Consider a population of 425 diploid giant Sequoia trees. In this population, you observe the following genotypic counts: 100 homozygous dominant genotypes, 250 heterozygous genotypes, and 75 homozygous recessive genotypes. What is the allele frequency of the recessive allele in this population (use two decimal places and the usual rounding conventions)

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

q = 0.42

Explanation:

This question is an example of Hardy-Weinberg question and there are two equations necessary to carry out this question;

p + q = 1

p² + 2pq + q²  = 1

where;

p = the frequency of the dominant allele

q =  the frequency of the recessive allele

= the frequency of individuals with homozygous dominant genotype

2pq  = the frequency of individuals with heterozygous genotype

= frequency of individuals with the homozygous recessive genotype

Since the total  population = 425

q² = [tex]\frac{individuals with recessive genotype}{Total Population}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{75}{425}[/tex]

q² = 0.1765            

To find q; we need to square root both side to           eliminate the square from  q².

∴ [tex]\sqrt{q^2}=\sqrt{0.1765}[/tex]

q = 0.4201

q = 0.42       (to two decimal places)


Related Questions

The blueprints for structural organization and metabolism are contained in ____, and the offspring receive copies of these instructions ___.a. DNA; through metabolism b. DNA; from the parent c. RNA; are generated by chanced. DNA; are generated by chance e. RNA; from the parent

Answers

Answer: Option b: DNA; from the parent

Explanation: Chromosomes are present in pairs which contains DNA. When sperm and egg are United to create a child, one strand of DNA comes from mother and one from the father. It means you receive one copy of chromosome from father and one from the mother and DNA present in double stranded form, so two copies of each Gene are present. Your chromosome that is formed is unique to both parents because you receive chromosome from both. The chromosome contain DNA, stores information for inheritance of features from parents to next generation and from the DNA, protein is formed by using it's information. Actually DNA contains nitrogenous bases which forms the codes for the formation of amino acids that are building block of proteins.

Energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs requires three stages. The energy extracted from fuels is converted to ATP.

Select the statements that are true for the different stages required for energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs. In the first and second stages the majority of ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.

a. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
b. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.
c. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and no ATP is produced.
d. In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
e. In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.

Answers

Final answer:

The energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occurs in three stages. The accurate statements describing these stages are: a) In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced; d) In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced; e) In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.

Explanation:

The processes of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occur in three stages. The statements that accurately describe these stages are as follows:

Statement a: In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. During the third stage, namely oxidative phosphorylation, most of the oxidation occurs and some ATP is produced directly.Statement d: In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. This stage, known as digestion, involves breaking down complex macromolecules into simpler monomers. During this process, some ATP is produced.Statement e: In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is also true. The second stage, named glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, involves the breakdown of monomers, usually glucose, into pyruvate. Small amounts of ATP are produced in this stage.

Therefore, statements a, d, and e accurately represent the stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs.

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According to the question, Statements b, d, and e are correct.

The three stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs involve the breakdown of macromolecules to monomers with small ATP production, the conversion of monomers to acetyl-CoA with further small ATP production, and the complete oxidation to CO2 and H2O with most ATP production. Statements b, d, and e are correct.

The process of energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs through respiration involves three stages:

Stage I: Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are broken down into their individual monomer units such as simple sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids. A small amount of ATP is produced during this stage. (d is correct)Stage II: The broken-down monomer units are further processed through metabolic pathways to form a common end product, acetyl-coenzyme A (CoA). A small amount of ATP is also produced during this stage. (e is correct)Stage III: Acetyl-CoA is completely oxidized to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). During this stage, most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced. (b is correct). NADH and FADH, produced in earlier stages, participate in the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, which results in the majority of ATP production.

Which of the following best describes the natural process that occurs during malting?
A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant
B) living plant begins to decay
C) flower produces seeds
D) fruit transported by other animals

Answers

Answer:

A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant

Explanation:

Malting is a process of growth and drying that causes a change in the structure of cell walls, proteins, and starch granules. The process entails the steeping to increase the moisture content required for germination process, to modify the kernel and to dry it.

