Answer:
The correct answer would be - it would increase.
Explanation:
The enzyme that is responsible for the metabolism of caffeine is produced by the gene CYP1A2 that is code for this enzyme. The change or the variability of the activity of gene and the activity of the enzyme produce by the less activity of gene would affect the clearance of the caffeine from the body and cause disease.
The less efficient enzyme would affect the half life cycle as it will not able to reduce the activation energy which lead to the increase in the half life cycle of the caffeine.
Thus, the correct answer is - it would increase.
Answer:
it would increase
Explanation:
Isabel had been taking Valium, a benzodiazepine, for a few years to calm her nerves and help her sleep. She had her dosage increased by her doctor because her previous dosage wasn’t helping her sleep at night anymore. One night, she went out with her husband for his company’s annual Christmas party. She had never been much of a drinker, but that evening she wanted to enjoy a few cocktails. She was very careful not to mix her Valium with alcohol, as her doctor had warned her. Towards the end of the evening, Isabel realized that she had had at least 5 cocktails and didn’t feel drunk at all. Which term may best describe why this happened?
a. Cross dependence
b. Cross tolerance
c. Up-regulation
d. Co-transmission
Answer:
Cross tolerance.
Explanation:
Cross - tolerance may be defined as the phenomena in which the tolerance of the one chemical increases the tolerance of the other chemical. This cross tolerance can occur in case of the multiple drugs in the individual.
The cross tolerance especially occurs in the different drugs that have similar functions or may act on the same receptors. Isabel drugs shows the cross tolerance with the alcohol as these includes the tolerance for each other and do not increase the drunkenness .
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The case manager makes a home visit to the client's household and finds that the client has become psychotic in the prior 3 days and has bolted himself in the his room. The case manager works to encourage the client to come out and calls the ambulance to take the client to the emergency department. At what level of prevention is the case manager working?
Answer:
This is secondary level of prevention.The aim is to provide timely intervention, so that full manifestation of a disease condition is prevented.
its involves early detection of a disease onset, analysis of the probable risks that may be involved, and arrangement of clinical intervention to arrest the manifestation of the diseases and its symptoms ; it is like subduing the progression of a disease that is without symptoms(asymptomatic) so that the deceases will not produce symptoms become(symptomatic)
This procedure involve some clinical assessments- test for glucose, the blood pressure of the subject, the levels of blood cholesterol , the bone density etc. to enable the health practitioner to make early intervention.
Explanation:
A client arrives at a health clinic stating, "I am here to have my tuberculin skin test read." The nurse notes that there is a 7mm indurated area at the injection site. Which statement made by the nurse correctly describes this result?a. "The result indicates that you have active tuberculosis."b. "The result indicates that you are infected with the tuberculosis organism."c. "The result indicates that there are no tuberculin antibodies in your system."d. "The result indicates that you have a secondary infection related to the tuberculin organism."
The tuberculin skin test measures the body's response to the tuberculosis bacteria. A 7mm induration can indicate a positive result in certain risk groups, which only means the person has been infected with the TB bacteria. Further evaluation is needed to ascertain if the infection is active or latent.
Explanation:In a tuberculin skin test, the size of the induration (hard, swollen area) after the injection determines if the test is positive. The nurse, in this case, noted a 7mm indurated area. This would be considered a positive result if the individual belongs to a high-risk group, for instance, people living with HIV, recent immigrants from high TB prevalence areas, or those in close contact with TB patients. However, it is important to understand that a positive tuberculin skin test doesn't necessarily mean the person has active tuberculosis; it only indicates that the person has been infected with the TB bacteria.
Thus, the correct statement made by the nurse would be 'The result indicates that you are infected with the tuberculosis organism.' A more detailed evaluation is needed to confirm whether the infection is active or latent.
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Norman was injured in a severe car accident, and now, according to his doctors, his hormone levels are highly irregular. In order to have created such havoc in his endocrine system, Norman's injury probably involved damage to his ______________.
