Answer:
The correct answer is c. the use of organisms to remove pollutants from the environment
Explanation:
Bioremediation is a process in which living organisms are involved in the treatment and removal of pollutants from the environment. Bacteria, fungi, and archaea are the organism that is widely used in bioremediation because they reproduce very fast.
These organism works on environmental pollutant and break them into simpler and harmless compound, for example, Alcanivorax or Methylocella Silvestris are the bacteria which is used to clean the oil spills in the oceans. Therefore the correct answer is c.
Robert and Stephanie are married; both have achondroplasia. Each always knew that they would only marry someone with achondroplasia. This type of choice can disturb Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and is an example of what?
Answer:The gene Y 11 is only partially dominant over y 11 ; thus heterozygote Y 11 y 11 plant has ...
Explanation:they have it i their genes
Mendel's law of independent assortment states that which allele is passed down to the next generation at one locus is dependent on which allele is passed down to the next generation at another locus.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Mendel's law of independent assortment is about the random distribution of alleles of one gene during anaphase-I. It states that alleles of two or more genes segregate randomly to the poles of the cell. For example, the segregation of R and r alleles to the two poles of the cell would not affect the segregation of the T and t alleles. This random and independent segregation of alleles of different genes during anaphase-I produces new gene combinations in the progeny.
A chi-square test was performed and indicated that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expecteD. Which of the following P-values would support this conclusion?
Select one:
a. 0.536
b. 0.752
c. 0.024
d. 0.159
e. 0.995
Answer: C. 0.024
Explanation:
The pvalue 0.024 is < 5% which shows that the expected number of offspring were statistically different from expected.
Among the given options, choice c. 0.024 is the correct answer, supporting the conclusion that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expected. This is because in a chi-square test, a P-value less than 0.05 indicates a statistically significant difference.
Explanation:A chi-square test is a statistical tool used to determine if there is a significant difference between the observed and expected frequencies of events. The P-value of the chi-square test indicates the probability of obtaining the observed data if the null hypothesis is true, in which the null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference between the observed and expected quantities.
Typically, a P-value of less than 0.05 is considered statistically significant and supports the rejection of the null hypothesis. In the given options, choice c. 0.024 is the P-value that would support the conclusion that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expected, since it is less than 0.05.
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Listed below are four adaptations of terrestrial vertebrates. Which is a characteristic only of truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any stage of the life cycle?
1. tetrapod locomotion
2. hearts with more than two chambers
3. lungs
4. amniotic eggs
5. All of these are essential for a completely terrestrial existence
Answer: Amniotic eggs
Explanation:
Amniotes are the characteristic feature of tetrapod vertebrates comprising the birds, mammals and reptiles. The amniotes lay their eggs on the land and retain the fertilized egg inside the mother.
They are differentiated from the from the organism which lay eggs in water. Anamniotes are the organism which are specialized to live in water and they cannot survive on land.
Hence, the correct answer is Option 4
The production of amniotic eggs is a characteristic exclusive to truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any lifecycle stage. This feature helps in moisture conservation, crucial for life on land. Other listed adaptations are also observed in some aquatic species.
Explanation:The characteristic exclusive to truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any lifecycle stage is the production of amniotic eggs. Amniotic eggs contain a specialized structure called amnion, which helps in the conservation of moisture, a critical characteristic required for life on land. Even though tetrapod locomotion, hearts with more than two chambers, and lungs are adaptations that help in survival on land, they are also observed in some aquatic animals. For example, frogs have lungs and tetrapod locomotion but need water for their reproduction. Therefore, out of the listed options, only the amniotic eggs are characteristics strictly tied to terrestrial life.
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Sharks
Select one:
a. have bone skeletons.
b. lack jaws.
c. have a keen sense of smell.
d. lack the lateral line system of bony fishes.
e. do not have paired fins.
Answer: (C.) Have a keen sense of smell
Explanation:
There are seven anatomic characteristics of sharks:
1. Cartilage Skeleton.
2. Skin covered with dermal denticles.
3. Powerful Jaws.
4. Efficient Liver.
5. Anatomic Tail.
6. Dynamic Fins.
7. Highly Developed Senses.
Their highly developed senses are the most important anatomic structures of sharks.