Final answer:

Malting is the process of a seed growing into a new plant. It involves soaking, germination, and drying of cereal grains in controlled conditions. This activates enzymes that convert starches into sugars.

option a is correct

Explanation:

The natural process that occurs during malting is when a seed begins to grow into a new plant. Malting is a process of germinating cereal grains, such as barley, under controlled conditions.

During the malting process, the grains are soaked, allowed to germinate, and then dried. This process activates enzymes in the grain, which convert starches into sugars that can be used by the developing plant.

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3. Mammals feed their young with insects, plants, and roots.
a. True
b. False​

Answers

Definitely false. Each mammal feeds their young with milk.
False, they wouldn’t feed them insects

"In order to have reached this conclusion, the Grants must have either assumed or proven that several other facts about the finch population were true. Which statements represent information that must be true in order for the Grants conclusion to be correct

Answers

Note:

Question is incomplete I have added the full question at the end of this answer.

Answer:

All these below statements are in parallel with the research publication published in 2006 about darwin's work. Furthermore, Darwin proved that beak evolution occurred at Galapagos island.

Correct Options are

1. Beak size varies among the birds in the finch population under study.

2. Birds that could eat larger, tougher seeds survived and reproduced during the drought.

3. Beak size is an inherited trait in the finch population under study.

Reference:

Grant, Peter R., and B. Rosemary Grant. "Evolution of character displacement in Darwin's finches." science 313.5784 (2006): 224-226.

FULL QUESTION

"Population thinking" is essential to the idea of natural selection. Rather than thinking of populations or species as sets of mostly identical individuals, Darwin and Wallace understood that a great deal of heritable variation occurs among individuals within populations. Which example best illustrates this idea?

"Population thinking" is essential to the idea of natural selection. Rather than thinking of populations or species as sets of mostly identical individuals, Darwin and Wallace understood that a great deal of heritable variation occurs among individuals within populations. Which example best illustrates this idea?

Giraffes have longer necks than zebras.

You have a different eye color than your classmate.

Soybeans have a higher protein content than corn.

You have a different haircut than your classmate.

You have a different eye color than your classmate.

How did the drought lead to an increase in beak size in the medium ground finch population? The Grants reasoned that

prior to the drought, the finch population fed primarily on small seeds that they could open easily. Although larger, tougher seeds were available, they were not typically eaten, not even by finches with larger beaks.

during the drought, only a limited number of small seeds were produced, leaving mostly larger, tougher seeds available for food. Finches that were unable to eat the larger seeds died of starvation.

Based on their observations and the data they collected, the Grants concluded that evolution by natural selection had occurred in the medium ground finch population. The increase in the average beak size of the offspring was a direct result of the change in the food supply during the drought.

In order to have reached this conclusion, the Grants must have either assumed or proven that several other facts about the finch population were true. Which statements represent information that must be true in order for the Grants conclusion to be correct?

Select the three statements that must be true.

Select the three statements that must be true.

An individual finch's beak size can change depending on the size of the seeds it eats.

Beak size varies among the birds in the finch population under study.

Birds that could eat larger, tougher seeds survived and reproduced during the drought.

Beak size is an inherited trait in the finch population under study.

The drought caused a mutation that led to larger beak sizes in the finch population.

Draw one of the positively charged amino acids. Indicate whether you would expect to find it on the surface of or buried in a globular protein.

Answers

Answer:

               COO-

                  |

H3N+ ------C -------H

                  |

                 CH2

                  |

                 CH2

                  |

                 CH2

                  |

                 CH2

                  |

                +NH3

                Lysine (positively charged amino acid)

It is present on the outside of a globular protien.

Explanation:

Formula of lysine:

C6H14N2O2

Globular proteins are folded such that their tertiary structure consists of the polar, or hydrophilic, amino acids arranged on the outside and the nonpolar, or hydrophobic, amino acids on the inside of the three-dimensional shape. This arrangement is responsible for the solubility of globular proteins in water.

As lysine is a positively charged polar / hydrophilic amino acid , it is arranged on the outside of the globular protien.

Which of these is not a connective tissue? Adipose tissue Bone Blood Ligaments No exceptions; all of these are connective tissues

Answers

Answer: All of these are connective tissue

Explanation:

Answer: All of the mentioned are connective tissue.

