during the course of development, the phenotype interacts with a environment to produce the genotype true of false

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Development in general involves the interaction between a genotype and its environment. For example, a organism born and raised in a cold climate likely will exhibit phenotipic features closest associated with such climatic conditions compared than other from the same species born and raised in a temperate region. It means that genes differentially expressed in different conditions can influence organismal development, although both organisms have potential to express the same genes

Answer 2
Final answer:

The statement is false. Genotype, a set of genes in an organism's DNA, interacts with the environment to influence phenotype, the physical expression of those genes. Environmental factors can modify phenotypic expression, demonstrating a reciprocal interaction between genotype and environment.

Explanation:

The statement provided is false. During the course of development, the genotype - the set of genes in an organism's DNA - influences the organism's traits or phenotype. However, the environment can interact with the genotype, modifying the way these traits are expressed.

For instance, in Mendel's hybridization experiments, true-breeding plants with yellow pods and green pods produced hybrid offspring with yellow pods - the same color as one parent (phenotypically identical) but with a different genetic makeup (genotypically different).

Phenotypes and genotypes are interconnected, with the genotype serving as a blueprint, subject to environmental factors that can influence phenotypic expression. An example of environmental influence is sun exposure affecting skin color or temperature affecting sex determination in certain reptilian species. In essence, there is a reciprocal interaction between the genotype and the environment to determine the phenotype - not the other way around.

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Related Questions

If a steam that is septic (anaerobic) receives further human waste containing carbon, nitrogen and sulfur containing materials, what does the carbon become, the nitrogen, and finally the sulfur?

Answers

Answer:

Carbon convert into methane, Nitrogen converts into Ammonia and Sulfur converts into hydrogen sulfide gas

Explanation:

As the flow time in a wastewater treatment plant increase the color of waste water converts from grey to black as the condition becomes more anaerobic and flow becomes more septic. In such scenario if more waste water is added the sulfur and nitrogen extracts from the waste are converted into ammonia and hydrogen sulfide. Carbon is present in the form of organic waste and in the absence of oxygen it gets converted into methane gas. However , in presence of oxygen this carbon is released as carbon dioxide.

After stamping your replica plates, you return to examine the results and see that there are 100 colonies on the strep nal plate from master plate strain B and no growth on the strep nal plate from master plate strain A. Which strain (A or B) is the streptomycin-resistant master plate strain

Answers

Answer/Explanation:

An important way of selecting for bacteria carrying specific recombinant DNA is to add a resistance gene (such as antibiotic resistance) to your gene of interest. That means that any bacteria that carry your DNA will be resistant to a specific antibiotic (in this case streptomycin). Therefore, you can grow your bacteria on plates with streptomycin, and in theory, the bacteria will be unable to grow if they don't have the resistance gene and your gene of interest.

Here, strain A does not grow on streptomycin plates, but strain B now has 100 colonies. This suggests strain B can grow on streptomycin, meaning it is resistant.

Strain B is therefore the streptomycin resistant master plate strain.

Exocytosis is a type of cellular transport that allows materials to move across the plasma membrane of a cell. Which of the statements describe properties of exocytosis? a. Exocytosis is the primary method of transporting large molecules out of the cell. b. Exocytosis is the primary method of transporting large molecules into the cell c. Exocytosis uses transport vesicles to export materials from the cell d. Exocytosis uses membrane channel proteins to import materials into the cell. e. Exocytosis uses transport vesicles to import materials into the cell.

Answers

Final answer:

Exocytosis is a cellular transport process that allows materials to move across the plasma membrane of a cell. It is the primary method of transporting large molecules out of the cell and uses transport vesicles to export materials from the cell. Option E

Explanation:

Exocytosis is a cellular transport process that allows materials to move across the plasma membrane of a cell.

It is the primary method of transporting large molecules out of the cell and uses transport vesicles to export materials from the cell.

Exocytosis is used by cells to remove waste products and release chemical signals or substances, such as digestive enzymes and hormones, into the extracellular fluid.

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The significance of checkpoints can be demonstrated by considering what happens when they are impaired. What would occur if there was a gain-of-function mutation in the promoter for the cyclin E gene such that cyclin E protein was always made at high levels even under conditions in which cyclin E would not normally be made?

