Answer:
High in carbohydrates
Explanation:
Diets that are high in carbohydrates produces more sugar after digestion and leads to glycogenesis. This sugar exceeds the glycogen level of the body and it is converted to fat which increases the risk of heart diseases. High carbohydrate diet increases the risk of heart diseases as it is closely associated with insulin resistance, abdominal fat distribution, high plasma triglycerides level , low HDL -cholesterol and oxidative stress. High carbohydrate diets, especially refined carbohydrate causes weight gain with its associated problems such as cardiovascular diseases.
Polydactyly is expressed when an individual has extra fingers and/or toes. Assuming 50% 47) penetrance, a man with six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot marries a woman with a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is caused by a dominant autosomal allele. The couple has a son with normal hands and feet, but the coupleʹs second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next child will have polydactyly?
Answer:
1/2
Explanation:
Father: is a heterozygote for this trait . Meiosis: 1/2 is the frequency for the normal allele
Mother: has two recessive alleles (i.e., doesn't have the trait). Meiosis: 2/2 is the frequency for the normal allele
In consequence, the probability of having polydactyly is: (1/2) x (2/2): 1/2
When is Interferon used? I. Viral Diseases II. Bug Bite deterrent III. Venial Diseases IV. Balance problems known as Vertical Problems
Answer:
Viral diseases
Explanation:
Interferon is a prescription medication that is used to treat viral diseases. It contains a group of signaling proteins produced and released by host cells in response to the presence of several viruses. Interferons help the body immune system fight viral diseases. It is produced in the body by white blood cells. For example; a virus infected cell will release interferons to help heighten it antiviral defenses when confronted by viral diseases such as Hepatitis B.
pre med bio major Please describe how you have prepared for your intended major, including your readiness to succeed in your upper-division courses once you enroll at a university.
Answer:
As a pre medical student, I have prepared for my upper class, by setting out financial strategies and academical studies plan, that will help me to study hard and also have enough money for my studies.
In my financial plans, I have set a plan for scholarship exams, and also borrowing from financial institute if I didn't get any scholarships, to pay back when I get a job after studies. For the academic studies, I have scheduled to be studying at least 8 hours daily, and to minimize all social activities, as it will be a distraction to my studying time.
Identify a primary reason for the relatively high prices of healthcare in the US. Identify and describe a policy option that might result in lower US healthcare costs.
Answer:
The Answer of this question is discussed below.
Explanation:
The cost of medical care is the sole most important portion following the United States healthcare expenses, estimating for 91% of spending. These investments indicate the expense of attending for those with prolonged or long-term pathological situations, a declining population and the expanded expense of new treatments, systems, and technologies.Sick cell disease (SCD) primarily affects: A. children of African descent and Hispanics of Caribbean ancestry. B. children of Middle-Eastern and Indian descent. C. children of Asian descent. D. both African descent and Hispanics of Caribbean ancestry and Middle-Eastern and Indian descent.
Answer:
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease of the red blood cells. It is an inherited red blood cell disorder that affects hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. Sickle cell disease primarily affects children of African descent and Hispanics of Caribbean ancestry and children of Middle-Eastern and Indian descent.
Answer:
Sick cell disease (SCD) primarily affects:both African descent and Hispanics of Caribbean ancestry and Middle-Eastern and Indian descent. Correct option is D.
Explanation:
Sickle cell disease is a sickle cell disorder in which the red cells become sickel- shaped when there are subjected to low oxygen tension. The clinical manifestations usually develops 3 to 4 months of age when the level of HbF ( foetal haemoglobin) falls and they include:
- impaired growth and development,
- splenomegaly,
- infection( due to impaired slpenic phagocytic function) and
- vaso- occlusive crises.
Sickle cell disease is divided into the following types:
- sickle cell anaemia
-Sickle cell B thalassemia.
The prevalence of SCD is worldwide with the different types occurring more in specific regions. Therefore option D is correct.
