Explanation:
For people 7 years of age and older who have not been previously immunized against tetanus, WHO recommends a 3-dose primary vaccination series with tetanus-diphtheria containing vaccine followed by 3 booster doses, to be protected throughout life.
Answer:
The appropriate primary vaccination series is as follows:
First dose - week oneSecond dose - 4 - 8 weeks after the first doseThird dose - 6 - 12 months after the second doseEvery year in the United States, millions of pounds of herbicides, fungicides, and insecticides are applied to food crops. _____________________ make sure these products are safe for humans, other animals, and the environment.
Answer: Agricultural chemists
Explanation:Agricultural chemists make sure these products are safe for humans, other animals, and the environment. Engineers usually work with equipment used to apply the chemicals. Suppliers sell the chemicals that technicians apply. i got it right on USATESTPREP
Marlee has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). As the disease progresses, communication to some of her muscles may slow down, and she could lose some muscle control as a result of the degeneration of the ______
Answer:
Myelin sheath
Explanation:
Multiple sclerosis is a degenerative disease which is caused by the degeneration of the myelin sheath which forms a sheath around the neurons.
As a result of the degeneration of the myelin sheath which increases the speed of the transmission of the impulse, the transmission slows down and the communication of the body part with the brain slows down.
In the given question since the communication of the muscles to the body part has slowed down and muscles control might be lost therefore this is the result of the degeneration of the myelin sheath.
Thus, the Myelin sheath is the correct answer.
Multiple Sclerosis for Marlee will cause the degeneration of the myelin sheath, which will subsequently affect muscle control due to the slowing down of signal transmission from the brain.
Explanation:Marlee has been diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis (MS). MS is a progressive disease that affects the nervous system, specifically resulting in the degeneration of the myelin sheath. The myelin sheath is a protective layer that surrounds our nerve fibres and aids in the efficient transmission of electrical signals from the brain to different parts of the body, including muscles. When this layer degenerates, it slows down these signals, eventually leading to loss of muscle control.
In multiple sclerosis (MS), the degeneration of the myelin sheath occurs. The myelin sheath is a protective covering around nerve fibres in the central nervous system. As the disease progresses, the myelin sheath can become damaged, leading to impaired communication and loss of muscle control.
Learn more about Multiple Sclerosis here:https://brainly.com/question/32156124
#SPJ3
An be inferred from the passage that:_________ a. in an extinction event, there is a dramatic decrease in microbial life on earth. b. over 90% of easily observed, biologically complex species become extinct during a biotic crisis. c. the background extinction rate of animal and plant species is well below 50%. d. marine fossils are easier to find and thus more useful to those studying mass extinction events.
Answer:
C. the background extinction rate of animal and plant species is well below 50%.
Explanation:The Reading Comprehension themed ”An extinction event (also known as a mass extinction or biotic crisis)” was the reference source for the answer.
Option C is correct, it requires that one joins two pieces of information. The start of the 3rd paragraph we see that “the five major mass extinctions have significantly exceeded the background extinction rate” and we later saw that ”the rate of those mass extinctions is over 50%.” This brings one to submit that the background rate of extinction is altogether, below 50%.
The removal of a keystone species from a community usually results in:________ a. the death of all other community members. b. the disappearance of that community. c. substantial changes in the abundance of many species. d. minor changes, if any.
Answer: Option B (disappearance of that community)
Explanation:
Keynotes species are species of organisms that greatly affect the structure of its environment.
Keynotes species plays great role in ensuring the structure, checkmating the abundance and diversity of other species of an ecosystem.
In absence of keystone species, the ecosystem will be overpopulated above the carrying capacity (i.e the resources available for organisms in their ecosystem) will definitely leads to competition, disease outbreak, malnutrition etc.)
However, when the important primary producers of the ecosystem (Plants species) are wiped out due to overfeeding caused by abundance of herbivores that supposed to be checkmated by the keystone species. Hence, the extinction of plants will cause the extinction of other organisms in that community. Thus, the community will cease to exist.