Answers

The significance of checkpoints can be demonstrated by considering what happens when they are impaired. What would occur if there was a gain-of-function mutation in the promoter for the cyclin E gene such that cyclin E protein was always made at high levels even under conditions in which cyclin E would not normally be made?

a. Cells will pass through the G2/M checkpoint with damaged DNA.

b. Cells will skip the S phase and go directly to G2 phase and not complete DNA replication.

c. Cells will pass through the G1/S checkpoint even if conditions are not ideal for cell division.

d. Cells will pass the M checkpoint with chromosomes unattached to spindles.

Answer:

c. Cells will pass through the G1/S checkpoint even if conditions are not ideal for cell division.

Explanation:

Cyclins are the regulatory proteins that are formed during different stages of the cell cycle. A specific cyclin during each stage bind to corresponding cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKS). The activated CDKs phosphorylate the proteins required for the progression of a cell through a specific stage of the cell cycle.

For example, Cyclin E is synthesized at the peak near the G1 -S phase transition or G1/S checkpoint. They activate the CDK-2 and allow the cells to progress from G1 to the S phase. If the cell is not prepared for DNA replication, cyclin E is not formed or is inhibited by specific protein kinases which in turn does not allow the cell to enter the S phase.

Any gain of function mutation resulting in the constitutive synthesis of cyclin E would allow the cell to pass through the G1/S checkpoint irrespective of the conditions.

Multicellular organisms use cell division, mitosis, for growth and the maintenance and repair of cells and tissues. There are few cells in the body that do not undergo mitosis: most somatic cells divide regularly, some more than others. Single-celled organisms may use cell division as their method of reproduction. Regardless of the reason for mitosis, the process ensures genetic continuity. Consider the model of the cell cycle. Which detail(s) from the model best support the argument that cell division promotes genetic continuity?

Answers

Final answer:

The model of the cell cycle provides details about how cell division promotes genetic continuity, including DNA duplication, accurate segregation of chromosomes, and cytokinesis.

Explanation:

The model of the cell cycle provides several details that support the argument that cell division promotes genetic continuity:

During interphase, the cell grows and the nuclear DNA is duplicated. This ensures that each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the genetic material, maintaining genetic continuity. In the mitotic phase, the duplicated chromosomes are segregated and distributed into daughter nuclei. This process ensures that the genetic information is accurately passed on to the next generation of cells. Following mitosis, the cytoplasm is divided through cytokinesis, resulting in two genetically identical daughter cells. This further ensures that each cell receives a complete set of genetic information.

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When using oil immersion you must start focusing and centering the specimen as usual with the 4X objective, then sequentially with the 10X, and 40X, and finally the 100X objectives.
At what point is the oil introduced?

Answers

Answer:

100X

Explanation:

Majorly when using lower magnification microscope objective lenses (4x, 10x, 40x) the light refraction is not usually observed. But, at the 100x objective lens, the light refraction when employing a dry lens is observed. At a reducd light refraction, more light goes in the microscope slide and channelled at the very narrow diameter of a greater power objective lens. In microscopy, the greater the light = clear and vivid images. Immersion oil that has a refractive index same as the glass slide in the region filled with air, channels more light through the objective and a clear and crispy image is produced.

NOTE: OIL WILL DAMAGE THE OTHER LENSES.

Answer:The point at which oil is introduced is when focusing with 100X objectives.

Explanation:

Oil immersion in microscopy involves the use of a highly magnification( such as 100X objectives) and a transparent oil which aims at increasing the amount of light that is passing through the mounted specimen at a short focal length for a better view of the specimen features. The purpose of using oil immersion technique is to reduce the amount of scattered light as magnification is increased; thus, at lower magnification( such as X10,X40) this is not noticed.

Several factors influence the rate of diffusion and among these factors are temperature, ____________ , electrical currents, and molecular size. For example, as temperature ____________ , the rate of diffusion increases.

Answers

Answer: States of matter; increases

Several factors influence the rate of diffusion and among these factors are temperature, STATES OF MATTER, electrical currents, and molecular size. For example, as temperature INCREASES, the rate of diffusion increases.

Explanation:

Factors influencing the rate of diffusion include:

- Temperature: High temperature increases the speed at which molecules move. Thus, as temperature increases, the rate of diffusion increases

- States of matter: Diffusion varies within the three states of matter. The diffusion of gases is much faster than that of liquids and solids, because the gas molecules are freer and therefore faster than the rest.