Explanation:

Connective tissues are tissues that form matrix under the epithelial layer,they binds, connects and support other tissues or organs. Connective tissues are found between every other tissues in the body. The types of connective tissues are adipose tissues,cartilage, bone, collage,elastic fiblre, reticular fibre, lymphoid tissue,bonemarrow,ligaments and lymphatic. Connective tissues also function in transmitting substances around the body.

A lion will sometimes eat a dead, found carcass if the lion is hungry and cannot find living prey. What ecological phenomenon is this an example of?

Answers

Answer: lion participate in one or more tropic level

Explanation:

Scavengers can occupy the highest trophic levels.

A scavenger is an animal that eats the dead bodies of animals it has not killed. In nature, there is not a clear dividing line between (Scavengers And Predators). Most carnivores, such as lions, hyenas, and coyotes, will opportunistically consume a carcass if they are hungry. Vultures, although primarily scavengers, will hunt sick or weakened prey. Consequently, these large flesh-eaters exist on two different trophic levels.

Scavenger species often interact at kill sites. More than one species may feed on the same carcass at different stages of decay, or may eat different parts of the carcass.

Answer: b

Explanation:

took the tes

A man and woman marry. They have five children, 2 girls and 3 boys. The mother is a carrier of
hemophilia, an X-linked disorder. She passes the gene on to two of the boys who died in childhood
and one of the daughters is also a carrier. Both daughters marry men without hemophilia and have 3
children (2 boys and a girl). The carrier daughter has one son with hemophilia. One of the non-carrier
daughter’s sons marries a woman who is a carrier and they have twin daughters. What is the percent
chance that each daughter will also be a carrier?

Answers

Answer:

50%

Explanation:

Since the disease is X-linked, males can either be affected or not while females can be affected, unaffected or a carrier for the disease.

Let the allele for hemophilia be h, the alternate will be H

Non-carrier mother's son is a not affected for the disease = [tex]X^H Y[/tex]

A woman who is a carrier = [tex]X^H X^h[/tex]

If the two mate: [tex]X^H Y[/tex]   x   [tex]X^H X^h[/tex]

Progeny: [tex]X^HX^H, X^HX^h, X^HY and X^hY[/tex]

Out of the two daughters, one is a carrier and the other is unaffected at all.

Hence, the chance of each daughter being a carrier is 50% or 1/2.

Find two other examples of compounds that biomagnify. Explain how each compound and/or toxin enters the biosphere and what impacts it has on living organisms in general and humans in particular.

Answers

Answer:

1. DDT (

Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) with molecular formula; C14H9Cl5

2. Lead

Explanation:

1. DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is an example of compounds that biomagnifies in the biosphere. DDT is used as pesticides. When DDT is sprayed on plants to kill their pests, part of it is accumulated within the plants.

However, when primary consumers feeds on the affected plants, DDT is passed on to them and then to the secondary consumer in that sequence until it get to the top of the trophic level.

Effects of DDT have been seen in many organisms including birds and humans. The effects seen in humans is quite minimal to that of insects and birds. DDT causes lost of many insects and young birds. In humans, it causes vomiting, seizures etc.

2. Lead: it enters the biosphere by absorption and consumption means. Humans through the use of lead paint, smoking of cigarettes, use of cosmetics and combustion of coal accumulates lead in their bodies. Lead can't be synthesize by human, therefore it accumulates and biomagnify within their systems.

The effects of lead in human include; vomiting, stroke and abdominal pains. In tough scenario, it causes immune system deterioration and cardiovascular diseases.

Which of the following statements correctly describes intermediate filaments? a. They are the only cytoskeletal filaments that are not composed of protein. b. Intermediate filaments are the principal component of the cell cortex. c. These filaments are always found outside of the cell. d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress. e. None of the above answers are correct

Answers

Answer: d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress.

Explanation:

Intermediate filaments are the rope like fibers. These filaments form an extensive network ranging from the nucleus to the plasma membrane thus these filaments entirely cover the cytoplasma of the cell. These are developed from the cytoskeletal proteins. They have a diameter that is intermediate between thick and thin myofibrils. The diameter of the myofibril is in between 10 to 12 nm. They stabilize the nucleus. The main function of the intermediate filaments is to provide mechanical strength to the cells that will help them to withstand stress during stretching, elongation and changing shape.