Which of the following would you expect to see when blood glucose levels become low due to skipping lunch?
a. increased brain reliance on fatty acids for energy
b. increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase
c. increased activity of glycogen synthase
d. increased secretion from beta cells
e. more than one of the above
e. more than one of the above
Explanation:
Skipping lunch leads to starvation leads to a decrease in blood glucose level and low energy levels.
This lack of glucose increases metabolism of reserved fat for energy production. There is an increased oxidation of fatty acids stored in the liver which leads to increased production of ketone bodies from acetyl CoA. Brain metabolism also follows the same path where fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies.
Further, impaired insulin secretion from beta cells and elevation of epinephrine during starvation activates hormone-sensitive lipase
The activity of glycogen synthase is also increased during starvation due to increased glycogen metabolism.
However, insulin secretion is affected due to starvation.
A new law is implemented requiring individuals who wish to use any health care services to have to get the flu shot before care is rendered, regardless of religious or otherwise objections. What condition has not been met in determining whether this action is justifiable within the tenants of public health ethics? Group of answer choices
Effectiveness
Necessity
Least infringement
Answer:A
Explanation:Effectiveness
The tenants of public health ethics should have been consulted weather the new law will be be effective or not
Andrea experiences extreme anxiety when approaching any lake. Her therapist suggests that her fear results from a traumatic boat accident she experienced as a child. The therapist's suggestion reflects a ________ perspective.
psychoanalytic
biological
learning
epigenetic
Answer: learning
Explanation:
Learning in psychology is defined as change in behavior due to environmental influences.
Psychology is the scientific discipline that investigates human behavior and the operations of the mind.
Answer:
Psychoanalytic
Explanation:
Psychoanalytic perspective emphasizes that an individual's behavior is influenced by experiences that occurred in the past especially at a young age, as these experiences are stored in the unconscious mind unknowing to such individuals. Psychoanalytic perspective has nothing to do with the conscious mind, but the unconscious mind. in other words, the psychoanalytic perspective according to a psychologist, Sigmund Freud explains how the unconscious mind is affected and shaped by childhood experiences.
Therefore, the therapist's suggestion to Andrea reflects a psychoanalytic perspective.
g according to the American Lung Association, 7% of the population has lung disease. Of those having lung disease, 90% are smokers; and of those not having lung disease, 25% are smokers. What is the probability that a smoker has lung disease?
Answer:
the probability is 0.2132 (21.32%)
Explanation:
defining the event S= a person is smoker , then if we choose a person at random , the probability that the person is smoker is
P(S) = probability of having lung disease * probability of being a smoker given that has lung disease + probability of not having lung disease * probability of being a smoker given that has not lung disease = 0.07*0.90 + 0.93*0.25 = 0.2955
then for conditional probability we use the theorem of Bayes . Defining the event L= the person has lung disease then
P(L/S)=P(L∩S)/P(S) = 0.07*0.90 / 0.2955 = 0.2132 (21.32%)
where
P(L∩S) = probability of having lung disease and being a smoker
P(L/S)= probability of having lung disease given that a smoker was chosen
When trying to anticipate the general availability of a work force in a particular community, human resource planning borrows which of the following concepts from labour economics to talk about the potential size of the applicant population?
a. marginal propensity to consume
b. derived demand for labour
c. elasticity of demand
d. labour force participation rates
e. equilibrium wage rate
d. labor force participation rates
Explanation:
Labor force participation rates are statistics used in labor economics to determine what amount of labor force is being used and employed in what sort of work.
When the general availability of a work force in an area is concerned, one can deduce from the participation rates how many people are employed in such work and what percentage of people are actually doing the sort of work that would be required by the company looking to the statistics.
Suppose you decided to live on an all-fat diet with whale blubber and seal blubber, with little or no carbohydrate. What would be the effect of carbohydrate deprivation on the utilization of fats for energy? Explain.
Answer:
a) The absence of glucose in diet causes oxaloacetate to drop and also slows down the citric acid cycle.
b) odd numbered.