- Molecular size: The smaller the molecules, the faster the rate of diffusion while the larger the molecules, the slower the rate of diffusion.

Other factors include electrical currents.

Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural elements and arrangements. Which of the following hypotheses is most plausible in light of such structural similarities?
a. Loss of basal bodies should lead to loss of all cilia, flagella, and centrioles.
b. Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved before any of these four kinds of structures.
c. Natural selection for cell motility repeatedly selected for microtubular arrays in circular patterns in the evolution of each of these structures.
d. Cilia and flagella arise from the centrioles.
e. Cilia and flagella coevolved in the same ancestral eukaryotic organism.

Answers

Answer:

Cilia and flagella arise from the centrioles

Explanation:

Some cells have projections made up of microtubules and covered by extensions of the plasma membrane.

These projections can be cilia or flagella.

Centrioles are also made of microtubule from which the cilia and flagella arise. It also takes part during cell division

Basal bodies are protein structures found at the base of cilia and flagella. It functions as a site starting point for the growth of microtubule for the cilia and flagella

(Blank) organize the elements to form glucose

Answers

Carbon is both a waste product and an energy source in cellular respiration occurring with glucose molecules and forms the base element in the cellular respiratory cycles of glycolysis and the subsequent Kreb's cycle in which glucose is transformed into energy.

What is a homogeneous structure and what are some examples

Answers

Answer:

A homologous structure can be described as structures present in similar and different species. These structures might not perform the same functions but are similar because they might have a common ancestor in the past.

An example of a homologous structure is the arms of a human and the wings of a bat. Although the arms of a human and the wings of a bat do not perform the same function yet they do have similarities because they have a common ancestor in the past.

Use the following words in multiple sentences to show your understanding of how they connect together.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is explained in the below mentioned sequence :

Eukaryotic Cell.Nucleus.DNA.Bases.Chromosomes.Genes.Transcription.mRNA.Translation.Codon.Ribosome.Amino acids.Protein.

Explanation:

Eukaryotic Cell contains a Nucleus which has a double membrane.The nucleus contains DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid which is the genetic material.The DNA is made up of nitrogenous bases along with phosphate and deoxyribose sugar backbone.The DNA supercoils itself to form the Chromosome.Each chromosome has multiple Genes on then that are represented by specific sequences.The genes are transcribed by DNA-dependent RNA polymerase to generate an mRNA transcript.The mRNA or messenger RNA moved from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where they undergo Translation.Translation is a process in which the message in the mRNA sequence is read by the ribosome to produce a polypeptide chain.The message on the mRNA remains as a three letter code called the Codon. Each codon represents an amino acid.The Ribosome reads each codon and with the help of amino-acyl tRNA synthase uses amino acids to construct a polypeptide chain.The polypeptide chain folds in the proper orientation to generate a functional protein.

The first cells may have gained energy through a. redox reactions using diatomic oxygen (O2) as the final electron acceptor. b. ingesting algae present in the early oceans. c. light-driven ion pumps. d. the controlled oxidation of petroleum.

Answers

Answer:

c. Through light-driven ion pumps

Explanation:

a. Through redox reactions using diatomic oxygen (O2) as the final electron acceptor❌

Oxygen was observed to be lacking on early Earth.

b. Through the controlled oxidation of petroleum❌

Petroleum is categorically a fossil fuel and couldn't be marked as being available or found on early Earth.

c. Through light-driven ion pumps✔✔✔

Light-energy that was derived from the sun was a ready and accessible source of energy that could have directed proton pumps in early or first cells.

d. Through ingesting algae present in the early oceans❌

Algae are known to be eukaryotes and was seen to have been established billions of years after the first cells developed.

Answer:

c. light-driven ion pumps.

Explanation:

According to the records we know that the first cells took energy from the surrounding environment, and lived in the absence of O2, with the shortage of nutrients they began to obtain energy from sunlight and CO2 present in the atmosphere.

Free energy in the cell creates disorder. Cells harness free energy to drive unfavorable reactions by using Activated Carrier Molecules. Which of the following act as carrier molecules in cells? A. AMP B. NADPH C. FAD D. ATP E. All of the F. Above A and C G. B and D

Answers

Answer:

G

Explanation:

NADPH (Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate) and ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) are forms in which energy is stored in metabolic reactions

Final answer:

The question is about identifying carrier molecules among ATP, NADPH, FAD, and AMP in cells. ATP, NADPH, and FAD act as carrier molecules, facilitating energy transfer and electron shuttling in cellular processes. Therefore, the correct answer is that all of the mentioned molecules serve as carrier molecules, with a clarification on the unique roles of NADPH, FAD, and ATP.