SHARK SENSES
1. Lateral Line.
2. Ampullae of Lorenzini.
3. A POWERFUL SENSE OF SMELL.
4. Good Eyesight.
5. Great Hearing
Demetri is a participant in an auditory detection study using the method of constant stimuli. He never detects the 10 unit tone. He detects the 20 unit tone 25% of the trials. He detects the 30 unit tone 50% of the trials. He detects the 40 unit tone 80% of the trials. He detects the 50 unit tone 95% of the trials. His threshold for hearing tones would be taken as the _________.
Answer:
30 unit tone
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that his threshold for hearing tones would be taken as the 30 unit tone. This is because "threshold" refers to the amount that must be exceeded for a certain result to occur or manifest. Which in this case is indicated by the 50% mark that the 30 unit tone indicates. Making it the minimum for consistency.
Two parts of the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle affect the human host in the follow ways. The________ is responsible for the clinical symptoms of malaria in one human host, and the_______ releases spores into the human's blood that make it possible for the malaria to be passed on to a_______ and then to another human.
1. a. asexual portions
b. sexual portions
2. a. sexual portion
b. a sexual portion
3. a. moosquito
b. flea
Answer:
The answer to 1. is option a. asexual portion.
The answer to 2. is option b. sexual portion.
The answer to 3. Is option a. Mosquito
Explanation:
1. The asexual portion is the stage in the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle where the parasite develops in the erythrocytes causing accumulation of waste and toxic substances which ultimately end up in the bloodstream when the infected cells lyse. These factors acts to produce the symptoms experienced in malaria.
2. During the sexual portion of the Plasmodium cycle spores formed in the human host are released into the bloodstream which is usually picked up by an uninfected female anopheles mosquito when it takes a blood meal.
3. An infected mosquito passes the sporozoites to a new human host when it takes a blood meal and the cycle starts all over.
Excess plasma lipids in the form of cholesterol contribute to the formation of atherosclerotic plaques within blood vessel walls. Which of the following is NOT a likely consequence of such plaques?
The question is incomplete. The multiple options are as follows:
turbulent blood flow around the plaque .
increased pressure due to a loss of elasticity in the vessel wall .
more resistance to flow due to a decrease in blood vessel diameter.
All options are correct.
Answer:
All options are correct.
Explanation:
Blood is composed of the plasma and formed elements in the body. The formed elements consists of the red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.
The blood plasma consists of the proteins, antibodies and different types of chemicals. The excess level of cholesterol can cause the plaque formation that disrupt the proper blood flow. The plaque may result in the loss of elasticity and excess rigidity in the walls of blood vessels. The blood resistance flow increases and causes the lowering the diameter of blood vessels.
Thus, all given options are correct.
The liver plays an important role in modulating blood glucose levels by removing glucose from the blood during periods of abundance or secreting it into the blood when blood glucose concentration is low. However, the liver doesn't simply stockpile glucose. Rather, it polymerizes it into glycogen, which it can then hydrolyze back into glucose monomers as needed. Why would storage as glycogen be better than simply storing the glucose.
Answer: glycogen is insoluble in water
Explanation:
Glycogen is a better storage of glucose because Glycogen is insoluble in water thus, because of the glycosidic linkages. Storing glucose as glycogen will not upset the osmotic pressure rather than glucose which is soluble in water and if it is stored as glucose it will disturb the osmotic pressure making the solution hypertonic that will cause the cell to lyse.
The glucose from glycogen is readily mobilized and is therefore a good source of energy when needed rather than free floating glucose
The liver stores glucose as glycogen, allowing for a compact, controlled, and efficient system of glucose storage and release. After a meal, insulin promotes glucose conversion to glycogen for storage, and when blood sugar levels decrease, the liver converts glycogen back into glucose.
Explanation:The liver stores glucose as glycogen, a polymer of glucose, rather than as free glucose for several important reasons. First, glycogen is a more soluble and compact way to store glucose making it more space-efficient than storing individual glucose molecules. Second, the conversion of glucose to glycogen and back, through processes known as glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, allows for a more controlled release of glucose when it is needed. Additionally, glycogen stabilizes blood glucose levels by releasing glucose when blood glucose concentration is low and storing it when the concentration is high.
After a meal, blood glucose levels increase, stimulating the pancreas's production of insulin which promotes glucose uptake by liver hepatocytes and other cells. Inside these cells, glucose is converted into glucose-6-phosphate and then stored as glycogen for future energy needs. If blood sugar levels drop, the glycogen is hydrolyzed back into glucose and released back into the blood. This process allows for the maintenance of stable blood glucose levels, providing a steady supply of energy for body cells.