Answer:
pituitary gland
Explanation:
The pituitary gland is a ductless gland of the endocrine system located on the underside of the brain and is attached to the hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is responsible for the regulation of the secretion of various hormones into the bloodstream, which controls many different processes and vital functions of the body. It is referred to as the “master gland”. It controls endocrine glands such as the thyroid gland, adrenal gland, reproductive gland.
Answer:
Norman was injured in a severe car accident, and now, according to his doctors, his hormone levels are highly irregular. In order to have created such havoc in his endocrine system, Norman's injury probably involved damage to his pituitary gland.
Explanation:
As in the given scenario, hormones level are highly irregular after the accident , it is a probability that the pituitary gland was damaged due to severe head injury resulting in irregular hormone levels
Pituitary gland is located in brain responsible to produce topical (stimulating) as well as local hormones.
The hormones produced by the pituitary gland stimulates the production of hormones by a peripheral endocrine gland , liver or other tissues.
Malcolm has been watching a roulette-style game at a local charity bazaar. The game has only ten numbers on the wheel, and every number except 8 has come up as a winner during the last 15 minutes. Malcolm decides to bet $10 on number 8, because it eventually has to come up. In this case, Malcolm is showing evidence of ________.a. the availability heuristic.
b. the gambler's fallacy.
c. the base rate fallacy.
d. the conjunction fallacy.
Answer:
b. the gambler's fallacy
Explanation:
Monte Carlo fallacy also known as the gamblers fallacy is a player's misconception that one event will have an impact on the outcome of a future event when both events actually are separate. Individuals make a mistake when they assume that one thing needs to happen again and again to necessitate that something else happens again.
___________ care is a NICU procedure that involves skin-to-skin contact in which the baby, wearing only a diaper, is held upright against the parent's bare chest.
Answer:
The correct answer is- Kangaroo care
Explanation:
Kangaroo care is a method of baby carrying given especially to the baby who is premature. It involves the skin-to-skin contact of naked baby or partially naked baby(baby with the only a diaper) with the parent or mother's bare skin for as long as possible.
It helps the premature baby to stabilize its heart rate, decrease crying, gaining weight rapidly, improve the pattern of breathing, increase sleep time. etc. The longer the time of kangaroo care the better would be the result in baby health. Therefore the correct answer is kangaroo care.
Which statement about the cerebellum is true?
a. It appears to play a role in matching faces to names. It helps regulate sleep-wake cycles.
b. It is important for muscle coordination and balance.
c. It is a division of the peripheral nervous system.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
In a psychiatric in-patient setting, the nurse observes an adolescent client's peers calling the client names. In this context, which statement by the nurse exemplifies the concept of empathy?
1. "I can see that you are upset. Tell me how you feel."
2. "Your peers are being insensitive. I would be upset also."
3. "I used to be called names as a child. I know it can hurt feelings."
4. "I get angry when people are treated cruelly
Answer: 3. "I used to be called names as a child. I know it can hurt feelings."
Explanation: Empathy means the ability to understand and share the feelings of another.
Enculturation is _____________.a.learning the customs and behaviors of another cultureb.teaching others about your personal beliefsc.learning the customs and behaviors of your own cultured.using cultural beliefs to communicate ethically
Answer:
C) learning the customs and behaviors of your own culture
Explanation:
Enculturation refers to the process in which a person adapts its culture that is the person learns about the practices of their own culture and accept them.
The process of enculturation is performed through unconscious repetition and sets the limits and responsibilities for the person.
The authoritative person in the life of a child like the parents are the initiators of the enculturation which teach them social practices, make their beliefs about their culture and establishes the ideals of the culture.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A 10-year-old boy arrives with his mother at the emergency department after being bitten by a stray dog. He has sustained a soft tissue injury on the inner aspect of the left forearm, and it is bleeding. What is the priority nursing action?
1
Asking the mother whether her son is allergic to horse serum
2
Assessing the injury and the child's vital signs and health history
3
Inoculating the child with human rabies immunoglobulin
4
Notifying the police department to capture and test the dog
2.