Explanation:

The question asks which of the following act as carrier molecules in cells: AMP, NADPH, FAD, or ATP. In cellular metabolism, activated carrier molecules are crucial for transferring energy and electrons to drive endergonic reactions, which are reactions that require an input of energy. Notably, Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the primary energy currency of cells, acting as a direct source of energy for various cellular processes. NADPH and FAD are key electron carriers involved in redox reactions, including those in photosynthesis and cellular respiration, respectively. AMP, while related to ATP, does not serve in the same capacity as a direct energy carrier or electron shuttle in cells. Therefore, the correct answer is E. All of the Above, acknowledge the roles of NADPH, FAD, and ATP as activated carrier molecules in cellular processes.

Given that the horse has a diploid chromosome number of 64 and a zebra has a diploid chromosome number of 46, what would be the expected chromosome number in the somatic tissues if a viable hybrid were possible between these two animals

Answers

Answer: 55

The expected chromosome number in the hybrid would be 55

Explanation:

To obtain the hybrid organism:

- the diploid (2n) cell of horse will undergo meiosis to produce a gamete with halved chromosome. This gamete is with haploid number (n)

Thus, 64 / 2 = 32

- the diploid (2n) cell of Zebra will undergo the same pattern as the horse

Thus, 46 / 2 = 23

Then, the gametes of the two animals will be fused to form a zygote of the hybrid.

32 + 23 = 55

Hence, the zygote will form a diploid hybrid organism with an expected chromosome number of 55

Most naturally occurring selective pressures do not eliminate reproduction by the affected individuals. Instead, their reproductive capacity is reduced by a small proportion. How would your results differ if there was only 20% negative selection pressure rather then 100%?

Answers

Answer:

The result would differ in the sense that the reproductive success would not decrease at the same rate at 20% as it would at 100%. At 20% it would decrease faster.

Final answer:

A 20% negative selection pressure results in a slower rate of allele elimination from the population, leading to a more gradual evolutionary change compared to 100% negative selection pressure. This allows for greater genetic diversity and adaptability in facing future environmental changes.

Explanation:

Naturally occurring selective pressures, such as predators, diseases, or environmental conditions, tend to reduce an organism's reproductive capacity rather than completely negate it. If there was only 20% negative selection pressure, as opposed to 100%, this would mean that the affected individuals still retain a significant proportion (80%) of their reproductive capability. Consequently, the alleles or genetic traits subject to this pressure would be eliminated from the population at a slower rate compared to a scenario with 100% negative selection pressure. Over time, this could lead to a more gradual change in the allele frequencies within the population, affecting the pace at which evolution occurs under these selective pressures.

The evolutionary impact of differing levels of selective pressure illustrates how natural selection can shape populations over time. A 20% selective pressure allows for a greater diversity of genetic material to remain within the population, potentially enabling it to adapt to future changes in the environment or new selective pressures. Thus, understanding the nuances of selective pressure helps us grasp the complex dynamics of evolution and the survival of species in changing environments.

You are a virologist interested in studying the evolution of viral genomes. You are studying two newly isolated viral strains and have sequenced their genomes. You find that the genome of strain 1 contains 25% A, 55% G, 20% C, and 10% T. You report that you have isolated a virus with a single-stranded DNA genome. Based on what evidence can you make this conclusion? PLEASE EXPLAIN YOUR ANSWER!A. single-stranded genomes always have a large percentage of purinesB. Double-stranded genomes have equal amounts of A and TC. Single-stranded genomes have a higher rate of mutation

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The evidence that prompt this conclusion is the reported amount of  nucleotide present which is varied because double stranded DNA genome which is usually heavier, more stable usually contains Adenine to thymine ratio of 1 to 1 and guanine to cytosine ratio of 1 to 1 and an over all of 1 to 1 ratio of purines to pyrimidines ( Double-stranded genomes have equal amounts of A to C )compared to what is reported which has a varied ratio ( A to T is 1 : 3 and G to C is about 0.77 for ss stranded DNA).