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Using careful experimental design, Blehert and colleagues proved definitively that the fungus Geomyces destructans is the cause of white nose syndrome.
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
The scientific hypothesis may be defined as the complete explanation of any particular natural phenomena. The scientific hypothesis and theory cannot be used synonymous with each other.
The hypothesis are generally based on the observation of the particular phenomena. The Blehert and colleagues set up the experimental design for the hypothesis. This is incorrect because the hypothesis can be accepted or rejected but cannot be proven.
Thus, the answer is false.
A bunionectomy is a hallux ____ correction.A needle biopsy is a way of obtaining a piece of tissue out of the body by excision of the tissue. It can be examined under a microscope by a pathologist. Because this biopsy is performed through the skin, it is called a percutaneous biopsy.
Answer:
Valgus.
Explanation:
Bunion may be defined as the joint enlargement at the big toe. The bunionectomy may be defined as the surgical procedure to remove the bunion.
The hallux valgus is corrected in the bunionectomy. This is a type of deformity involve in the functional disability of the foot and pain in the lower part of the body. This correction is important as it might cause problem in the individual and excess pain in the foot.
Thus, the answer is valgus.
Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?
A) A-B toxin
B) hemolysin
C) leukocidin
D) streptolysin O
E) streptolysin S
Answer:
Answer is A-B toxin.
Explanation:
A membrane-disrupting toxin is toxin that affect the cell membrane. The effect of its secretion could be by interrupting the phospholipid layer or through pores formation on the membrane.
Membrane- disrupting toxins are regarded as exotoxins. Examples are leukocidin and hemolysin which their effects cause leakages of the cytoplasmic content and lysis of the cell, through the formation of pores on the cell membrane.
The A-B toxin are produced by the proteins of pathogenic organisms such as the bacteria. Example is botulinum toxin.
The A-B toxin is not a membrane-disrupting toxin. A-B toxins work by having one subunit disrupt cellular processes, while the other aids entry into the cell. The other options are all examples of membrane-disrupting toxins.
Explanation:The toxins listed in the question are all associated with disrupting cell membranes, except for the A-B toxin. A-B toxins are a type of bacterial toxin that consists of two parts or subunits. The A subunit is typically responsible for the toxic effect (it enters the cell and disrupts cellular processes), while the B subunit helps the A subunit enter the cell. Examples include diphtheria toxin and cholera toxin. On the other hand, hemolysin, leukocidin, streptolysin O, and streptolysin S are all types of membrane-disrupting toxins. They function by creating pores in cell membranes, leading to cell lysis and death.
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A client is undergoing a cytotoxic chemotherapy regimen for the treatment of stage III lung cancer. What effect will this regimen likely have on the client's hemostatic function?
Answer: The client's platelet count will decline.
Explanation:
The client platelet count will decrease as it is a side effect of the cytotoxic chemotherapy regimen. Chemo destroys the cells that grow rapidly including the cells in the bone marrow which are responsible for producing platelets.
The low platelet count in the body is known as thrombocytopenia, a common side effect of chemo.
The cut on the body cannot be cured easily due to this problem of the body but this is common side effect of chemotherapy.
According to the theory of organic evolution, all living organisms are related, and they descended with some modifications from organisms that lived in the past.A) TrueB) False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
According to the theory of organic evolution, all organisms are related to each other and they all are descendants with some modification from the organism that lived in the past. The evidence of this theory can be seen in existence in homologous organs in different species for example wings of bird and hand or humans.
This homology proves that they shared the common ancestor in the past and they are descendants with some variation and modification which make them appear different from each other. Therefore the statement is true.
After suffering an accidental brain injury, Kira has difficulty walking in a smooth, coordinated manner. It is likely that she has suffered damage to her:
Answer: Kira has difficulty in walking in smooth coordinated manner because she has suffered injury to the cerebellum.
Explanation:
Cerebellum is a part of the brain situated inferior to cerbrum and posterior to pons. It receives sensory information and converts it into motor responses. Motor coordination is when subsequent parts of the same movement, or the movements of several limbs or body parts are combined in a manner that is well timed, smooth, and efficient. Cerebellum coordinates voluntary motor movements resulting in smooth coordinated muscular activities. Injury to cerebellum causes its loss of function which in return causes
1) loss of coordinated movements
2) inability to perform alternate rapid movements
3) movement tremors
4) staggering wide based gait
Kira likely damaged her cerebellum, as this part of the brain regulates fine motor control and coordination. Damage can lead to ataxia, characterized by unsteady, uncoordinated movements.
