Answer: Fungi.
Explanation:
If a person is suffering from pathogen that derives nutrition from its environment then the pathogen belongs to kingdom fungi.
In case of fungal infections, fungus release enzyme out of their body and performs extracellular digestion and absorb nutrition from their environment.
As they do not have stomach, they need to digest the food before they can pass through the cell wall into hyphae.
Such kind of pathogens are Fungi.
How does the size of the olfactory bulb in sheep compare to the size in humans? What might this tell you about the sense of smell in the sheep’s survival, in particularly regarding how it acquires food?
Answer:
-The size of sheep olfactory bulb is two to three time larger than humans olfactory bulb.
-Sheep has strong sense of smell that helps the sheep to acquire food.
Explanation:
- The size of the sheep brain is much smaller than humans but sheep has well developed olfactory bulb than humans. The human brain is more circular in shape whereas sheep brain is more extended.
- The well developed olfactory bulb in sheep helps the sheep to find the food. Sheep has strong sense of smell due to large olfactory bulb. Sheep can easily find the location of food located farway from it as the sheep has strong sense of smell.
If purple flower color is dominant in pea plants, a cross between P generation purple and white plants will result ina. all purple flowers in the F1 generation.b. all white flowers in the F1 generation.c. all purple flowers in the F1 generation but a lighter purple than in the parents.d. mostly purple flowers in the P1 generation, with an occasional white flower.e. half of the plants having purple flowers, the other half having white flowers.
Answer:
a. all purple flowers in the F1 generation.
Explanation:
According to the given information, the allele for purple flower color (lets assume P) is dominant over while the allele of flower color (p). When two pure breeding purple (PP) and white flowered (pp) plants are crossed, the F1 would have all "purple flowered progeny with genotype Pp".
According to the Mendel's law of dominance, the hybrid genotype exhibits the dominant phenotype. Here, the allele "P" is dominant over allele "p". Hence, the genotype "Pp" would exhibit purple flower color and all the F1 progeny would have purple flowers.
In pea plants, when a cross is made between a purple flower plant and a white flower plant in the P generation, the F1 generation will have all purple flowers.
Explanation:In pea plants, purple flower color (P) is dominant to white (p). When a cross is made between a purple flower plant and a white flower plant in the P generation, the F1 generation will have all purple flowers. This is because the purple flower color is dominant over the white flower color. The white flower color will only appear in the F2 generation.
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The "enteric division" is part of which system
a. Cardiovascular
b. Lymphatic
c. Respiratory
d. Digestive
e. Endocrine
The answer is D, digestive.
Signaling molecules released at a synapse are called ______________.
Answer: neurotransmitters
Explanation:
The neurotransmitters are the chemicals which are released at the synaptic cleft or synapse present between the two neurons. These are the chemical messengers which carries the signals from one neuron to other and helps in transmission of the information. The chemical molecules of the neurotransmitters usually diffuse across the synaptic cleft and they bind to the receptors of the postsynaptic cells.
Answer:
Neurotransmitters
Explanation:
Signaling molecules released at a synapse are called neurotransmitters.
Keeping in mind the life cycle of bacteriophages, consider the following problem: During the reproductive cycle of a temperate bacteriophage, the viral DNA inserts into the bacterial chromosome where the resultant prophage behaves much like a Trojan horse. It can remain quiescent, or it can become lytic and initiate a burst of progeny viruses. Several operons maintain the prophage state by interacting with a repressor that keeps the lytic cycle in check. Insults (ultraviolet light, for example) to the bacterial cell lead to a partial breakdown of the repressor, which in turn causes the production of enzymes involved in the lytic cycle. As stated in this simple form, would you consider this system of regulation to be operating under positive or negative control?
The system of regulation in bacteriophage life cycle operates under negative control, as the temperate phage remains inactive until stressors induce the lytic cycle.
Explanation:The regulation of the lytic and lysogenic cycles in bacteriophages can be characterized as being under negative control. In a lysogenic cycle, a temperate bacteriophage's DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome as a prophage. During this state, several operons maintain the prophage state by interacting with a repressor that prevents the initiation of the lytic cycle.