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The secondary oocyte (ovum) contains most of the cytoplasm and organelles from the oogonium. 2. The secondary oocyte contains the diploid chromosome complement. 3. The polar body forms from discarded DNA during oogenesis.

Answers

In oogenesis, the secondary oocyte indeed inherits most cytoplasm and organelles from the oogonium, making statement 1 correct.

The question revolves around oogenesis, the process of ovum (egg) formation, and includes three statements for validation. Let's address each:

The secondary oocyte contains most of the cytoplasm and organelles from the oogonium. This statement is correct. During oogenesis, the secondary oocyte indeed inherits most of the cytoplasm, nutrients, and organelles to ensure the zygote has sufficient resources following fertilization.

The secondary oocyte contains the diploid chromosome complement. This statement is incorrect. The secondary oocyte does not contain a diploid set of chromosomes, but rather a haploid set. After the first meiotic division, the chromosome number is halved.

The polar body forms from discarded DNA during oogenesis. This statement is correct. Polar bodies are formed from uneven cell division, where they receive a minimal amount of cytoplasm and are mostly composed of unneeded DNA, eventually degenerating.

In summary, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect within the context of oogenesis.

Proteins are constantly being synthesized in a living cell. Why doesn't the number of protein molecules become too great for the cell to contain, leading to cell destruction?

Answers

Answer:

Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have gene regulation strategies. By gene regulation, the amount of protein is maintained in the living cell.  

In prokaryotes, operons are present which are controlled by a regulatory gene that regulates the synthesis of protein in prokaryotes. In eukaryotes, repressor and transcription activators regulate the expression of gene and protein formation.  

So by gene regulation cell maintains the number of protein molecules to become too great for a cell. Without gene regulation the survival of any organism is not possible.

Effects of Cycles on Ecosystems
Pre-Test Active
@@@@@
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Trees obtain carbon from
a decaying organisms
b. sunlight
C the atmosphere
d. none of the above

Answers

Answer:

The atmosphere

Explanation:

The major reservoir of carbon in the abiotic environment is the atmosphere where it occurs as carbon dioxide. Atmospheric carbon dioxide is used by green plants for the synthesis of organic compounds through photosynthesis.

Soon after the island of Hawaii rose above the sea surface (somewhat less than one million years ago), the evolution of life on this new island should have been most strongly influenced by _____.

A) genetic bottleneck.
B) sexual selection.
C) habitat differentiation.
D) founder effect.

Answers

Answer:

Soon after the island of Hawaii rose above the sea surface (somewhat less than one million years ago), the evolution of life on this new island should have been most strongly influenced by habitat differentiation

Explanation:

Habitat differentiation has to do with when new environment is carved out of old one to form a new one, just as the description that occurs in island of Hawai Rose.

The energy content and biomass of ________ is lowest in a terrestrial food web. Group of answer choices a. detritivores and decomposers b. top carnivores producers c. small carnivores such as spiders and lizards

Answers

Answer:

Option b. top carnivores is correct.

Explanation:

organism that found at the top of the PYRAMID OF NUMBERS that feed (preys) on other organisms but which is not itself preyed on are called top carnivore. They actually regulate terrestrial ecosystems. For example, tiger. (See attached Image)

Final answer:

In a terrestrial food web, producers have the lowest energy content and biomass.

Explanation:

In a terrestrial food web, the energy content and biomass is lowest in producers. Producers, such as plants, convert solar energy into chemical energy through photosynthesis. They are the primary source of energy in a food web, and as energy flows through the system, some energy is lost at each trophic level, resulting in a decrease in energy content and biomass.

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The causative agent of botulism, a deadly form of food poisoning, is an endospore-forming bacterium called Clostridium botulinim. Why might it be difficult to kill this bacterium in contaminated food?

Answers

Answer: It is difficult to kill clostridium botulinum in food because the organism grow under low oxygen condition and produce spores and toxin. The bacterium can survive under harsh condition and produce spores that are resistant to heat, drying and chemicals. These spores germinate into bacteria in food when conditions is favourable.

Explanation:

Botulisim is a serious and fatal illness caused by the neurotoxin secreted by clostridium botulinum. This toxin block nerve function and can lead to respiratory and muscular paralysis. The toxin is found in improper processed can food.

Lipids provide a significant energy reserve. form essential structural components of cells. help to maintain body temperature. cushion organs against shocks. All of the answers are correct.