For effective decisions to be made, baseline information on the child's condition, extent of injury, and significant health history are required first. Hyperimmune antirabies serum is not a preferred treatment. Inoculation for establishment of short-term, passive immunity to rabies follows initial care of injuries; the priority is assessment and treatment of the injury. Authorities should be notified after the injured child has received care.
Answer:
2
Explanation:
After being diagnosed with an untreatable, terminal form of cancer, Peggy shouted "This isn't fair! I've always exercised and eaten right! Why me?" What stage of dying is Peggy likely experiencing?
Answer:
Stage of Anger
Explanation:
Biotechnology R&D professionals called_________ develop cardiac pacemakers.
Answer:
The correct answer is - bio-engineers or biotechnology engineers.
Explanation:
Bio engineers are the research and development professionals who work to help in solving complex problems health, and medical problems. The role of the these professionals are research and materials to know if that can be used as implants in the human body.
They engineered the artificial organs or devices that help in saving lives such as cardiac pacemakers that helps in regulate the heart beat.
Thus, the correct answer is - bio-engineers or biotechnology engineers.
A local activist group is trying to stop a major corporation from developing land set aside as a preserved wetland to build a new shopping mall. Which communication tool would most likely help them recruit the most support from the community?
A.) an editorial written in the local newspaper describing the problems created by the mall
B.) televised press conferences where they can talk with people about the issue
C.) flyers describing the dangers of project sent to homes in the targeted area
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
If the EEG record reveals evidence of sleep spindles, you are likely to conclude that the sleeping person is in which stage of sleep?
Answer: stage two(2)
Explanation:
The stage two (2) sleep is been characterized or categorized by sleep spindles and the K- complexes .
Also as we move to the stage two sleep, the body goes into a deep stage of relaxation of sleep also know as the stage two (2) sleep .
Answer: STAGE 2 OF SLEEP
N2 (R STAGE 2)
Explanation: Stage 2 of sleep is also known as NON-REM(non rapid eye movement) stage and it is characterised by short rythmic bursts of brainwave activity known as sleep spindles.
In this second stage of sleep,there is decreased metabolic activity in the body, the heart rate, breathing and eye movement slows down.the muscles relax with intervals of twitching,the brain waves slows down from their daytime wakefulness.
These processes are regulated from the higher brain centers which is part of the cerebrum that is associated with cognitive processes.
Today, Sean only ate three sandwiches made with whole-grain buns, 3 slices of cheese, and 10 ounces of roast beef. He also drank 3 cups of orange juice. According to MyPlate, he ate nothing from the food group that includes _________.A. milk and milk products.
B. eggs.
C. nuts.
D. vegetables.
Answer:
he ate nothing from the food group that includes : ‘Vegetables ‘
Explanation:
Vegetables are parts of plants that are consumed by humans or animals
A 72-year-old female has a one-week history of 101°F fever, chills, and dark-brown sputum production. She also has rhonchi and rales throughout her right lung. If this condition is left untreated, it could result in:a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Septic shock
d. Pneumonia
Answer:
septic shock
Explanation:
is a wide spread infection causeing organ failure
Answer:
septic shock
Explanation:
One of the armored virus infection techniques utilizes encryption to make virus code more difficult to detect, in addition to separating virus code into different pieces and inject these pieces throughout the infected program code. What is the name for this technique?
a. stealth
b. appender
c. swiss cheese
d. split
Answer:
Option C. Swiss cheese is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Swiss cheese is one of the method or technique which is one of the armored virus infection technique that helps to create virus code tough to trace with the help of the encryption. Swiss cheese techniques involve fragmenting virus code into different pieces and inject these fragments in all infected program.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
Finding many possible solutions to a particular problem, including unique, untested solutions is called ______. a. innovation b. diversity c. creativity d. divergent thinking
In a single paragraph, compare physical dependence with psychological dependence.