When environmental stressors such as ultraviolet light or toxic chemicals affect the bacterial cell, they lead to the breakdown of the repressor. This, in turn, causes the production of enzymes involved in the lytic cycle. Because the repressor actively inhibits the lytic cycle under normal conditions, and a stress-induced breakdown of the repressor is required to initiate the lytic cycle, this system of regulation is considered to be operating under negative control.
which monomers are most likely linked to form cellulose
Answer:
glucose only
Explanation:
Cellulose is a polysaccharide and therefore a polymer, constructed from many monosaccharides glucose monomers.
10. The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates a. Epiphyseal growth has ended b. Epiphyseal growth is just beginning c. Growth of bone in diameter is just beginning d. The bone is fractured at the location e. No particular event
Answer:
epiphyseal line indicates..
Explanation:
that the growth cycle has completed in this individual...the answer is A.
The presence of an epiphyseal line in a bone indicates that the growth, or lengthening, of that bone has ended. It occurs as a result of the hardening of the growth plate once the bone has reached its full length.
Explanation:The presence of an epiphyseal line in a bone indicates that the epiphyseal growth, or lengthening, of that bone has ended. The epiphyseal line is a remnant of the epiphyseal plate, also known as the growth plate, which is an area of growing tissue near the ends of the long bones in children and adolescents. Once the bone has completed its growth in length, the growth plate hardens and becomes the epiphyseal line.
So, in the context of the options given, the correct answer would be 'a. Epiphyseal growth has ended'. This occurs when the individual reaches physical maturity, and thus, no more bone growth in length would occur from that point onwards.
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Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? A. innervation of cardiac muscle B. innervation of skeletal muscle C. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract D. innervation of glands
Answer:
B. innervation of skeletal muscle
Explanation:
Innervation of skeletal muscle is not a function of the autonomic nervous system.
Answer:
Option B. innervation of skeletal muscle
Explanation:
The nervous system is made up of Central Nervous System which constitutes the brain and spinal cord and the Peripheral Nervous System.
The peripheral nervous system is made up of:Somatic Nervous system: It controls the voluntary body movements and reflexes of the body such as sitting, standing, talking, running, etc.Autonomic Nervous system: It controls the involuntary physiological processes of the body such as movement of cardiac muscles, respiration, heart rate, etc.The innervation of skeletal muscle is a voluntary body movement and therefore controlled and coordinated by the Somatic Nervous System.All other options are involuntary processes and therefore controlled by the autonomous nervous system.For more information:
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List the three primary components of the axial skeleton.
Answer:
Three primary components of axial skeleton are skull, vertebral column and ribs.
Explanation:
Axial skeleton forms the central axis f the body. Three primary component of axial skeleton are:
Skull: Skull protects the brain and supports the face structure. Twenty two bones are present in the skull. Two main categories of skull bone are cranial bone and facial bone.
Vertebral column: Vertebral columns support and protects the spinal cord. The vertebral column serves as the attachment site for the muscles and neck.
Ribs cage: Ribs cage is also known as thoracic cage and includes the structure of sternum, ribs, coastal cartilage and thoracic cartilage. Ribs consists of twelve bones.
The axial skeleton, comprising the central structure of the body, consists of three primary components: the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage. These components serve to protect vital organs and establish a framework for various muscle attachments.
Explanation:The three primary components of the axial skeleton include the skull, the vertebral column, and the thoracic cage (also known as the rib cage). These components form the central axis of the body. The skull provides protection for the brain; the vertebral column contains and shields the spinal cord; and the thoracic cage safeguards the heart and lungs while also providing a structure for the attachment of muscles involved in breathing and maintaining posture.
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What region of the brain is considered the emotional brain
a. The limbic system
b. The amygdala
c. The cingulated gyrus
d. The insula
e. The hypothalamus
Answer:
The limbic system
Explanation:
Limbic system is also named as paleomammalian cortex. Limbic system is located on both sides of thalamus beneath the cerebrum temporal lobe.
The limbic system controls the different functions like behavior, long term memory and emotion. This system is also referred as emotional brain as it controls the emotional state of an organism.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a)
Answer:
The limbic system
Explanation:
The limbic system of the brain is considered the emotional brain.
Where does growth in length occur in a long bone?
Answer:
epiphyseal plate
Explanation:
in a long bone, growth in length occurs in the epiphyseal plate.
Growth in length of a long bone primarily occurs at the epiphyseal plate or growth plate. Here, new bone cells are produced to extend the length of the bone. As we mature, these plates ossify and growth in length ceases.