Answers

Answer: All of the answers are correct

Explanation:

Lipids refers to a group of small biomolecules that do not dissolve in water, but dissolve readily in nonpolar solvents and contain fatty acid, sterols.

They have several:

- phospholipids forms the structural components of cells and biological membranes.

- Triacylglycerides serves as energy reserve (release energy during starvation) in the adipose tissues of animals.

- lipids in the adipose tissues of animals also provide insulation against cold, thereby maintaining body temperature

- lipids such as phospholipids are found in the biological membranes of many organs like the heart, brain etc, where they help to absorb shock or damage during severe hit to such organs.

So, all the answers are correct

Final answer:

Lipids are crucially important as they provide a significant energy reserve, form essential structural components of cells, help maintain body temperature and cushion organs against shocks. All the options are correct.

Explanation:

Lipids are a class of organic molecules. These lipids perform several essential functions in the body. Firstly, they serve as a significant energy reserve, meaning that during times when other energy sources like carbohydrates are not available, the body can break down lipids to generate energy.

Second, lipids form essential structural components of cells. They are integral parts of the cell membrane and provide barriers in cellular transportation. Third, they help to maintain body temperature by providing insulation. Lastly, they protect our internal organs by cushioning them against shocks, acting almost like shock absorbers in the body.

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A ligand is a A. substance that binds to receptor molecules. B. type of electrical stimulus. C. type of drug. D. cholinergic synapse.

Answers

Answer: (A) Substance that binds to receptor molecules.

Explanation: Is any molecule which attaches reversibly to a protein. These are typically used in cellular signaling and cellular regulation, but have many other uses.

a. A ligand is a substance that binds to receptor molecules.

What is a Ligand?

A ligand is an ion or molecule, which donates a pair of electrons to the central metal atom or ion to form a coordination complex. It is a substance that forms a complex with a biomolecule to serve a biological purpose.In protein-ligand binding it is usually a molecule which produces a signal by binding to a site on a target protein.A ligand is defined as any molecule or atom that irreversibly binds to a receiving protein molecule, otherwise known as a receptor.For example: In protein-ligand binding-insulin is used to signal various things to the metabolism of each cell.

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In a population of rabbits, there are 496 black rabbits and 27 white rabbits. Fur color is determined by a pair of alleles where (B) is the dominant allele which produces black fur and (b) the recessive allele which produces white fur. The frequency of the dominant allele for black fur (B) is 0.8. What is the frequency of the black fur phenotype in the population (the population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium)? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth. (Hint: remember the numeric format of frequency).

Answers

Answer:

[tex]0.96[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that

B is the dominant allele which represents the black color

and b is the recessive allele which represents the white fur.

B being dominant will result into black color fur for genotype "Bb"

Given -

Frequency of black fur allele (p) is [tex]0.8[/tex]

As per Hardy Weinberg's  first law of equilibrium

[tex]p + q = 1\\[/tex]

Substituting the value of p in above equation, we get -

[tex]q = 1-p\\q = 1-0.8\\q= 0.2[/tex]

q represents the frequency for white fur allele

Frequency of white fur phenotype is

[tex]q^2\\= 0.2^2\\= 0.04[/tex]

Frequency of homozygous black fur phenotype (BB) is

[tex]p^2\\= 0.8^2\\= 0.64[/tex]

As per Hardy Weinberg's second law of equilibrium -

[tex]p^2 + q^2 + 2pq = 1\\0.64 + 0.04 + 2pq = 1\\2pq = 1 - 0.68\\2pq = 0.32\\[/tex]

Combined frequency of homozygous and heterozygous black fur phenotype is

[tex]0.64 + 0.32\\= 0.96[/tex]

A black mamba snake has a length of 2.67 m and a top speed of 3.96 m/s . Suppose a mongoose and a black mamba find themselves nose to nose. In an effort to escape, the snake accelerates at 1.47 m/s 2 from rest. How much time does it take the snake to reach its top speed?

Answers

Answer:

time (t) = 2.69 sec

Explanation:

Given that;

The final top speed of 3.96 m/s ( final velocity V) = 3.96 m/s .