The removal of a keystone species typically causes substantial changes in the abundance of many species within their ecosystem, by disrupting the balanced community structure and possibly leading to an extinction cascade; hence option c is correct
The removal of a keystone species from a community usually results in substantial changes in the abundance of many species. Keystone species play a disproportionately significant role relative to their abundance in maintaining the structure and health of their ecosystems. Examples include sea stars in coral reef communities, which, by preying on species such as mussels and sea urchins, prevent any single species from dominating and promote greater biodiversity. Similarly, the banded tetra provides essential nutrients to its ecosystem, and its loss can drastically alter community structure. The loss of such species can lead to an extinction cascade, severely affecting ecosystem composition and functioning.
When dark-colored fur gives mice a 1% competitive advantage and 1% of the population begins with dark fur, in about 1,000 years, 95% of the population will have dark fur. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Dark-colored rock pocket mice, in this population, have fewer offspring than light-colored rock pocket mice.
B. If dark-colored rock pocket mice had a competitive advantage of 0.1%, it would take more than 1,000 years for 95% of the population to have dark fur.
C. If dark-colored mice had a competitive advantage of 5%, it would take more than 1,000 years for 95% of the population to have black fur.
D. If dark-colored mice had a competitive advantage of 10%, it would take more than 1,000 years for 95% of the population to have black fur
Answer:
"If dark-colored rock pocket mice had a competitive advantage of 0.1%, it would take longer for 95% of the population to have dark fur." the statement is true
Explanation:
The greater effect of the crossing over is basically to spread the variation through the population. This is the basic difference even between sexual and non sexual mode of reproduction.The offspring produced might get get more variety when compared to the parent. From this the genetic recombination happens. This also often lead to the intrachromosomal mixing that takes place between the alleles and the homologous pair. This is the exchange of the chromosome segments among the non sister chromatids in meiosis.
If a dark-colored mouse has a competitive advantage of 0.1%, it would take more than 1,000 years for 95% of the population to have dark fur due to the process of natural selection.
Explanation:The correct statement related to the effect of a competitive advantage on the prevalence of dark-colored fur in a mouse population is statement B: If dark-colored rock pocket mice had a competitive advantage of 0.1%, it would take more than 1,000 years for 95% of the population to have dark fur. This is a question of natural selection, where a trait that confers a competitive advantage (in this case, dark-colored fur) spreads through a population over generations. The bigger the competitive advantage, the faster the trait spreads. For example, with a 1% advantage, it takes around 1,000 years for the population to predominantly acquire the trait. Therefore, it stands to reason that if the advantage were reduced to 0.1%, the spreading process would take correspondingly longer.
Learn more about Natural Selection here:https://brainly.com/question/32227158
#SPJ3
The class of disorders marked by extreme and inflexible characteristics that often cause impaired social and occupational functioning are referred to as _____ disorders.
Answer:
Personality.
Explanation:
The mental disorders affects the thinking ability of the individual. The mental disorder individual shows abnormal behavior in the society and might feel anxiety or feel awkward among the people.
The personality disorder is a type of the mental disorder in which the individual have unhealthy thinking level. This disorder affects the social status and his personality in the society. The occupational functioning become improper and requires the proper medical treatment.
Thus, the answer is personality.
At what point do you feel it is necessary for environmentalists to get involved in creating man-made problems with natural ecological succession?
Answer: Ecosystem degradation
Definition of terminologies:
1. Natural ecological succession is the gradual change in the species composition and diversity in the ecosystem and the development of ecosystem over a period of time, resulting to stable community.
2. Ecosystem refers to group of plants, animals and other living components functioning in their non-living environment.
3. Ecosystem degradation refers to the depletion of resources in the ecosystem
Explanation:
When there is ecosystem degradation, it is necessary for environmentalists to get involved in creating man-made problems with natural ecological succession and this process is called ecological restoration.
Environmentalists creates man-made problems to either accelerate or reverse the change in the ecosystem.
Degradation comes in different ways (e.g increased soil erosion/flooding, disease outbreak,deforestation, pollution of the ecosystem etc.) and are greatly influenced by climate change.
Environmentalists curb the menace by:
1. Introducing resistant species against disease outbreak;
2. Improved ecosystem service;
3. Buffer zone establishment to resist pollution in any form.
Illness characterized by headache, nausea, vomiting, dyspnea, and insomnia. It typically begins 6 to 96 h after one reaches high altitude and lasts several days.
Answer: Acute Mountain Sickness or Altitude sickness.
Explanation:
Acute Mountain sickness results from the inability to adjust to the lowered oxygen pressure of high altitudes. The best thing to do when experiencing symptoms is to descend to lower altitudes and receive oxygen.