Explanation:Growth in length occurs primarily at a specific zone in a long bone called the epiphyseal plate, or growth plate. This is a layer of hyaline cartilage near the end of the bone where new bone cells are produced, contributing to the bone length.
As a person matures, these epiphyseal plates eventually ossify and the growth in length ceases. It's noteworthy to mention that, the long bones are particularly known for their distinct elongated shape and the important role they play in providing support and mobility to the body.
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In guinea pigs, a single gene with two alleles (B and b) determines coat color. Black (B) is dominant over white (b). A guinea pig from a true-breeding black strain is mated with a guinea pig from a true-breeding white strain. The F1 progeny are all black. Two of the F1 progeny are mated with each other. What proportion of the black F2 progeny is expected to be heterozygous?
If the connection between the hypothalamus and pituitary were severed, damaging the neurons, the secretion of which type of chemical messenger (signal) would most directly be affected?
a) chemokines
b) neurotransmitters
c) releasing hormone
d) tropic hormone
Answer:
Tropic hormones
Explanation:
The damage probably occurred at the infindibular stalk or the pituitary stalk that links the hypothalamus to the pituitary glands. If this were to happen, then there would be no communication between the two endocrine glands and the chemical signals affected will be tropic hormones. This is because the releasing hormones from the hypothalamus will not be able to reach the pituitary glands to stimulate the release of the secondary hormones. Tropic hormones are hormones which have other glands as their targets for example Adenocorticotropin Hormone (ACTH) that regulates how the steroid hormone cortisol is released by the adrenal glands. The picture below shows the pituitary stalk linking the hypothalamus to the pituitary glands.
Severing the connection between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland would directly affect the secretion of releasing hormones, impacting hormonal stimulation mechanisms.
If the connection between the hypothalamus and pituitary were severed, the secretion of releasing hormones would most directly be affected. The hypothalamus contains neurons that are responsible for secreting a variety of these hormones, such as Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), and Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), into the hypophyseal portal circulation.
This process then triggers the anterior pituitary gland to release its own hormones. Thus, if signaling and hormone release from the hypothalamus were blocked, the mechanism of hormonal stimulation would be affected.
Antagonistic control of efferent output is typical of the __________ division.
a. somatic
b. sensory
c. autonomic
d. A and B
e. A and C
Answer:
autonomic
Explanation:
Peripheral nervous system is divided into somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system .
Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are the divisions of autonomic nervous system. These divisions of autonomic nervous system works in antagonistic manner. Autonomic nervous system regulates the antagonistic control of the efferent output by the divisions of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Which type of epithelial tissue consists of a single row of flattened cells?
Answer:
Simple squamous epithelium
Explanation:
Simple squamous epithelium is the type of epithelial tissue that is made up of a single layer of cells. The cells are flat in shape. Each of the cells has a nucleus present in the center. The nucleus is also flattened or oval in shape. The function of simple squamous epithelium is to serve in filtration or diffusion as they are only one cell thick.
Why is heating a first step in PCR amplification of extracted DNA?
The enzyme DNA polymerase works at a higher temperature.
It permits hydrogen bonds between DNA strands to dissociate.
The nucleotides bind together at high heat.
It is required for primers to bind permanently to the DNA.
It is necessary for DNA strands to anneal to each other.
Answer:
Option). It permits hydrogen bonds between DNA strands to dissociate.
Explanation:
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) techniques can bed defined as a technique, which is used for in vitro amplification of sample DNA. It is made up of three steps, denaturation, primer annealing, and extension.
The first step in PCR is heating of sample DNA to denature the double stranded DNA by breaking hydrogen bonding present between bases of double stranded DNA.
Due to this, double strands of DNA get separated and provide templates for synthesis of daughter DNA strands.
Thus, the correct answer is second option.
How many bones are found in the cranium and the face?
Answer:
Cranium has eight bones.
Face has fourteen bones.
Explanation:
Facial skeleton comprises of fourteen bones namely –
a) Nasal conchae – two in numbers
b) Lacrimal bones – two in numbers
c) Vomer – one single bone
d) Maxilla – two in numbers
e) Nasal bones – two in numbers
f) Mandible – one single bone
g) zygomatic bones – two in numbers
h) Palatine bones – two in numbers
The cranium has eight bones in its structure namely –
a) Temporal bones – two in numbers
b) Sphenoid
c) Occipital
d) Ethmoid
e) frontal bone
f) Parietal bones – two in numbers
Answer:
The cranium has eight bones and the face has fourteen bones.