Final answer:

The correct statement about intermediate filaments is option d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress. They are part of the cytoskeleton that gives the cell its shape and provides strength.

Explanation:

Intermediate filaments are an essential part of the cell's cytoskeleton, which provides the cell with shape, strength, and the ability to withstand mechanical stress. Therefore, the statement d. These filaments help the cell to withstand mechanical stress is correct. Intermediate filaments are different from the other cytoskeletal components, microfilaments and microtubules, in being composed of several different proteins, which explains their varying diameters (hence, 'intermediate'). They are found within the cell, not outside of it, and unlike the other components of the cytoskeleton, they are not involved in cell movement.

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Historically, an unusual aspect of the recent rise in CO2 levels is that Select one: a. there is no known mechanism for its occurrence. b. CO2 reacts so quickly with other compounds that it should not be occurring. c. it has occurred relatively slowly. d. it has occurred relatively rapidly.

Answers

Answer:

B. CO2 reacts so quickly with other compounds that it should not be occurring.

Explanation:

CO2 concentrations globally have increased significantly due to increased anthropogenic activities of burning, increased emissions from industrial hubs around the globe and other contributing human activities. Burning of fossil fuels, coal and liquified natural gas releases greenhouse gases, GHGs to the atmosphere and water bodies. It has been estimated recently that CO2 rise at 2.4 parts per million.

Historically, an unusual aspect of the recent rise in [tex]CO_2[/tex] levels is due to the fact that: B. [tex]CO_2[/tex] reacts so quickly with other compounds that it should not be occurring.

Carbon is a non-metallic and tetravalent chemical element represented with the chemical symbol C and it has an atomic number (number of protons) of six (6).

In Chemistry, the two (2) simplest and most common oxide of carbon (oxocarbon) include the following:

Carbon monoxide (CO)Carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex])

Carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) is a greenhouse gas and it occurs naturally as a trace gas within the atmosphere of planet Earth. Also, it should be noted that carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) is a highly reactive gas which chemically reacts with other chemical compounds, but it is still occurring in abundance.

In recent times, there has been a significant rise in the level of carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex]) as a result of an increase in emission by industries, excessive burning of organic compounds, which in turn causes global warming and the depletion of Earth's ozone layer.

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Which of the five kingdoms in Whittaker’s phylogenetic tree are prokaryotic, and which are eukaryotic?

Answers

Answer:

Most kingdoms are Eukaryotic

Explanation:

Prokaryotes are organisms consisting of cells that do not have membrane-bound organelles or a cell nucleus.

Eukaryotes are organisms made up of cells that have a membrane-bound nucleus to hold their genetic material, in addition to membrane-bound organelles.

The five kingdoms are Animalia, Plantae, Protista, Fungi, and Monera.

Animalia are eukaryotic because the organisms in this category are advanced organisms that require membrane-bound organelles and a nucleus with their genetic DNA in order to function and thrive. Protista, fungi, and plantae also go into the eukaryotic category because protists, fungi, and plants all have membrane-bound organelles and can carry out higher-level functions.

Monera are prokaryotes, and monera are usually classified into two domains: bacteria and archaea. Monerans lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, and for this reason Monerans are very small organisms.

According to the five-kingdom classification of R.H Whittaker, the kingdom Monera is a unicellular prokaryotic organism, while the other four kingdoms i.e. Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalis are the eukaryotic organisms.

How prokaryotes are different from eukaryotes?

Prokaryotes don't have a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bounded cell organelles while eukaryotes possess proper compartmentalization.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP ) is a biological oxidant involved in the oxidation of testosterone to estradiol.

True/false

Answers

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

NADP does not  convert  testosterone to estradiol. This oxidation  is done by a steroid   17-a-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase.

This oxidation  is essential for stability of hormone: it helps to regulates the elevation of Testosterone in women,subduing the manifestation of male sexual characteristics,

and

for preventing autoimmune diseases.

The oxidation involved two basic  steps of  reaction, controlled by two different enzymes.