. Complete the below sentences using: catalyst, intolerance, lactose, chemical reaction, reused, lactase
The enzyme ??? breaks down the sugar ???.
If the body doesn’t produce much of this enzyme, people have what’s called lactose ???.
During the ???? the enzyme doesn’t get used up, but gets ???
Enzymes are substances that speed up chemical reactions which are also known as ???
Answer:
The sentences can be completed as follows:
The enzyme lactase breaks down the sugar lactose.
If the body doesn’t produce much of this enzyme, people have what’s called lactose intolerance.
During the chemical reaction the enzyme doesn’t get used up, but gets reused.
Enzymes are substances that speed up chemical reactions which are also known as catalysts.
Explanation:
Enzymes can be described as molecules which act as biological catalysts i.e they are involved in speeding up a chemical reaction. The enzymes do not get used up in a chemical reaction and hence, they can be reused.
Lactase is an enzyme which helps in breaking down the sugar lactose which is commonly found in the milk. If enough lactase is not produced by a person's body, then he/she becomes unable to digest the sugar lactose. Such a condition is known as lactose intolerance.
Turbidity is a term used to describe water clarity, or how clear water is. Cloudy water is said to be turbid. Turbid water may be a result of a buildup of sediments, which are pieces of rocks that have been broken down and eroded or transported by surface runoff. Human activities that remove plants in an area may increase erosion.
Sediments can get into the gills of fish, which can then decrease their growth and delay development. Sediments prevent sunlight from reaching the producers of the aquatic ecosystem, such as algae. This in turn affects the food webs in this ecosystem.
Which human activities would most likely increase turbidity? Check all that apply.
cutting down trees
building roads in mountains
constructing buildings
planting gardens in vacant lots
removing sediments from sidewalks using water
Cutting down trees, building roads in mountains, constructing buildings and removing sediments from sidewalks using water does donate to increase the turbidity of water.
Explanation:Turbidity of water is formed due to a suspension formation of water and the dust and dirt along with several insoluble particles. This turbidity is actually formed in nature due to erosion by water or wind which gets deposited in water. Removing trees or construction of road leads to loosening of ground soil which is easily washed away by water. Construction of buildings also results in cutting of trees. The washing of sediments with water also increases the chance of turbidity of water.
Answer:
A,B,C,E
Explanation:
I did it myself. Have a great day/night. <3
Educating the public about the causes of earthquakes and their potential hazards may help to alleviate death and destruction should an earthquake occur, but a country also needs _____ to help prepare for the likelihood of such an event
Answer:
Funds.
Explanation:
Natural disaster may be defined as any harmful event that might occur due to the natural phenomena. The natural disaster might include flood, earthquake, cyclone and volcanoes.
These natural disaster affects the living life as well the public properties. The countries might suffer from the huge financial loss due to these natural disaster. This the duty of the government and the individual to prepare themselves in the disaster and the country must provide funds for the preparation of these disaster.
Thus, the answer is funds.
Plant growth is affected by environmental factors such as gravity. If a seed is allowed to sprout and grow while it is turned sideways, which will most likely occur?
If a seed is allowed to sprout and grow while it is turned sideways, roots will grow downward, stems will grow upward.
TROPISM:
Tropism refers to the movement of an organism or part of an organism in response to stimuli. Tropism can either be negative or positive. Positive tropism refers to movement in the direction of the stimulus while negative tropism refers to movement away from the direction of the stimulus. In a plant, the stems are known to respond away from gravity i.e. they are negatively geotropic while the roots grow in the direction of gravity i.e. positively geotropic. Therefore, If a seed is allowed to sprout and grow while it is turned sideways, roots will grow downward, stems will grow upward.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/18937505?referrer=searchResults
Biologists will use molecular biology to see how closely related a species is to another type of species. In molecular biology, they compare the sequences of genes (homologous or orthologous genes) found in different species. For instance, humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees all have a gene that encodes the hormone insulin. What can one infer about these species sharing the same insulin gene?
The shared insulin gene among different species like humans and chimpanzees suggests these species have evolved from a common ancestor. The concept of phylogenetic systematics and the comparison of genetic sequences helps biologists understand the evolutionary relationships and history of diverse organisms.