Explanation:
a) glucose gives out pyruvate through the process of glycolysis, and pyruvate is the main source of oxaloacetate. The absence of glucose in diet causes a drop in oxaloacetate and slows down the citric acid cycle.
b) odd numbered. The conversion of propionate to succinyl CoA provides a medium for both the citric acid cycle and four carbon precursors for gluconeogenesis.
An all-fat diet would force the body into a process known as ketosis, where the body uses fats rather than carbohydrates to produce energy. This is initially done through the oxidation of fatty acids during lipid metabolism. If this continues over time, muscle proteins could be broken down as a glucose source once fat stores are depleted.
Explanation:If you choose to follow an all-fat diet such as consuming whale and seal blubber, your body would respond to this carbohydrate deprivation by shifting to a process known as ketosis. Initially, your body uses glucose derived from carbohydrates for energy. When there are inadequate carbohydrates, your body starts to break down fats into elements known as ketones, which can be used by the brain and other organs as an alternate source of energy.
Here's how it works. Let's start with the understanding that fats (or triglycerides) within the body are ingested as food or synthesized by adipocytes or hepatocytes from carbohydrate precursors. Lipid metabolism is the oxidation of fatty acids to either generate energy or synthesize new lipids from smaller constituent molecules. Lipid metabolism interacts with carbohydrate metabolism as products of glucose, such as acetyl CoA, which can be converted into lipids.
Under starvation conditions, glucose levels are very low, forcing cells that can use alternative fuels to switch from glucose to fatty acids. As this continues, fatty acids and triglyceride stores are used to create ketones for the body; this helps prevent the continued breakdown of proteins that serve as carbon sources for our bodies to generate glucose (gluconeogenesis). After a while, when these stores become fully depleted, muscles release proteins which are then broken down for glucose synthesis. Survival, in the end, relies upon the amount of fat and protein stored within the body.
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Describe how electrical shock can contribute to falls on a construction site. Provide at least two examples.
Answer:
Wet Conditions / Ground Fault
Circuit Interrupters
Extension Cords, Copper and
Current
An LA woman on the flight is religiously opposed to vaccines. Under California law she can normally refuse vaccines on religious or personal grounds. However, the government says she must receive the vaccine or face mandatory quarantine. What do you think of this?
Answer:
Vaccinations are given to protect the individual from the specific disease and immunize the body against the pathogens. The vaccination is given at the specific time.
The government has made the right decisions by making the vaccination mandatory. The refusal of medicine at personal ground is not the healthy activity. The disease can affect the other individual if the proper vaccination is not given at a time. The lady lacks the knowledge of health and education.
Under California law, individuals can normally refuse vaccines on religious or personal grounds. However, in the case of a measles outbreak, the government can impose mandatory quarantine measures even on individuals who are religiously opposed to vaccines to prevent the spread of the disease. Vaccines are proven to be safe and effective in preventing diseases.
Explanation:Under California law, individuals can normally refuse vaccines on religious or personal grounds. However, in the case of a measles outbreak, the government can impose mandatory quarantine measures even on individuals who are religiously opposed to vaccines. This is because the purpose of the quarantine is to prevent the spread of a highly contagious disease, which poses a risk to public health.
The government's decision to impose mandatory quarantine in this scenario is based on the principle of protecting the greater good and public health. While individual rights and beliefs are important, they may need to be temporarily compromised in situations that pose a significant risk to public health.
It is worth noting that vaccines have been proven to be safe and effective in preventing various diseases, including measles. The scientific consensus supports the use of vaccines as an important public health measure, and widespread vaccination helps protect both individuals and the community from infectious diseases.
D. D. is a 66 year-old female suffering from shortness of breath. She smoked 2 packs a day until she quit 2 years ago. She has a history of bronchiolitis, hyperinflated lungs, pulmonary edema, and syncope. Her primary care practitioner suspects she also has pulmonary hypertension (PH). After examination, D. D. has a PAP of 35mmHg and mild CHF. Citing scholarly resources, answer the following questions:
a. What is pulmonary hypertension and how could D. D. have developed PH?
b. How does her history fit in with her new diagnosis?
c. How many patients are suffering from COPD in the United States? Do COPD sufferers die of respiratory causes or other causes? (Be sure to cite thesource of data.)