Answer:
Physical dependence is a state in which there are chronic symptoms of physical withdrawal due to the excessive use of drugs or an illness. A person feels physically ill and helpless.
Psychological dependence is the presence of anxiety, mental inability to withdraw from an act, usually drug addictions. Their minds are stuck and they go through dependence which is visible through their physical and verbal behaviors or actions.
A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is being taught to self-administer pilocarpine. After the client administers the pilocarpine, the client states that her vision is blurred. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Pilocarpine is an antimuscarinic drug. There are M3 receptors located on the pupil responsible to constrict the pupils (miosis ) and also causing cyclospasm.
As pilocarpine is administered ,it is a pharmacologic antagonist of the muscarinic receptor , it results in mydriasis (dilation of pupils ) and cycloplegia ( inability to accommodate ) resulting in blurred vision.
Hence it is one of the side effects of pilocarpine.
ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is a disease that destroys nerve cells that control skeletal muscle activity. Without neural stimulation, skeletal muscles eventually waste away and mobility is impossible. In other words, skeletal muscles __________.
Answer:
ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is a disease that destroys nerve cells that control skeletal muscle activity. Without neural stimulation, skeletal muscles eventually waste away and mobility is impossible. In other words, skeletal muscles is a form of striated muscle tissue, which is under the voluntary control of the somatic nervous system.
Explanation:
"Most skeletal muscles are attached to bones by bundles of collagen fibers known as tendons."
Peter read that eating a diet full of processed foods and fats won't help to promote the good bacteria in our colon. These good bacteria keep us healthy. Which breakfast is a good way to introduce good bacteria to our gut?
a. bacon and hash browns
b. yogurt and granola
c. eggs and sausage
d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice
e. omelet with processed cheese and yellow peppers
Answer:
The answer is: b. Yogurt and granola. d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice
Explanation:
Good bacteria in the intestinal microbiota perform many functions, including the following:
1.-Metabolize nutrients and medications.
2.-Help the immune system to prevent pathogenic invasions.
3.-Maintain the structure and functioning of the gastrointestinal tract.
This is achieved by following a diet rich in fruits and vegetables to promote a healthy intestine.
Research suggests that eating whole grains and plants helps grow good bacteria. Certain foods with active cultures, such as yogurt, kimchi and kombucha, can also add useful bacteria to the system.
The answer is: b. Yogurt and granola. d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice.
Probiotics are live bacteria which are good for human body.
These bacteria help with digestion. These good bacteria are found in unprocessed foods and they help produce various food products for human consumption.
They can be found in yeast, vinegar, cheese, yogurt, pickles and granola. These bacteria help keep gut of human body healthy. Excessive processed goods are not healthy for human body.
The correct answer is B. Yogurt and Granola.
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Fellow Marines can resolve value conflicts by making it clear that ________ that interfere with the unit's integrity or mission accomplishment will not be tolerated.
Answer: Attitude and Behaviour
Explanation: Attitudes involves mind's predisposition to certain ideas, values, people, systems, institutions while Behaviour relates to the actual expression of feelings, action or inaction orally or/and through body language.
In the context of the Marine Corps, value conflicts can be resolved by communicating clear expectations regarding behaviors that interfere with the unit's integrity or mission accomplishment.
Explanation:In the context of the question, the subject being discussed is the resolution of value conflicts among fellow Marines. This falls under the subject of Social Studies.
To resolve value conflicts, Marines can make it clear that behaviors or actions that interfere with the unit's integrity or mission accomplishment will not be tolerated. By setting clear expectations and consequences, the unit can work together more effectively.
This approach encourages a commitment to the values of the unit and ensures that actions align with the overall mission, promoting unity and cohesion.
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If you want to know that a test measures some underlying psychological construct, what type of validity evidence would you want to collect?