NADP is a Co- factor,  when in reduced form( NADPH) is used in Calvin cycle, of light independent reaction of photosynthesis, and in Nucleic acid and triglycerides synthesis.

It has nothing to do with conversation of Androgen( testosterone  to Estradiol.

Franz is diagnosed with retrograde ejaculation. This means that
a.

his sperm count is getting low and he may be infertile

b.

he is unable to ejaculate during intercourse

c.

he is unable to ejaculate and experience orgasm at the same time

d.

his semen passes into his bladder rather than out of his urethral opening

Answers

Answer:

d. his semen passes into his bladder rather than out of his urethral opening.

Explanation:

Men who have retrograde ejaculation have no trouble getting an erection. The problem is that when the man reaches the climax the semen enters the bladder instead of going out through the  male sex organ (The sperm passes from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis. In the epididymis semen is formed. This semen comes out of the end of the urethra.). For this reason, no semen goes out through the  male sex organ and there is a cloudy urine after orgasm because it contains semen. This condition causes  inability to cause a pregnancy.

Answer: Option D.

Retrograde ejaculation means semen passes in to the bladder rather than urethral opening.

Explanation:

Retrograde ejaculation is a sexul disorder in men in which the semen travel to the bladder instead of the penis during orgasm. This lead to too much sperm in the urine and can also lead to low fertility in men. Retrograde ejaculation is common in men with diabetes who suffer nerve damage. Men with spinal cord injury and multiple sclerosis can also develop retrograde ejaculation. Once diagnosed medical treatment should be given.

Which structure contains intertwined capillaries from the mother and the developing embryo?

Answers

Answer:

The structure that contains intertwined capillaries from the mother and the developing embryo is PLACENTA.

Explanation:

Placenta is a structure composed of both embryonic and maternal tissues. It supplies nutrients to the developing embryo.

Placenta is a unique organ found mainly in mammals, that allows developing fetus to have all the nutrients from their mother's blood stream even before they are born.

Besides providing the nutrients, placenta also provides attachment of fetus to the mother's Uterine wall and  allow the fetus to transfer all the waste products to the mother's blood for excretion.

Placenta composed of 2 parts : The maternal part called as Decidua Basalis and the fetal part called as Chorion Frondosum. The parts are held together by Anchoring Villi.

Maternal blood flows from the maternal circulatory system through the intervillous space (space surrounding the chorion)  nutrients and other exchange occurs and blood flows back in the maternal circulation.

Which three statements may correctly explain why the population size increases after time point C?Figure:Point C is a point in a graph

Answers

The correct statements are:

The population grew more rapidly after time point C because the bacteria must have acquired a second drug-resistance mutation.The population increase just after time point C indicates that antibiotic use was discontinued.Bacteria that acquired a mutation conferring drug resistance had a growth advantage over non-resistant bacteria, leading to the rapid reproduction of drug-resistant bacteria and a subsequent increase in the overall population size.

The statement that the population grew more rapidly after time point C due to the acquisition of a second drug-resistance mutation is not necessarily supported by the graph. The increased population size may be attributed to other factors, such as the growth advantage of existing drug-resistant bacteria.The population increase just after time point C does not necessarily indicate that antibiotic use was discontinued. It could be a result of the proliferation of bacteria with drug resistance, indicating that the antibiotic was not effective against these resistant strains.The plausible explanation for the population increase after time point C is that bacteria with a mutation conferring drug resistance had a growth advantage over non-resistant bacteria. This growth advantage led to the rapid reproduction of drug-resistant bacteria, contributing to the overall population expansion. This interpretation aligns with the principles of natural selection, where advantageous traits confer a fitness advantage and drive their prevalence in a population.

Two or more related lineages acquire a similar characteristic which is not found in a common ancestor. What are the structures called?A. parallelB. homologousC. divergentD. analogousE. cladistic

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is D. analogous

Explanation:

We speak of an analogy when one structure is similar to another or has the same function, but whose embryonic development and its origin or ancestor is not common, they are different, in other words, they are analogous structures if they fulfill functions or acquire similar characteristics starting from the same medium, without requiring them to have the same evolutionary origin (they may or may not be similar structurally and embryologically).