Answer:(a) Pulmonary hypertension is caused by changes in the cells that line the pulmonary arteries which makes the walls of the artery to become thick resulting in the blood vessels to become tight leading to high blood pressure. It makes the tiny arteries in the lungs to become narrow making it hard for blood to flow.
Explanation:(b)this disease is caused by smoking. She smoked 2 packs of cigarette a day .
(c)about 16million adults are suffering from chronic obstruction pulmonary disease( COPD) in the US but the American lung association thinks that there may be as many as 24million people with this disease (George Krucik MD sept. 2018)
(c) COPD is a leading cause of death in the US but he art and lung cancer can can lead to death.
Pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the lungs' arteries, which can be caused by smoking and lung diseases like COPD. D. D.'s smoking history and lung issues correlate with her PH and CHF diagnosis. In the U.S., over 15 million adults have COPD, a major contributor to disability and mortality.
Pulmonary hypertension (PH) is a condition characterized by high blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries, which carry oxygen-poor blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs. A pulmonary arterial pressure (PAP) greater than 25 mmHg at rest is indicative of PH. D. D. could have developed this condition due to her history of smoking, chronic lung disease, and hyperinflated lungs. Smoking is known to be a significant risk factor for the development of PH, particularly in individuals with pre-existing lung conditions.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), marked by shortness of breath and chronic poor airflow, is directly related to the new diagnosis of PH in D. D. The physiological changes in COPD, such as the breakdown of alveoli and impaired gas exchange, can contribute to the development of PH. Her past smoking habits and bronchiolitis suggest significant lung damage, which fits in with her diagnosis of PH and mild congestive heart failure (CHF).
As for prevalence in the United States, more than 15 million adults are affected by COPD, with women constituting over half of the diagnosed cases, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). COPD sufferers can die from respiratory causes or other complications, but the disease often leads to significant morbidity and increased risk of mortality.
A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students how the CNS adapts to psychotherapeutic medications. Which statement by a nursing student indicates a need for further teaching?
a.
"Adaptation can lead to tolerance of these drugs with prolonged use."
b.
"Adaptation helps explain how physical dependence occurs."
c.
"Adaptation often must occur before therapeutic effects develop."
d.
"Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
Answer:
d.
"Adaptation results in an increased sensitivity to side effects over time."
Explanation:
It should be understood that, with the adaptation of the central nervous system to prolonged exposure to CNS drugs, many adverse effects will diminish and therapeutic effects will remain.
Note that, adaptation helps in explaining how tolerance and physical dependence occur, as the brain adapts to the presence of the drug. Therapeutic effects can take several weeks to manifest, because they appear to work by initiating adaptive changes in the brain.
In summary, therapeutic effect can be described as the favorable response or outcome after a kind of treatment.
Juan works with various metals. At the end of the day, he reclaims and separates each metal by using an inexpensive toxic acid though other methods are available. The risk of fire as well as health dangers to Juan is unknown. He should:
Answer:
Regarding the paragraph provided, Juan should:
Review the safety sheet of the acid used in the separation of metals, in this way he can identify the toxicity and the possibility of fire caused by the same substance. In case the substance is very dangerous, Juan must choose to use one of the other methods of separation available, in order not to put at risk his integrity. In case the safety sheet does not classify it as very risky and instead saves you a lot of time, it is recommended that he uses protective implements and continue using the current method.Explanation:
It is extremely risky to use a substance of which its effects are not known, therefore, whenever it is intended to use an unknown substance, the safety sheet provided by the distributor of the same must be verified, in which they are specified from the risks for its use, the recommendations when using it or storing it, as well as the implements that a person who manipulates said substance should use.