Explanation:
The head consists of the skull, face, scalp, teeth, brain, cranial nerves, meninges, special sense organs, and other structures such as blood vessels, lymphatics, and fat. It is also the place where food is eaten and air is inhaled and exhaled.
The bones of the head are divided into two parts: the cranium and the face skeleton (viscerocranium). The cranium provides the envelope for the brain and encephalic meninges, proximal parts of the cranial nerves and blood vessels. The Face Skeleton consists of bones that surround the mouth and nose and contribute to the orbits.
In total, the cranium has 8 bones. they are: Frontal (01), Occipital (01), Sphenoid (01), Ethmoid (01), Temporal (02), Parietal (02).
While the face has 14 bones. They are: Jaw (01), Vomer (01), Zygomatic (02), Maxilla (02), Palatine (02), Nasal (02), Lacrimal (02), Lower Nasal Shell (02).
Which of the following white blood cells represents around 4 percent of the total white lood cells and increase during an allergic reaction?
A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. eosinophils
D. basophils
Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:
Eosinophils can be defined as a type of white blood cell whose number increases in the blood when there is any infection in the body or at the time of any allergic reaction or even in case of cancer.
Presence of more than 500 eosinophils per mL of blood is normal in an adult but more than 1500 eosinophils per mL of blood shows infection and if lasts for several months then the condition will be hypereosinophils.
So, the correct answer is eosinophiles.
Compare and contrast the two kingdoms of prokaryotes
Answer:
The two kingdoms of prokaryotes are kingdom archaea and eubacteria. Eubacteria
Eubacteria are the disease causing bacteria. They are more complex than archaea bacteria and are found almost everywhere. They are important to the ecosystem because they help with decomposition of materials. The defining feature of archaea bateria is its living environment. They thrive in environments with EXTREME temperatures. They can live in very hot or very cold areas.
Originally, prokaryotes were classified only in kingdom monera but new discoveries and technology led to the split.
As a result of long term aerobic training the body tends to depend more on __________ as a substrate for metabolism
a. fat
b. carbohydrate
c. protein
d. there is no change in substrate
Answer:
Fat is a substrate on which our body depends during aerobic training for metabolism.
Explanation: Aerobic literally means "with oxygen", and refers to use of oxygen in muscles' energy generating process. In such exercise, Oxygen is used to "burn" fats and glucose in order to produce Adenosine triphosphate the basic energy carrier for all cells. Initially during aerobic exercise glycogen is broken down to produce glucose, but in its absence, fat metabolism is initiated instead. The more efficient your body becomes through exercise, the easier it is for your body to convert fat into fuel. Fat allows to sustain our workouts for a long duration to see weight loss, cardiovascular and stress-reducing exercise benefits
Answer:
As a result of long term aerobic training the body tends to depend more on __Fat__ as a substrate for metabolism.
Explanation:
Firstly, at the beginning of the training the body tends to depend on carbohydrates, because it's the easiest substrate to breakdown and give energy.Fats breakdown gives more energy but it takes more time to breakdown, it's not easy like carbohydrates In case of long term aerobic training, there will be no more carbohydrates to breakdown and the body tends to depend on fats to cover its need for energy.Learn more about:
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Keywords: Metabolism \ aerobic \ fat \ carbohydrate \ energy
3. A ribosome is cellular machinery that is located in the ____ and assembles ______.
nucleus; proteins during the process of transcription
cytoplasm; mRNA from the regulatory region of DNA
nucleus; DNA using a template
nucleus; mRNA from the regulatory region of DNA
cytoplasm; proteins from mRNA instructions
Answer:
cytoplasm; proteins from mRNA instructions
Explanation:
The ribosome is an organelle attached to the endoplasmic reticulum in the cytoplasm.
It is the ribosome that helps to make the proteins with the help of the instruction carried on the mRNA. The mRNA is transcribed from the DNA.
Thank you.
Cytoplasm, proteins from mRNA instructions
Further Explanation
Ribosome They are small granular structures involve in protein synthesis. Sometimes they are also called protein factories.
Structure of ribosome
Ribosomes are non-membranous in structure. They contains 37 to 62% of ribonucleic acid and remaining portion of proteins.