Final answer:

Analogous structures are features in different organisms that are similar due to convergent evolution in similar environmental conditions, rather than from a common ancestor.

Explanation:

When two or more related lineages acquire a similar characteristic that is not found in a common ancestor, the structures are called analogous structures. These features arise due to convergent evolution, where organisms evolve similar traits independently because of similar environmental pressures, not because they share a close evolutionary relationship. An example of analogous structures are the wings of bats and insects, which look similar because they both facilitate flight but developed independently in these lineages without a common ancestor with wings.

How do the stages of mitosis and meiosis occur in a specific order and never alternate.

Answers

Answer:

The cell divides by the two main process known as mitosis and meiosis. The somatic cells divide by the process of mitosis and germ cells divide by the process of meiosis.

The cell follows the sequential pathway - prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. This specific order follows because the cell cycle have various check point at each stage of the cell cycle. The cyclins and cdk's regulate the transitions from one stage to another stage of the cell cycle. If the cell correctly passes these transition without any defects in the cell.

In a variational process of evolution, as described by Darwin, the properties of a trait in a population change because:a.Each of the individuals in the population change in that trait.b.Some of the individuals in the population change their trait by a small amount and others by a large amount.c.Whether or not an individual in the population changes its trait varies depending on the environment where that individual lives.d.None of the individuals in the population change, rather which individuals remain in the population changes.

Answers

Answer:

Option (c).

Explanation:

Darwin is known as the father of evolution and explains the theory of the natural selection. He explains the relationship between the evolution and the natural selection.

According to Darwin the population with more reproductive power has high chance of fitness and adapt in the environment. This is because the large number of individual in the population shows large variation with the variation in the fitness when subjected to the process of natural selection. The changes or the variation in the trait mainly depends upon the environmental condition of the individual.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

Final answer:

The properties of traits in a population change not because individuals change their traits, but because natural selection (environment) changes which individuals survive and reproduce, altering the population's genetic composition over generations. So, option c is correct.

Explanation:

In a variational process of evolution, as described by Darwin, the properties of a trait in a population change because none of the individuals in the population change, rather which individuals remain in the population changes. This is due to natural selection, where traits that provide a survival and reproductive advantage become more common in the population over time. Evolution occurs due to changes in the genetic composition of a population over generations, resulting from differential reproduction of individuals with certain alleles. It is important to understand that evolution does not occur on the individual level, but across populations where the average value of a characteristic may change due to the presence of more advantageous traits within the breeding individuals.

50 points Please help
Discuss the importance of oxygen to all living organisms, and describe how three different organisms—human, flatworm, and fern—obtain the oxygen they need

Answers

Answer:

Hey hope this helps.

Explanation:

It allows the process of respiration to occur. For humans we inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide. For the flatworm it does the same it inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide. Now for a fern since it is a plant it can not take in oxygen it can only release it. This happens through photosynthesis. It is where plants take in the carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

Oxygen helps the organism to grow, reproduce and get energy from the food through cellular respiration.

Human inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide through the process of respiration.

Flatworm also take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

Fern being a plant, takes up carbon dioxide to perform photosynthesis and release oxygen as a byproduct.

Why oxygen is important?

Animal requires oxygen for the growth and reproduction as cells die in absence of oxygen.

To get energy from food, oxygen is requires as a terminal electron acceptor for cellular respiration.

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Beatrice and Allen Gardner taught the chimpanzee Washoe to communicate by means of:A) pictures.B) Morse code.C) sign language.D) a simplified typewriter

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - option C) sign language.

Explanation:

Washoe was a chimpanzee used in a research experiment. According to Beatrice and Allen Gardner, this chimpanzee is the first non-human to learn and communicative with the help of American sign language. Washoe learned about 350 signs of ASL, an American sign language. It was part of the research experiment on animals.

Thus, the correct answer is - optic C.

Wildlife in the Serengeti is currently threatened by ________.A. Pollution from a nearby coal power plant.B. Plans to build a highway that passes through the park.C. An invasive fish that has been introduced into the major river that flows through the park.D. Plans to legalize hunting of most of the large animal species in the park.E. An overabundance of elephants.