Given that impulses from parasympathetic nerves decrease heart rate, and that the neurotransmitter for parasympathetic postganglionic fibers is acetylcholine (ACh), predict how the following chemicals might affect heart rate. A) Pilocarpine, a drug that simulates the action of ACh, will increase heart rate. B) Pilocarpine, a drug that simulates the action of ACh, will decrease heart rate. C) Atropine, a drug that blocks the action of ACh, will decrease heart rate. D) Pilocarpine, a drug that simulates the action of ACh, will increase heart rate; and atropine, a drug that blocks the action of ACh, will decrease heart rate.
Answer: The correct option is B (Pilocarpine, a drug that simulates the action of ACh, will decrease heart rate).
Explanation:
Heart rate which is the speed at which the contraction of the heart is measured per minute can increase in certain instances like stress, excitement and exercise. This temporal acceleration of the heart rate is reduced through the parasympathetic nervous system which releases the neurotransmitter, acetylcholine( ACh). This neurotransmitter binds to M2 muscarinic receptors at the cardiac muscle cells causing the heart rate to decrease.
Pilocarpine is a muscarinic acetylcholine receptor agonist which stimulates the action of ACh and will bring about the decrease of heart rate when administered.
A 41-year-old male client has presented to the emergency department with an acute onset of increased respiratory rate and difficulty breathing. STAT chest X-ray indicates diffuse bilateral infiltrates of his lung tissue and ECG displays no cardiac dysfunction. What is this client’s most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
It can either be pneumonia, tuberculosis, or nocardiosis
Explanation:
All these types of pulmonary infiltrates can be identified by high efficacy radio-graphs of chest. If the ECG displays no cardiac dysfunction then the client is most likely to be effected with nocardiosis. It's a common type of infection causes by bacteria of genus Nocardia and can be treated with inhaling type of antibiotics that directly enter the lung cavity and interact with the bacterium.
Answer:
The answer is sarcoidosis, nocardiosis.
Explanation:
Males, who are over 40, often have some health problems including pulmonary diseases, heart diseases, cancers and so on. In this case of the 41-year-old male patient, this is disease related to respiratory
The respiratory rate increase and difficulty breathing are respiratory disease symptoms.Acute STAT chest X-ray shows the diffuse bilateral infiltrates ⇒ Sarcoidosis.ECG shows no cardiac dysfunction ⇒ nocardiosis.What is a limiting amino acid? Explain why this concept is concern in a vegetarian diet. How can a vegetarian compensate for limiting amino acids in specific foods?
A limiting amino acid is an essential amino acid that is less available in the diet than is required for optimal protein synthesis. In vegetarian diets, it's important to combine plant foods with complementary proteins to ensure a complete amino acid profile. Methionine and lysine are common limiting amino acids in plant-based diets.
Explanation:Understanding Limiting Amino Acids
A limiting amino acid is one that is present in the least amount relative to what is needed for protein synthesis in the body. In the context of diet, especially a vegetarian diet, this concept is significant because plant foods often lack one or more essential amino acids. The essential amino acids are those that the body cannot synthesize and must be obtained from the diet. Protein quality is determined by its amino acid composition and digestibility. The most common limiting amino acids in plant-based diets are lysine and tryptophan.
To ensure adequate nutrition, vegetarians should consume a variety of plant-based foods or combine foods with different limiting amino acids. This practice of combining such foods is known as eating complementary proteins, which together provide all the essential amino acids necessary for the body. For example, grains and legumes can be combined to form a complete protein profile. Methionine and lysine are examples of amino acids that are often lacking in plant foods, but they can be compensated for by combining different plant foods.
Protein synthesis can be impacted if the diet is deficient in any one essential amino acid. This is because the amino acids form chains through peptide bonds, and if one essential amino acid is missing, the chain cannot be properly synthesized. To maintain health, it is crucial for vegetarians to plan their diet carefully to cover all nutritional bases.
A partially supervised apartment, a senior housing complex for mildly impaired elderly people, and a nursing home with around-the-clock care, are all examples of: A. wellness programs. B. double jeopardy facilities. C. health-maintenance facilities. D. long-term care.