Explanation:After suffering a brain injury and having difficulty walking in a smooth, coordinated manner, it's likely Kira has suffered damage to her cerebellum.
The cerebellum is part of the brain responsible for fine motor control, balance, and coordination. Damage to this area can result in ataxia, a type of movement disorder characterized by a lack of muscle control during voluntary movements, leading to unsteady and uncoordinated walking.
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The explanation for the fact that radioactive isotopes of an element exhibit the same chemical behavior as the stable isotopes of the element is that each has the same:
a. atomic number.
b. number of neutrons.
c. mass number.
d. atomic weight.
Answer:
a. atomic number
Explanation:
Radioactive isotopes of an element have the same chemical behavior as the stable isotopes of the element due to the fact that they have the same atomic number with that of the stable isotopes of the element. The atomic number determines the electron number and configuration of an element.
Electron number and their arrangement determine the chemical behavior of an element, as they determine how the element interacts and form bonds.
Mrs. Higgins needs to have major surgery. Two weeks before the surgery, her doctor prescribes EPO. Which of the following statements best explains his reason for doing this?
a) By prescribing EPO, the doctor will be able to increase oxygen levels because EPO causes hemoglobin to bind oxygen more efficiently.
b) By prescribing EPO, the doctor will decrease her hematocrit so that her blood is less likely to clot during surgery.
c) After she takes EPO, Mrs. Higgins's risk of infection will go down because of increased production of WBCs.
d) By prescribing EPO, the doctor can stimulate Mrs. Higgins's body to produce an overabundance of RBCs, which can be harvested and saved for her surgery.
Answer: NONE OF THE ABOVE OPTIONS ARE CORRECT.
Explanation:
EPO(Erythropoietin) can be used in patients who are going to have a major surgery in which significant blood loss is expected.
By administering EPO in the month before the surgery the patient often has a 1-2 gram rise in hemoglobin (increased hematocrit level) and this decreases the chance that a blood transfusion will be needed during the surgery.
Adaptive radiations on archipelagos (island chains) represent some of the best-understood speciation events. Why is an ancestral species more likely to give rise to multiple descendent species on an archipelago than on an equal-sized area of mainland?A) Favorable mutations are more likely to arise on an archipelago as populations try to adapt to conditions on their specific island.B) By chance, different species will colonize different islands in a chain.C) Populations on nearby islands are more likely to be genetically isolated than populations that are equally close to one another on the mainland.
Answer:
Populations on nearby islands are more likely to be genetically isolated than populations that are equally close to one another on the mainland.
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation may be defined as the process of evolution in which the single ancestral specifies diversify to form the new multiple species. This is a kind of divergent evolution.
The adaptive radiation results in the process of speciation. The archipelago species is genetically isolated from the mainland. These species has similar characteristics that might be due to their closeness of the island to the mainland.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Alex recently quit smoking. Now he has trouble paying attention at work and forgets simple things. Which neurotransmitter is most likely causing Alex's symptoms?
acetylcholine ( T/F)
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Tobacco is consumed during smoking which contains an addictive substance called Nicotine. Nicotine exerts its effect on the body by stimulating the acetylcholine receptors in the neurons. The stimulation of these receptors stimulates another neurotransmitter like glutamate, dopamine and GABA which produce addictive effects in humans.
Since the acetylcholine is involved in stimulating the other neurotransmitters therefore true is the correct answer.
Thus, true is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Alex's issues with attention and memory after quitting smoking are likely due to the interruption of acetylcholine neurotransmission, as nicotine from smoking acts as an agonist to acetylcholine. The absence of nicotine leads to decreased stimulation of acetylcholine receptors, which can cause these symptoms.
Explanation:
The neurotransmitter acetylcholine plays a significant role in memory and attention. When Alex quit smoking, his body was deprived of nicotine, which acts similarly to acetylcholine within the brain. As a result of quitting smoking, Alex could experience difficulty with attention and memory recall, symptoms typically linked with the disruption of acetylcholine neurotransmission.
Nicotine's agonistic action on acetylcholine receptors leads to increased arousal and reward while using tobacco products. However, sudden cessation leads to a decrease in the simulation of acetylcholine receptors, causing symptoms that can mimic those of conditions associated with acetylcholine undersupply, like Alzheimer's disease. Over time, these symptoms may improve as the body adjusts to the absence of nicotine.