When different species such as humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees share a gene that encodes the hormone insulin, it can be inferred that these species have a common ancestor. This is supported by the concept of phylogenetic systematics, which uses shared genetic sequences to construct phylogenetic trees. Homologous or orthologous genes, like the insulin gene, indicate that these species diverged from a shared lineage at some point in evolutionary history.
Biologists use molecular biology to compare the sequences of such genes to determine evolutionary relationships. The shared insulin gene implies that despite the significant evolutionary time that may have passed and the diverse forms these animals have taken, they retain this genetic legacy. Aligning the sequences of these shared genes allows scientists to understand not only the function of these genes but also the evolutionary paths that have led to their current diversity.
It is intriguing to note that a high degree of genetic similarity is found even across vastly different species, suggesting a deep evolutionary connection. For instance, 99% of the genes in humans and mice are orthologous, and 50% of our genes are orthologous with those of yeast, illuminating the long-term history of life on Earth.
The shared insulin gene among humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees indicates a common ancestry, conserved functional roles, and evolutionary relationships, which can be illustrated using phylogenetic trees.
Molecular Biology and Shared Insulin Gene
When biologists find that humans, cows, chickens, and chimpanzees all have a gene that encodes the hormone insulin, several inferences can be drawn:
Common Ancestry: The presence of the same insulin gene in different species suggests that these species share a common ancestor.Evolutionary Relationships: The sequences of the insulin genes are likely to show similarities, indicating the evolutionary relationship and lineage of these species.Conservation of Function: Since insulin is vital for regulating blood sugar levels, natural selection has conserved the insulin gene across different species due to its essential role in metabolism.Phylogenetic Trees: Scientists can use the sequences of these homologous genes to construct phylogenetic trees, which help illustrate the evolutionary history and divergence of these species over time.In science, when a hypothesis or group of hypotheses supported by repeated experimental evidence holds true through time, it can be developed into a ________. A. It is not a guess. B. It is not static. C. It is tentative and dynamic and can be adjusted when new, compelling evidence is discovered. D. It is typically an overarching explanation that best fits all of the available information or evidence.
Answer:
In science, when a hypothesis or group of hypotheses supported by repeated experimental evidence holds true through time, it can be developed into a _THEORY
In science, a hypothesis or a group of hypotheses that have been supported by repeated experimental evidence over time can be formed into a theory. This theory, a dynamic explanation, is subject to revisions based on new evidence.
Explanation:In the field of science, when a hypothesis or group of hypotheses garner significant support from repeated experimental evidence and withstand scrutiny over time, they can be developed into a theory. This term 'theory' must not be confused with 'guess' or 'assumption'; it is an informed, plausible, and testable statement or group of statements linked together that have been confirmed via consistent, cross-validated evidence. A theory is not static; it is fluid and dynamic, subject to revisions or adjustments when new, compelling evidence is discovered. Therefore, it's considered an overarching explanation that best fits all the available information or evidence collected from numerous research and experiments.
Learn more about Theory here:https://brainly.com/question/31772968
#SPJ3
Which statement, made by a client diagnosed with an anxiety disorder, should trigger the nurse's concern about the client's understanding of the use of defense mechanisms?
Answer:
The correct answer is "When I have a problem, I just deny it until it goes away."
Explanation:
A client suffering from an anxiety disorder tend to not deal with the problems in a healthy way, which will often results in having additional problems. A client stating that "When I have a problem, I just deny it until it goes away" should trigger the nurse's concern about the client's understanding of the use of defense mechanisms. A client with an anxiety disorder will often deny her or his problems in an attempt to avoid feeling more anxiety, however that defense mechanism is not a healthy reaction and should be avoided as much as possible.
In the 1990s, epidemiologic studies established that women could reduce their risk of bearing a child with neural tube birth defects by increasing their intake of ______.a) vitamin Bb) vitamin Cc) ascorbic acidd) folic acid
Answer:
d) folic acid
Explanation:
Neural tube defects (NTD) are birth defects that occur in some specialized regions such as the brain and spinal cord. They are considered and bethink as a complex disorder because they are caused by combination of environmental and multiple genetic factors. Environmental factors include low folic acid intake, maternal use of certain anticonvulsant medications. etc. On the other hand multiple genetic factors can include spina bifida (an phenomena whereby there is incomplete closing of the spine and membranes surrouning the spinal cord at the initial stage of development of fetus in pregnancy.