The initial speed is 0; &

The acceleration (a) = 1.47 m/s²

We can determine how much time does it take the snake to reach its top speed by using the equation of motion;

V = U +at

3.96 = 0 + (1.47×t)

3.96 = 1.47t

t = [tex]\frac{3.96}{1.47}[/tex]

time (t) = 2.69 sec

∴ It took the snake  2.69 sec to reach the its top speed.

The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as A) hypothesis-based science. B) discovery science. C) experimental science. D) quantitative science. E) qualitative science.

Answers

Answer: B) Discovery science

Explanation:

Discovery science is the science which is a fact finding inquiry. It describes the natural structures and processes and tries to find the phenomena responsible for these natural structures and processes by keen observation, data collection, analysis of the data and drawing the results and relating it with the natural phenomena.

Final answer:

Discovery science: A method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes through careful observation and analysis of data.

Explanation:The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as discovery science.

Discovery science focuses on gathering information through observation and description of natural phenomena. It aims to uncover new knowledge and develop new theories rather than testing specific hypotheses.

For example, in biology, discovery science can involve observing and studying new species, analyzing ecological patterns, or investigating the behavior and characteristics of organisms in their natural habitats.

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What term describes an individual possessing two of the same alleles at a gene locus? monohybrid dihybrid homozygous wild type heterozygous

Answers

Question was't arranged i have arranged it in  ask for detail section.

Answer:

Option e. homozygous is the correct answer.

Explanation:

A gene which has two identical alleles on homologous chromosomes is called homozygous. It is denoted by XX (capital letters)  for dominant character (alleles) and  xx (lowercase letters) for recessive character (alleles).

An individual possessing two of the same alleles at a gene locus is described as "homozygous."

Homozygous:

Homozygous refers to a genetic condition where an individual carries two identical alleles at a particular gene locus on a pair of homologous chromosomes.

These alleles can be the same for a particular trait, whether dominant or recessive.

For instance, if a person has two identical alleles for brown eyes (let's denote this as "BB"), they are considered homozygous for the eye color gene at that specific locus.

Understanding Alleles and Genetic Loci:

Genetic loci are specific positions on a chromosome where a particular gene is located. Each gene at a given locus can have multiple forms, known as alleles.

Alleles can be either identical (homozygous) or different (heterozygous) for a specific gene.

Contrast with Heterozygous:

In contrast, heterozygous individuals have two different alleles at a specific gene locus.

For example, if an individual has one allele for brown eyes and one allele for blue eyes (denoted as "Bb"), they are considered heterozygous for the eye color gene.

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Think about the many factors that are used to classify viruses. In order for Lauren to determine the type of virus she may have, she needs to understand some basic concepts about how viruses are characterized. Please sort the following statements as being true or false regarding characteristics of viruses.

Answers

Answer:

True statements:

- Viruses are not capable of metabolic activity on their own; they must have a host cell to reproduce.

- The genetic material of a virus can be DNA or RNA.

- Viruses can have different shapes.

- Capsids function to surround and protect the nucleic acid core.

- The genomes of viruses are usually smaller than the genomes of bacteria.

Incorrect Statements

- All viruses have both a capsid and an envelope.

- Capsids are adquired from the host cell during replication or release.

- The intracellular state of a virus is called a virion.

Explanation:

All of this are very important aspects to know in order to identify a virus from a bacteria. And also there are a lot of factors by which a virologist can classify viruses: the type of nuleid acid, the presence or absecence of an envelope, the capsyd, and how the virus reproduce.

Protein function is lost or reduced when a protein is denatured. Which of the environmental factors listed can cause protein denaturation? excessive heat extreme pH exposure to water protein‑digesting enzymes

Answers

Answer:

Option A,  Excessive heat

Explanation:

A denatured protein is the one whose structure changes with the loss of an activity. Generally, a denatured protein unfolds itself when the 2 D network of water around the protein molecule breaks by the breaking of hydrogen bonds. This primarily happens when the temperature is high. Both hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions are disturbed by the heat thereby breaking hydrogen bonds.

Answer:

excessive heat

extreme pH

Explanation:

Protein denaturation can occur when they are exposed to abruptly increased temperature conditions and extremes of pH. Heat denature proteins by affecting the weak interactions that stabilize their secondary or tertiary structures. It makes the proteins less functional or completely non-functional. Similarly, extremes of pH alter the net charge on the protein. This causes electrostatic repulsion between the amino acids and disrupts some hydrogen bonds. Loss of these weak interactions denatures proteins.

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