Therefore, to answer the original question, it is likely that the neurotransmitter acetylcholine—or more specifically, the temporary imbalance caused by the cessation of nicotine that mimics acetylcholine—is influencing Alex's difficulties with attention and memory after quitting smoking.
Secretin is released in response to A. gastrin B. bolus C. hydrocholoric acid in chyme D. carbohydrates E. proteins
Answer:
The answer is optio C. hydrocholoric acid in chym
Explanation:
Secretin is a digestive hormone that regulates gastric acid secretion and pH level in the duodenum. It is produced in the upper part of the small intestine and released in response to hydrochloric acid in the stomach and duodenum.
Why do mushrooms grow back in the same spot each year even if someone removes the cap and stem of the mushroom?
Answer:
The old hyphae was left underground and a new mushroom will regrow from it.
Explanation:
Mushrooms is the fleshy part of a fungus that bears spores. Is found above the ground. It is comprised of parts such as the cap which is the top part.
Underneath the cap are the gills and the stalk or the stem is where the cap and gills are attached.
A part from the seen features, underneath the ground is where the hyphae which can give rise to another fruiting body or the mushroom.
Over the course of a month, which of the following is most likely to describe an appropriate flow unit for a process analysis of a hospital?
A) The number of physicians
B) The number of beds
C) The square footage of the building
D) The number of patients
Answer:
The correct option is D) the number of patients
Explanation:
The number of patients who arrive in a hospital to get treated will determine the flow unit of the hospital. The more facilities and positive environment a hospital will have, the more will be the patients who arrive in that hospital. Hence, if we want to check how the working staff of a hospital is, we should look for the number of patients who visit the hospital. A hospital which has a positive environment and more facilities will attract more number of patients.
In COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing the amount of red blood cells. Which term refers to this process?
Answer:
Polycythemia
Explanation:
Polycythemia is best defined as a substantial red blood cell increase in the blood. The bodies of individuals with Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increase their oxygen levels through polycythemia.
You are given a prepared slide and are told that it is a streptobacillus. Without even looking at the slide under the microscope, you know which of the following? 1. The bacteria are linked together in chains. 2. The bacteria are spherical in shape. 3. The bacteria are in grape-like clusters. 4. The bacteria are rod-shaped. 5. The bacteria are Gram-negative.
A) 1,2.
B) 1,4.
C) 2,3.
D) 2,4.
E) 1,4,5.
Answer:
1 and 4
Explanation:
Streptobacilli are linked together in chains, the bacterium is gram positive and the generally rod-shape. The genus could be aerobic ( required oxygen for their growth), falcultative anaerobe (in the absence of oxygen, they can switch to fermentation).
An efficient way to search for and insert a value in a cell when the desired value is stored elsewhere in the worksheet or even in a different workbook.
Answer:
An efficient way to search for and insert a value in a cell when the desired value is stored elsewhere in the worksheet or even in a different workbook is by using lookup functions.
Explanation:
Lookup function is the built in function of excel that helps in returning the certain value form specific row or column.When the value is stored in the worksheet we can easily insert that desired value in the cell by the use of lookup functions. VLOOKUP and HLOOKUP are the lookup unctions that searches the value in column and row respectively.Complete the sentences with the correct terms. If one plant cell sends a signal to another plant cell by passing a small molecule to that cell through the plasmodesmata, this would be referred to as signaling. After a big meal, in those individuals who do not have Type I diabetes, the pancreas secretes insulin, which circulates through the body and binds to receptors on various cell types to signal to those cells that the body is in the "fed state." This is an example of Neurons secrete neurotransmitters that bind to target cells in the local environment and induce a response. While this is an example of paracrine signaling, it is more specifically referred to as During an allergic response, histamines are released by mast cells. These histamines bind to receptors on cells in the local environment only. This is an example of .
Explanation:
A. direct contact
Also known as juxtacrine signalling where cells in contact are next to each other. Here in this question plasmodesmata which acts as a channel through which molecules move in and out of nearby cells is an example of direct contact signalling.
B. endocrine signalling
In this signalling, signal is sent from one cell to other cells which is far away from the cell. The signal will be in a steady state. Insulin is secreted from Beta cells of pancreas to other target cells through blood. So, insulin secretion is an example for endocrine signalling.