During pregnancy, folate requirements increase due to the result of rapidly dividing cells related to fetal growth. It is of great advantage that pregnant woman should increase their folic acid supplements intake to (400-800μg daily) prior to conception, this can help and assist to reduce the risk for neural tube defects in the fetus.
The concept of __________ means that because of their genetic makeup, individuals differ in their responsiveness to qualities of the environment.
Answer: Behavioral genetics
Explanation: This concept indicates that our genes influence our environment and in return, the environment influences our genes. Behavioural genetics has therefore expressed gene-environment interactions on the behaviour of an individual.
The concept of the range of reaction means that because of their genetic makeup, individuals differ in their responsiveness to qualities of the environment.
Range of reaction is a concept that explains how genetic and environmental factors interact to shape an individual's development. According to this concept, our genes set the boundaries or limits within which we can develop and perform, while the environment determines where within those boundaries we will fall. This means that even though two people might have similar genetic potentials, their actual abilities and behaviors can differ based on their environmental experiences.
For example, if a person has a genetic predisposition for high intellectual potential but is raised in an environment that lacks educational resources or stimulation, they might not reach their full cognitive potential. Conversely, if the same person is raised in a rich and stimulating environment, they are more likely to achieve their highest potential.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who suffered full-thickness burns. Which statement by the client demonstrates a need for further instruction on the rehabilitation phase of a burn injury?
1. "I should avoid using lotion to prevent infection."
2. "I should perform range-of-motion exercises daily."
3. "I will avoid direct sun exposure for at least 3 months."
4. "I will wear pressure garments to minimize scars."
Answer:
Option (1).
Explanation:
Burns are categorized into the different stages. The full thickness burns is also known as third stage burns that affect the skin badly and require the emergency hospitalization.
The oil layer can be applied on the loose burn area but lotion should be avoided on the severe burns as they cause different allergic reactions and may worse the burn skin. The sun exposure may excessive burns and exercise should be done for the motion of the burn part. The individuals should wear the tight clothes that can minimize the scars on the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Answer:
The correct answer is - option 1.
Explanation:
The nurse needs to demonstrate to provide instruction and rehabilitation phase of burn injury as the regarding to the prevention of infection, and exposure to make it severe by exposing or pressurizing the scars and many more. The correct statement would be the first statement as it helps to prevent the infection by touching the burn injury.
Thus, the correct answer is - option 1.
In an experiment with an enzyme, the 58th amino acid seems to form a covalent bond with a substrate molecule as part of the catalytic process. What would you say?
Answer:
At some point the bond between the amino acid and the substrate must break.
Explanation:
Enzymes are the biocatalyst that can increase the speed of the biochemical reactions of the living organisms. All enzymes are made of proteins except ribozymes.
During the catalytic process, the enzymes can form covalent modification. This is only possible when the bonds between the substrate and amino acid is broken. This breaking and formation of bond is important so that enzyme can makes the substrate free and the steps can be repeated again.
A boy has blood type MN with a genotype of LMLN. His red blood cells possess both the M antigen and the N antigen. What is the relationship between his two alleles for this gene?
Answer:
Co-dominance
Explanation:
Co-dominance is a genetic phenomenon where two versions of a gene called alleles are neither recessive nor dominant to one another. Hence, the phenotypic expressions encoded by both alleles are expressed simultaneously.
In this case of the MN blood system, the boy has a LMLN genotype and expresses both genes M and N in his red blood cells. Hence, alleles M and N are said to be codominant to one another i.e. M is not dominant or recessive to N and vice versa.
In the third stage of birth, the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are expelled from the uterus. This stage of birth is called the _________
Answer:
The "Afterbirth" stage.
Explanation:
The third stage of birth, where the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are expelled, is called the afterbirth. It follows the expulsion of the baby and concludes the childbirth process.
In the third stage of birth, the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are expelled from the uterus. This stage of birth is called the afterbirth. It follows the second stage of labor, where contractions are very strong and, with the mother's effort, expel the baby from the uterus.
During the afterbirth phase, the placenta, amniotic sac, and the remnants of the umbilical cord, which were vital for providing nutrients and oxygen to the baby while in the uterus, are delivered. This usually happens within a few minutes after the baby is born. The completion of the third stage marks the end of the childbirth process.