Answer:
D. long-term care
Explanation:
Hello!The examples refer to homes that offer a characterized service, in this case with a specialization in the care of a person who is going to settle in the place and remain for a prolonged time, that require constant care and supervision, as happens on people of legal age (more than sixty years old).
Missy is motivated to lose weight. She now relies on a 30-minute walk every morning to get going for the day. Missy attended a nutrition seminar and found several online sources to help her keep track of calories and nutrients consumed. On Monday, she will begin her new eating program. Missy is in a state of__________
Answer:
Readiness
Explanation:
Readiness can simply be described or explained by having willingness to do something , this is by getting prepared. This preparedness involve the execution of some activities.
In this case, The 30-minute walk every morning that is being adopted and executed by Missy indicated that she is ready to lose weight.Also the nutrition seminar and searching for sources to help her keep track of calories and nutrients , are all act of readiness in beginning her new eating program.
Question Options:
a) contemplation
b) maintenance
c) readiness
d) action
Answer: Missy is in a state of READINESS.
Explanation: Readiness can be defined as the state or degree of being prepared for action.
It is a state to meet a situation and carry out a planned sequence of actions. It involves thorough planning, training and availability of resources to carry out the plan.
Like Missy, the plan is to lose weight, her training involves a new eating program.
Kate's blood volume is 4.0 L . After three months of diet and exercise, if her blood glucose is 146 mg/dL , how many grams of glucose are in her blood?
Answer:
There are 5.84 grams of glucose in her blood.
Explanation:
Blood volume = 4 L = 4×10 = 40 dL
Concentration of blood glucose = 146 mg/dL = 146/1000 = 0.146 g/dL
Mass of glucose = concentration of blood glucose × volume of blood = 0.146 g/dL × 40 dL = 5.84 grams
Given a blood glucose concentration of 146 mg/dL and a blood volume of 4.0 L, we calculate total glucose in the blood to be 5.84 grams.
Explanation:To determine the amount of glucose in Kate's blood in grams, we first need to understand that the given blood glucose concentration of 146 mg/dL refers to the mass of glucose in one deciliter of blood. But, since Kate's blood volume is 4.0 liters (or 40 deciliters), we need to multiply the concentration by the total volume.
Step 1: Convert the blood volume from liters to deciliters.
1 L = 10 dL
Therefore, 4.0 L = 40 dL.
Step 2: Multiply the glucose concentration by the blood volume.
Therefore, total glucose = 146 mg/dL * 40 dL = 5840 mg.
Step 3: Convert the result to grams, as 1 gram = 1000 milligrams.
Therefore, total glucose = 5840 mg / 1000 = 5.84 grams.
So, after three months of diet and exercise, there are 5.84 grams of glucose in Kate's blood.
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Mary was not invited to a friend's birthday party, and she feels really disappointed and upset. What question would most likely redirect her thinking and provide a solution?
How can I get back at my friend for not inviting me to her party?
How can I make my friends who did get invited feel bad for going?
How can bad things happen to me when I do good things for others?
How can I talk to my friend about how this is making me feel?
Final answer:
The most constructive question for Mary to consider is discussing her feelings with the friend who did not invite her to the party, which could lead to understanding and resolution.
Explanation:
When faced with feelings of disappointment and upset, like Mary for not being invited to a friend's birthday party, it is important to choose a course of action that encourages positive resolution and personal growth. The question Mary might consider to redirect her thinking and find a solution is: How can I talk to my friend about how this is making me feel? By choosing to communicate her feelings to her friend, Mary opens the door to understanding and possibly mending their relationship.
