
Answer:biology will provide what animals eat road kill
Explanation:because road kill gets eaten
Roadkill can provide several clues about biology and the ecosystem. It helps to determine the species that live in a specific location by looking at roadkill.
Scientists can ascertain the presence and distribution of several species in a specific area by determining the characteristics of the animal, such as its physical qualities, size, and markings.
Population Density and Distribution: Information on the population density and geographic spread of specific species may be gleaned from the frequency of roadkill incidences.
High levels of roadkill incidences may be a sign of increased animal activity or possible habitat fragmentation in certain locations.
Migration Patterns: Roadkill might provide information about an animal's migratory patterns. Identifying the seasonal migrations of particular species, including their routes and timing, may be done by tracking roadkill incidences over time and across different locales.
Impact of Human Activity: Roadkill can bring attention to the effects of human activities, such as building roads or urban development, on wildlife populations.
Roadkill occurrences that occur often may be a sign of growing human-wildlife contact or regions where animal habitats and roadways cross.
To know more about habitat:
https://brainly.com/question/28815163
#SPJ6
The term secretion refers to Group of answer choices A.the process by which a cell releases a substance into the extracellular space. B.synthesis of a protein for export from the cell. C. the manufacture and assembly of a material. storage of a material, until it is time for it to leave the cell. D.None of these describe secretion.
Answer:
The term secretion refers to the cell that releases a substance into the extracellular space.
Explanation:
When a cell or organ or gland produce and secretes substance in to extracellular space,this biochemical process is called as secretion.
The secretory products may be hormone, enzymes etc.
This process facilitates the movement of material from one place to another place.
For example, Pituitary gland produce and release prolactin hormone that induces breast cells to produce lactation during sucking process done by baby.
Pituitary gland also secrete different hormones that acts on different glands like adrenal, testes, ovary, thyroid gland etc that in turn produce different hormones like adrenaline,testosterone,estrogen,progesterone, TSH,T3, hormone etc.
In chickens, a single mutation has a dominant effect on neck feathers (causing the chickens to have "naked necks") and a recessive effect on viability (causing the chickens to die early). Let N be the mutant allele and n the wild-type allele.
A) Male chickens with naked necks are crossed to females with normal neck feathers. Think about the genotypes of those chickens. Among the F1 progeny, what % naked neck versus normal neck feather adult chickens do you expect?
B) Male chickens with naked necks are crossed to females with naked necks. Among the F1 progeny, what % naked neck versus normal neck feather adult chickens do you expect?
Answer:
As a single mutation has inferred, hence we can assume that the genotype of the male chickens with naked necks will be Nn. The female chickens with normal neck feathers will have the genotype nn. To depict the outcomes of a cross between them, lets generate a punnet square:
n n
N Nn Nn
n nn nn
The results from the punnet square show that 50% of the offsprings will have the probability to have naked neck and 50% of the offsprings will have normal neck.
A hypothetical endangered species of wildflower has been reduced to a single small population in a mountain meadow. A rare early spring blizzard kills all but 3 of the remaining plants, one of which has a rare mutation. This is an example of:
A. genetic drift (bottleneck).
B. disruptive selection.
C. natural selection.
D. stabilizing selection.
E. gene flow.
Answer:
A. genetic drift (bottleneck).
Explanation:
Genetic drift can cause big losses of genetic variation for small populations. In our case, we already had a small population so killing further reduced the genetic variation in the population.
Disruptive selection is not correct because the plants died randomly (particular phenotype were not favored). Natural selection and stabilizing selection are not correct for same reason.
Gene flow is incorrect because we did not have any individuals coming in into the population!
There are two different alleles for flower color, P and p. The image shows a white sweet pea that is labeled with its two alleles for petal color.
A white sweet pea is labeled p p.
What can you surmise from the labeled image?
A.The genotype is heterozygous.
B.White petal color is a recessive trait.
C.White petal color is a dominant trait.
D.The phenotype is heterozygous.
B. White petal colour is a recessive trait.
Explanation:
In Mendelian genetics, the alleles depicted in small letters are recessive traits.
Since both alleles are same and in lower case they are homozygous recessive alleles for a white coloured petal gene.
The genotype of the trait will be tt because if it is crossed either with heterozygous or homozygous P alleles it will appear as tt to have phenotypic trait of white colour.
So the genotype will be tt.
When Mendel crossed a plant homozygous for round seeds to another plant homozygous for wrinkled seeds, he found that all the progeny had round seeds. How is this explained?
A) The parent that was homozygous for round seeds underwent self‑pollination.
B) The allele for round seeds is recessive to the allele for wrinkled seeds.
C) The progeny were homozygous for the allele for round seeds.
D) Segregation of alleles in the two parents produced gametes with both alleles.
E) The allele for round seeds is dominant to the allele for wrinkled seeds.
Answer:
E
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel discovered the principles that governs heredity. In one of his experiments, he discovered that an organism receives two forms of a gene called ALLELE from each parent. He realized that one allele is capable of masking the expression of its variant pair in a gene. He called the allele that masks or is expressed, DOMINANT allele while the allele that is masked, RECESSIVE allele. He termed this principle the LAW OF DOMINANCE.
The above explained law of dominance is what applies in the question here. When the homozygous round allele and wrinkled allele were crossed, the allele for round seeds are dominant over the allele for wrinkled seeds (recessive) i.e. in a heterozygous state (combination of the different alleles), the round allele will mask the phenotypic expression of the wrinkled allele, expressing itself over it.