Suppose that you conduct an experiment in which you test whether the fertilization envelope forms and polyspermy occurs under the following conditions: Control group: An unfertilized sea urchin egg is left untreated (no Ca2 channel blockers added). Then sperm are added. Experimental group: Ca2 channel blockers are added to an unfertilized sea urchin egg. Then sperm are added.
Answer:
Here is the full question on the experiment:
Experimental prediction: The effect of Ca2+ channel blockers on formation of the fertilization envelope
The role of Ca2+ ions in the formation of the fertilization envelope and blocking polyspermy can be further studied using Ca2+ channel blockers. As their name suggests, Ca2+ channel blockers block the movement of Ca2+ ions through channels. In the case of gated Ca2+ channels, the channel blockers prevent the channels from opening even if the signal to open is present.
Suppose that you conduct an experiment in which you test whether the fertilization envelope forms and polyspermy occurs under the following conditions:
Control group: An unfertilized sea urchin egg is left untreated (no Ca2+ channel blockers added). Then sperm are added.
Experimental group: Ca2+ channel blockers are added to an unfertilized sea urchin egg. Then sperm are added.
Drag the labels (yes or no) to predict whether or not the following events can occur under control conditions and experimental conditions.
Explanation:
The sea urchin fertilization envelope (FE) is formed following initial sperm-egg interaction from the egg surface vitelline envelope (VE) and the paracrystalline protein fraction (PCF), derived from cortical granules.
Polyspermy is the fertilization of an egg by more than one sperm, and the results of such unions are lethal. If multiple sperm fertilize an egg, the embryo inherits multiple paternal centrioles. After successful fertilization of the egg cell, a block to polyspermy has to be established to avoid sterility effects associated with lethal genome imbalance and chromosome segregation defects during zygote and embryo development.
CONDITION 1
When no Ca2+ channel blocker is added:
Can fusion of sperm and egg occur? YES
Can the cytoplasmic Ca2+ concentration increase in response to the fusion of sperm and egg? YES
Can the fertilization envelope form? YES
Can polyspermy occur? NO
CONDITION 2
When a Ca2+ channel blocker is added:
Can fusion of sperm and egg occure? YES
Can the cytoplasmic Ca2+ concentration increase in response to the fusion of sperm and egg? NO
Can the fertilization envelope form? NO
Can polyspermy occur? YES
The Griffith experiment showed that certain strains of Streptococcus bacteria could transform from one strain to another when combined. How did the Avery-MacLeod-McCarty experiment expand on Frederick Griffith's observations
Answer:
The options
A. It suggested that DNA is the
"transforming principle."
B. It confirmed that DNA is a double helix composed of two antiparallel strands.
C. It demonstrated that DNA consists of four nucleotides where the proportions of adenine/thymine and cytosine/guanine remain constant.
D. It proved that DNA is
semiconservative replication.
The CORRECT ANSWER IS A.
A. It suggested that DNA is the
"transforming principle."
Explanation:
A. It suggested that DNA is the
"transforming principle."✔
Griffith's experiments proved
that transformation can be seen in
pneumococcus, but gave no proof based on what molecular background the transformation was
WHILE, the Avery MacLeod-McCarty experiments proved that DNA was THE TRANSFORMING PRINCIPLE.
B. It confirmed that DNA is a double helix composed of two antiparallel strands.❌
These findings were established by James Watson, Francis Crick, Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
C. It demonstrated that DNA consists of four nucleotides where the proportions of adenine/thymine and cytosine/guanine remain constant.❌
The findings was established by Erwin Chargaff.
D. It proved that DNA is semiconservative replication.❌
The findings was established by Matt Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
The Avery-MacLeod-McCarty experiment expanded on the Griffith experiment by identifying that DNA was the transforming factor which allowed one strain of bacteria to transform become another.
Explanation:The Avery-MacLeod-McCarty experiment expanded on the observations made in the Griffith experiment by identifying the specific substance that enabled the transformation of one strain of bacteria into another. In Griffith's initial experiments, he theorized the existence of a transforming factor but was unable to define what it was exactly. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty, however, were able to demonstrate that this transforming factor was DNA. They did this by isolating the different components of the heat-killed bacteria strain involved in Griffith's experiment and individually exposed them to the living non-virulent strain. Only when DNA was introduced did transformation occur, pointing to DNA as the genetic material responsible for this change in characteristics.