Answer:
constrict validity
Explanation:
Which of the following are important cognitive changes that occur during adolescence? (Select all that apply.) Abstract thinking Operational thought Critical thinking Concrete thought
Answer:
critical thinking and abstract thinking
Explanation:
Critical thinking - it is referred to that thinking that is totally based on facts and figures. it is based on the logic and judgment are base on the reason. Critical thinking allow someone to be like sensible learner instead of a passive learner
Abstract thinking - it is referred to that thinking that is beyond our reached or about the thing that are in virtual. Abstract thinking allows the thinker to have a wider picture of an idea.
The nurse has entered a client's room and observed that the client has removed the mattress from the bed and is closely scrutinizing the spaces in the bed frame. Which statement is most likely to elicit an explanation of the client's behavior?a) "It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?"
b) "What are you looking for in the bed? There's nothing hidden there."
c) "Are you having any delusions or hallucinations right now?"
d) "What's wrong with your bed?"
Answer:
The correct answer is a) "It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?"
Explanation:
As the nurse has entered a client's room and observed that the client is scrutinizing the space in the bed frame after removing the mattresses from the bed so the statement "It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?" would be most likely to elicit an explanation of the client's behavior because in this statement a question is asked by the nurse in a gentle manner to the client and the client will think that the nurse can help him out in this situation.
Therefore the correct answer is a."It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?"
Suppose that a person's adrenal glands are not producing enough adrenaline.
What might happen to the person in an emergency
Explanation:
the person will either not respond actively in the emergency or he/she will not have the energy or capacity to do so
A nurse is completing a vision exam with the Snellen eye chart and records the client's vision as 20/30 or 6/9. The client asks the nurse, "What does that mean?" How should the nurse respond?a. "Your vision is perfect; you can read the entire chart and you do not need glasses." b. "You are able to read at 20 ft (6 m) what a person with normal vision can read at 30 ft (9m)." c. "Your vision in your right eye is slightly different than that of your left eye." d. "Your vision is better than average; you can read from 30 ft (9 m) what a person with normal vision can read from 20 ft (6 m)."e. "You are able to read at 20 ft (6 m) what a person with normal vision can read at 30 ft (9m)."
Answer:
The answer is B- "You are able to read at 20 ft (6 m) what a person with normal vision can read at 30 ft (9 m)."
Explanation:
A snellen eye chart is used by the ophthalmologist for the measurement of visual acuity or clarity of a person's vision. It contains symbols which are referred to as optotypes
To interpret the result of a client's vision from the snellen eye chart, the top number shows the distance at which the client is standing from the chart while the denominator shows the distance at which a normal eye can see. Telling the client that vision is perfect or that vision is above average or that one eye is better than the other is not appropriate.
As in the question, if the nurse records the client's vision as 20/30 or 6/9, it then means that the client can read at 20 feet away what a person with a normal vision can read at 30 feet away, or the client can read at 6 meters what a person with a normal vision can read at 9 meters.
An important nursing intervention is maintaining safe glucose levels in the newborn. A common practice is to feed infants either breast milk or formula if glucose screening shows results of 40 to 45 mg/dL or less. Is this statement true or false?
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Angela has been experiencing headaches for a number of months, and after extensive testing it is determined that she has intractable chronic cluster headaches. This would be coded with code ________ .
a. G44.10
b. G44.021
c. G44.229
d. G43.9
Answer:
B) G44.021
Explanation:
The correct code for chronic cluster headaches is b. G44.021, which matches Angela's condition of enduring intractable chronic cluster headaches.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is marked by severe pain on one side of the head, often around the eye. They are called 'cluster headaches' because they tend to occur in groups or clusters.
A characteristic feature of these headaches is their cyclical nature, with periods of frequent attacks ('clusters'), followed by remission periods. Intractable headaches are those that do not respond well to treatments.
The correct answer to the question is b. G44.021. This code is for chronic cluster headaches, which fits Angela's condition of experiencing long-term, intractable cluster headaches.
Codes like G44.10, G44.229, and G43.9 relate to other types of headaches or migraines, not specifically to chronic cluster headaches.