Location Of ribosome
They may be attached to Endoplasmic reticulum or disperse in the cytoplasm. Both animal and plant cells have ribosomes. Eukaryotic ribosome consist of 2 subunits larger subunit and smaller subunit which is 60s and 40s respectively
Function of ribosomes
They synthesize protein which is needed by many cellular functions for example respiration and in repairing.
Answer details
Subject: Biology
Difficulty Level: High school
Key words
Ribosomes
Structure of ribosomes
Location of ribosomes
Function of ribosomes
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The membrane surrounding a bone is the _________.
Answer:
endosteum
Explanation:
The membrane surrounding a bone is the endosteum.
The membrane surrounding a bone is the endosteum.
Which of the following salivary glands makes the enzyme salivary amylase?
(a) Submandibular
(b) Parotid
(c) Sublingual
(d) All of the above
Answer:
A. Submandibular
B. Parotid
Explanation:
The amylase is an enzyme that turns starch into sugars and is presented in the saliva of humans and other mammals. It begins the digestive process. Besides the salivary glands, the pancreas also produces it to help turn starch into sugar and convert that, with other enzymes, in glucose to supply the body with energy.
I hope this answer helps you.
How does the eye work?
Light passes through the cornea, aqueous humor and when it passes through the lens, it is converged. The light passes through the vitreous humor and focuses on the fovea region of the retina. The Retina has photopigment (cones and rods). They perceive light and convert it to electrical impulses that are carried by the optical never to the brain. The iris controls the amount of light that enters the eye.
Part of the quadriceps group of muscles
a. Rectus femoris
b. rectus abdominis
Answer:
A. Rectus femoris
Explanation:
Rectus femoris is one of the muscles of the Quadriceps femoris group which in turn makes the anterior and posterior thigh. The rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus medialis, and vastus lateralis together make the quads. Rectus femoris is the thigh muscle that originates from the ilium. It is an example of bipennate muscle and has central tendons. Fascicles are located on either side of the tendons.
A single muscle cell is called:
a. myofibril
b. sarcomere
c. muscle fiber
d. myofilament
A single muscle cell is known as a muscle fiber, which contains hundreds to thousands of myofibrils. The muscle fiber is encased in a plasma membrane called the sarcolemma and contains cytoplasm or sarcoplasm. Sarcomeres within myofibrils facilitate muscle contraction.
Explanation:A single muscle cell is called a muscle fiber. These are the individual cells that make up skeletal muscle tissue. Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a plasma membrane known as the sarcolemma, with a cytoplasm called the sarcoplasm. Muscle fibers are incredibly large cells, containing hundreds to thousands of myofibrils. Myofibrils are the long cylindrical structures that run parallel to the muscle fiber and give the muscle its striated appearance.
Within each muscle fiber, myofibrils are organized into units called sarcomeres, which is the smallest contractile portion of muscle tissue. The repeating units of sarcomeres along a myofibril are what lead to muscle contraction. Muscle fibers consist of myofilaments composed of the proteins actin and myosin organized in sarcomeres, allowing for the muscle contraction mechanism that is vital for movement.
Plsss HELPPPPP IS THIS RIGHT?!!?,, if not please help and out
Cells can be divided into 2 main categories. Eukaryotes(right side) and prokaryotes.
What are 5 facts about cells?The facts about cells.
Cells are too small to see without a microscope.
There are two main types of cells.
1 Prokaryote were the earliest and most basic forms of life on Earth.
2 There are more bacteria in the body than in human cells.
3 Cells contain DNA.
4 Cells contain structures called organelles which have specific roles.
What are the 4 types of cells?The four type of cells are :
1 Nerve cell.
2 Muscle cells.
3 Epithelial cells.
4 Blood cells.
5 Stem cells.
6 Fat cells.
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Most organs are composed of what?
Answer:
Organs are composed of main tissue, parenchyma, and "sporadic" tissues, stroma. The main tissue is that which is unique for the specific organ, such as the myocardium, the main tissue of the heart, while sporadic tissues include the nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissues.
Explanation:
How many different amino acids are responsible for making up the thousands of different proteins found in a cell?
3
15
thousands
4
20
Answer:
20 amino acids.
Explanation:
Amino acids are the monomers that combine together to form a protein. Two main types of amino acids are non- essential amino acids and essential amino acids.
Thousands of different proteins can be made by the simple 20 amino acids present in the cell. The amino acids can combine in different ways to form all the proteins present in the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (5).
True or False. Anaerobic glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria of the cell.
False
Explanation:
it occurs in cytoplasm