This approach encourages the healing of emotional wounds and moves away from retaliation or continued hurt. Those who feel marginalized or excluded, similar to Mary, may often wonder about their place at the 'table' or why they don't feel welcome. A constructive conversation with the involved parties can bring these feelings to light and pave the way to resolution, much like Miriam decides to reflect on her situation and take active steps toward change, rather than remaining frustrated.
client is discharged to home following hospitalization for percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube placement to assist with nutrition. The client's primary diagnosis is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client can transfer from the bed to a chair but can't walk. The client and their family are concerned about the client's ability to maintain mobility at the highest possible level following a surgical procedure. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate for this client is
Final answer:
The nursing diagnosis most appropriate for this client is impaired physical mobility.
Explanation:
The nursing diagnosis most appropriate for this client is impaired physical mobility. Impaired physical mobility is a nursing diagnosis that is used when a client experiences a limitation in their physical movement or has difficulty performing activities of daily living. In this case, the client's inability to walk due to their diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) would classify them as having impaired physical mobility. The goal of nursing interventions would be to help the client maintain their current level of mobility and to prevent further decline.
Select the incorrect statement. A) Physical dependence is a physiological state of adaptation to a drug. B) Physical dependence can result in withdrawal symptoms when the use of the drug is abruptly stopped. C) Rebound effects are a form of withdrawal. D) Rebound effects usually mimic the effects of the drugs themselves.
Answer:
Select the incorrect statement. A) Physical dependence is a physiological state of adaptation to a drug. B) Physical dependence can result in withdrawal symptoms when the use of the drug is abruptly stopped. C) Rebound effects are a form of withdrawal. D) Rebound effects usually mimic the effects of the drugs themselves.
The correct answer is Option D "Rebound effects usually mimic the effects of the drugs themselves."
Explanation:
A rebound effect is a drug after-effects that cause different symptoms. The rebound effect occurs after discontinuation of numerous classes of drugs that act contrary to the disease disorders, making the underlying sickness or diseases worst at levels above those prior to treatment, while making the development of symptoms that were not present or treated while taking a medication, appear when that same medication is stopped, or reduced in dosage.
A rebound effect is what happens when the body tries to bring itself back into balance. For instance, If a drug produces a rebound effect, the condition it was used to treat may return.
Therefore, Rebound effects does not mimic the effects of the drugs themselves.
Other Options in the question above are explained below for further understanding:
For Option A:
Physical Dependence is the result of physical changes in the brain, it is a physiological state of adaptation to a drug, usually characterized by the emergence of a characteristic set of withdrawal symptoms during abstinence.
For Option B:
Drug withdrawal is a set of symptoms experienced when an individual suddenly stop or reduce chronic use of drugs. Physical dependence can result in withdrawal symptoms when drug is abruptly stopped. People who have been using high amounts of drugs for a long time tend to suffer the most severe withdrawal symptoms, making the body adjust to loss of a medication that the individual has been using for a long time and become dependent on.
For Option C:
When an individual stopped taking medication and is 'rebounding' from the action (effect), the individual may experience a sleep disorder which indicates withdrawal.
Rebound effect is a phenomenon in which the withdrawal effects are often opposite to the effect of the drug that had been used.
Whether biomedical or not, are there any personal qualities or abilities that contribute to the effectiveness of a particular healer or health care practitioner?
Final answer:
Personal qualities like empathy, the ability to listen, and open-mindedness towards varying healing practices are crucial in enhancing a healthcare practitioner's effectiveness. These traits complement scientific knowledge and technical skills, facilitating a holistic approach to patient care that addresses both physical symptoms and overall well-being.
Explanation:
Whether biomedical or not, personal qualities and abilities do contribute significantly to the effectiveness of a particular healer or health care practitioner. In Western biomedicine, the focus is often on the biological aspects of illness, with treatments centered around chemical or surgical interventions. However, other forms of healing give priority to the social and spiritual aspects of wellness, highlighting the importance of emotional and social support in the healing process. Both paths require certain qualities in practitioners, such as empathy, the ability to listen, and an open-mindedness to different forms of healing and cultural beliefs about health.