C. synaptic signalling
The junction between nerve cells where transmission of signals is called synapse. And the paracrine signalling that occurs among the neuron cells can be specifically called as synaptic signalling.
D. paracrine signalling
If cells release signals and is passed to the local environment or immediate surrounding areas it is called paracrine signalling. The clue is itself in the question "cells on local environment only". So this histamine signalling to other cells follows paracrine signalling
A researcher discovers a new microfossil. At first, he is uncertain whether this organism was a bacterium , Archaeon, or protist. After careful study, he determines that this organism was a protist. What features were present in this microfossil that lead the researcher to this conclusion?
Answer:
Exclusive features from Protozoa
Explanation:
Protozoa are unique and complex single-celled eucaryot. So, if the discovered microfossil still has some clues of a presence of a nucleus it might be a feature that can be related with only with a protist organism. Also, some protozoa has special anatomy structures like sensory bristles, photoreceptors, cilia, sting darts, etc. In conclusion there might be some features that could lead researchers to find a new extinct protist organism.
You want to engineer a eukaryotic gene into bacterial colony and have it expressed. What must be included in addition to the coding exons of the gene?A) the introns B) a bacterial promoter sequence C) eukaryotic polymerases D) eukaryotic tRNAs E) eukaryotic ribosomal subunits
Answer:
B) a bacterial promoter sequence
Explanation:
Promoters are the specific DNA sequences that are required for the expression of genes. These DNA sequences direct the RNA polymerase to bind to the specific regions of the gene. For example, the DNA sequences present at -10 and -35 regions of genes of E. coli interact with the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase and direct it where to bind during the process of transcription.
Eukaryotic genes do not have the prokaryotic promoters. Therefore, bacterial promoter sequences should be added to a eukaryotic gene to allow its expression in a prokaryotic cell.
. In a laboratory population of Drosophila, all the males are XsY. Among the females, 15% are XiXi, 50% are XiXs and 35% are XsXs. Assuming random mating, what proportion of the male flies in the next generation will be XiY?
A. 12% B. 30% C. 40% D. 65%
2. A virgin female Drosophila mates and produces 34 daugthers and 38 sons. 18 of these sons sire only daughters, while the remainder sire approximately equal numbers of daughters and sons. What the gynotypes of the original female and the male with whom she mated
A. XiXs and XsY B. XiXs and XiY C. XiXi and XsY D. XsXs and XiY
3. If the e and f are expressed, the Xi chromosome will be prevented from reaching 100% frequency if selection pressure cause which of the following to be true?
A. XsXs flies have the lowest fitness of any genotype B. XsXs flies have the highest fitness of any genotype C. XiY flies and XsY flies have equal fitness D. XiXs flies XsXs flies have equal fitness
Answer: 1A. 40% is The Answer C 2a: A is the answer XiXs and XsY
3a Answer is A
Explanation: 1A. 40% is The Answer:
random mating point to the directiojn to Hardy–Weinberg genetics. all males receive a Y chromosome from their fathers, male contribution can be ignored; while we focus on the type of chromosome the females will donate.
assign Xi as p in the H–W equations, and Xs as q. 15% of the females are XiXi
35% are XsXs (35% qq), (15% pp), 50% are XiXs (50% pq) put these values into the H–W equation for genotype frequency
(pp +2pq + qq = 1)
gives us 0.15 + 0.50 + 0.35 = 1; solving for p and q gives us approximate values of p = 0.4 and q = 0.6.
H–W equilibrium state that allele frequency remain constant from generation to generation, males can inherit either Xi (p) or Xs (q), the percentage
of XiY males equal the frequency of the Xi allele: therefore p = 0.4 which is same as 40%.
2A
34 daughters and 38 sons.
18 sons only make daughters, remainder have equal number of each
must be A.
- male must be XsY, or else the 1st gen would ONLY be females
- only half the sons' kids have it so mother must be XiXs
3a.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
At the base of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, he identifies ______ as including the need for food and shelter.
Answer:
Physiological needs
Explanation:
Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs is a motivational theory in psychology that was propounded by Abraham Maslow. Man’s needs that drive their motivation are depicted on a pyramid shape diagram, with the most basic and fundamental needs placed at the bottom. From the bottom to the top, we have the following needs: physiological, safety, love, esteem, and lastly, self-actualization.
According to Maslow, physiological needs include food and shelter. These make up the fundamental needs that man seeks to satisfy before progressing upwards to meet other needs.