Answers

Answer:

B. Plans to build a highway that passes through the park.

Explanation:

Serengeti is one of the largest wilderness area in the world as it supports a very large and magnificent diversity of animals especially Lion , Black rhino , buffalo , elephant and leapord.

Wildlife in Serengeti is currently threatened by the plans to build a highway that passes through the park definition. Thus the increased human acticities around the boundary of the Serengeti National park have damaged habitat and constrained the area available for the migration of animals like zebras , wildebeast and gazelles.

Question 10-1. Why is the Carnot cycle not a realistic model for steam power plants? Please select all corrected answers. Group of answer choices High moisture content in the turbine section Seeking higher thermal efficiencies using other power cycles. Limiting the heat transfer processes to two-phase systems.

Answers

Questions does not provide enough details therefore i have added full question with answer see attached picture.

Answer:

Carnot cycle is not a realistic model for steam power plant due to the following reasons:

1. Isentropically pumping two phase flow is not practical

2. High moisture content in the turbine section.

3. Limiting the heat transfer processes to two-phase systems.

Suppose an organism (2n) has a haploid number of n=6. How many chromatids would be present at prophase of mitosis?

Answers

Answer:

24

Explanation:

An organism with n=6 chromosomes would have the diploid chromosome number 2n= 12 in its somatic cells. The process of DNA replication during the S phase of interphase doubles the DNA content. This newly formed DNA is accommodated in the sister chromatids of chromosomes. Therefore, after the S phase, each chromosome has two sister chromatids.

The prophase cells have clearly visible chromosomes due to the compaction of chromatin. Each of the prophase chromosomes has two sister chromatids. Therefore, the total number of chromatids in prophase cell of the given organism would be 12 x 2 = 24.

Amniotes produce eggs that contain fluids that bathe the embryo during gestation..
a True
b. False​

Answers

Answer: a) true

Explanation: The fluid inside the egg helps in the survival of embryo and maintain fluid environment.

Answer:True

Explanation:

Ambitious have a protective covering called amnion this serves as a protective coat while developing . It contains amniotic fluid and it as been said that some of the fluid are found in the developing embryos and its also aisds there movement . The fluid contain protein and some minerals

How might water on the surface of the solid culture medium cause the disruption of colony formation?

Answers

Answer: There can be few reasons why surface on water can be harmful to the bacterial colony.

Explanation:

It is possible that while preparing the media for the bacterial colony that the constituents might not have been taken right proportion and water is more in it.

It tends to float on the surface and if the bacterial colony is not able to grow in such an environment it will led to the death of the colony.

There are chances that the mobility of the bacterial species increases in water and because of this there will be problems faced at the time of isolation.

The fact that being homozygous recessive for the CCR5 receptor protects people from being infected with HIV, thus causing an increase in the recessive CCR5 allele, is an example of

Answers

Answer:

Positive natural selection

Explanation:

Positive natural selection is fundamental to adaptive evolution and it is characterized by its ability to be passed on, that is heritable, and beneficial to a population.

The rapid inward diffusion of Na+ followed by the outward diffusion of K+ produces a rapid change in the membrane potential of a neuron called ____.

Answers

Answer: depolarization

Explanation:

On depolarization, the sodium gates in the neuron membrane closes after sodium ions flow inside, while potassium gates open causing potassium ions to flow out and reestablish the original resting potential of the membrane.

The rapid change in membrane potential from resting to action potential is DEPOLARIZATION

Resistance to pesticides a. is an example of gene flow. b. arises by genetic drift. c. is the result of long-term changes in the pesticide. e. e. e. is independent of the selection coefficient. none of the above

Answers

Answer:

none of the above

Explanation:

Resistance to pesticide is caused by genetic mutation. Genetic mutation is an altercation of the Deoxyribonucleic acid sequence that forms the basis of a gene.

When pesticides are introduced to these insects, only those who survived are resistant to the pesticides, the population reduces but yet creating some variant in the gene(allele) over time.

One effect of a mutation, is to create  another variant of a gene. When this happens, you have increased the variability of a population, and changed allele frequency. Therefore, there is likelihood that those resistant to the pesticides increase and thrive over time.

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