All healing specialists undergo rigorous training, but personal qualities such as the ability to connect with patients on a human level, inspire faith in the healing process, and maintain a compassionate and understanding demeanor are universally valuable. These traits enhance the treatment experience and can have a measurable effect on patient outcomes, as belief and psychology play significant roles in health. This intersection of skills and personal qualities showcases the holistic nature of effective healthcare, blending scientific knowledge with empathetic care to address not just physical symptoms but the overall well-being of individuals.
Discuss the relative importance of essential and nonessential amino acids in the diet. Why is it important for essential amino acids lost from the body to be replaced in the diet?
Answer:
Amino acids are the constituent chemical units of proteins. Proteins provide structure to all living beings, since they form muscles, tendons, organs, and are essential for bone formation. Proteins are formed by chains of amino acids that are linked by peptide bonds. The proteins that are consumed with the diet, are broken down into their constituent amino acids. The body uses those amino acids to make the proteins it needs.
Explanation:
Amino acids are important because they are part of proteins, they act as neurotransmitters or precursors of neurotransmitters, they help minerals and vitamins adequately fulfill their function, some amino acids are used to provide energy to muscle tissue, etc.
There are 28 amino acids. 80% are formed in the liver, known as non-essential amino acids, and 20% must be supplied by diet and are called essential amino acids. The organism promotes proteins according to its basic needs. But if one of the essential amino acids is missing, protein production would not be done properly. This would cause a deficiency of the important proteins that the body would need, causing problems such as indigestion, or stunted growth, infections, traumas, etc., that is why it is necessary to have an adequate intake of protein in the diet .
Present in the
is a protein that is waterproof.
A. sebum
B. melanin
C. collagen
D. nails
Answer:
D) Nails
Explanation:
Keratin that's found in our hair and nails is water proof
Sebum is the correct answer, as it has waterproof properties, ensuring that water doesn't escape the skin's surface, but it's not necessarily a 'waterproof protein'. Melanin is responsible for pigmentation, collagen provides structure, and nails are made of keratin.
Explanation:The answer is A. Sebum. Sebum is a light yellow, oily substance that is secreted by the sebaceous glands that help keep the skin and hair moisturized. Sebum contains triglycerides, wax esters, squalene, and metabolites of fat-producing cells that prevent water from escaping from the skin surface, thus creating a sort of waterproof barrier. Therefore, sebum possesses 'waterproof' properties but it's not necessarily a 'waterproof protein' as suggested in this question. Melanin (option B) is the pigment responsible for skin, hair, and eye color. Collagen (option C) is a structural protein found in skin and other connective tissues. Lastly, nails (option D) are made up of a protein called keratin.
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Which of the following is true about random drug testing of employees? It screens randomly-selected employees at various times through the year. It randomly tests selected applicants before hiring, as a part of a physical examination. It tests an employee believed to be impaired by drugs and unfit for work. It regularly tests employees from randomly-selected job categories or job levels.
Answer: It tests an employee believed to be impaired by drugs and unfit for work.
Explanation:
The random drug testing is done at the workplace. This is done to check whether the employees are consuming drugs. The testing also helps to identify the recent use of the illicit drugs, dose consumed and use of alcohol. The random testing does not test the impairment caused due to stress or other reasons.
The tests are done randomly on employees and these are likely inspection of the physical status of the employees to check whether they are using drugs and how drugs have affected and impaired the body which is making the employees unfit to perform their daily work. Those employees which are found illicit drug user are warned and expelled from the service.
Answer: It tests an employee believed to be impaired by drugs and unfit for work.
Explanation: Random drug testing involves any unannounced, without prior warning chemical check for the presence of usually illegal drugs in a sample of one's blood, hair or urine.
It is random because it's without prior warning and unannounced. This is done to fish out employees involved in the used of hard drugs that often make them inefficient and or unfit for work.
Alma has recurrent terrifying episodes that last about twenty minutes. Her heart beats so fast that she thinks she is having a heart attack, she sweats profusely, and she feels a sense of doom. For more than a month she has feared having another episode. What is an appropriate diagnosis?
a.agoraphobia
b.posttraumatic stress disorder
c.panic disorder
d.generalized anxiety disorder