Learn more about Avery-MacLeod-McCarty experiment here:https://brainly.com/question/37587163
#SPJ3
Which biome has no large trees because much of the soil is frozen? A. chaparral B. desert C. savanna D. tundra
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Tundra
Explanation:
Fatter sociable weaver birds spend more time foraging where they are vulnerable to predation, are more attractive to predators, and are less likely to escape an attack. Conversely, thin birds risk starvation. Therefore, sociable weaver of an intermediate weight have a selective advantage. This is an example of ____ selection.a. frequent
b. directional
c. disruptive
d. stabilizing
e. mutational
Answer:
d. stabilizing
Explanation:
When the intermediate phenotypes have a better survival fitness and are better adapted to the prevailing conditions, natural selection favors them. Over the generations, the organisms having the intermediate phenotype reproduce more and leave more progeny. In this way, the proportion of the intermediate phenotype in the population is increased over time. This process is called stabilizing selection.
In the given example, the sociable weavers with intermediate body-weight have a selective advantage as they easily escape predators with their relatively light body and can withstand the starvation. Therefore, natural selection increases their proportion over generations. This represents an example of stabilizing selection.
Sociable weaver birds of an intermediate weight being favored is an example of stabilizing selection. This type of selection favors the average phenotypes and reduces genetic variance by selecting against extreme traits, thus maintaining the status quo of the population.
Explanation:Fatter sociable weaver birds spend more time foraging where they are vulnerable to predation and are more attractive to predators, making them less likely to escape an attack. On the flip side, thin birds risk starvation. Thus, sociable weaver birds of an intermediate weight hold a selective advantage. This scenario is an illustration of stabilizing selection, where natural selection favors the intermediate phenotypes and selects against the extremes. This mechanism tends to maintain the status quo and reduces genetic variance within the population by favoring those individuals whose traits are more average.
Similarly, in human infants, very high or very low birth weights are associated with greater risks, promoting an intermediate, optimal weight through stabilizing selection. Contrastingly, in the case of the peppered moth during the Industrial Revolution, the environment changed, resulting in directional selection. The darker moths were favored because they blended in with the soot-covered environment, increasing their survival rate and changing the population's phenotype over time.
A human forearm, horse’s front leg, bat’s wing, and porpoise’s flipper have similar bone structure. What conclusions can we draw from the similarities in bone structure between these mammals?
1. Since each limb is used for different functions, these species must be unrelated evolutionarily.
2. Since each limb has a different shape, these species must be related evolutionarily.
3. Since each limb shares the same type of bone structure but performs different functions, these structures are the product of adaptive evolution.
4. Since each limb shares the same type of bone structure but performs different functions, these species cannot possibly be related evolutionarily.
Answer:
3. Since each limb shares the same type of bone structure but performs different functions, these structures are the product of adaptive evolution.
Explanation:
Homologous structure can be an organ or bone with similar anatomical features found in different animals. This similar anatomical features found in different animals can serve as an evidence of evolution, though this anatomical features or structures may appear similar, they may not function the same.
Answer:
A. These limbs are homologous structure
Explanation: It is because the bone has the same structure but different type of limbs because it can be different type of species... so yes hope that was very helpful I got it right on my test so yeah
When conducting an experiment, it is generally necessary to include __________ groups that are treated exactly the same as treatment groups except for the condition being tested.A. ControlB. VariableC. A maximum of fiveD. Experimental
Answer:
A. Control
Explanation:
In any scientific experiment, there are usually two groups under study that are similar to each other except that one receives a treatment or is being manipulated while the other is not. We have the treatment groups and the control groups.
The treatment group is the group that receives a treatment or condition that is being manipulated, while the control group is the group that does not receive the treatment or condition being manipulated. The control group serves as a baseline that enable you to ascertain the effect a treatment being tested has.
The nursing instructor is teaching the students the basics of the labor and delivery process. The instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly choose which action will best help to prevent infections in their clients?A. Thoroughly wash the hands before and after client contact.B. Replace soiled drapes and linen as needed.C. Clean the woman's perineum with a Betadine scrub.D. Strictly follow universal precautions.
Answer:
A. Thoroughly wash the hands before and after client contact
Explanation:
There are several important techniques that are to be kept in mind to prevent spread of infection during labor and delivery process as this ensures the safety of the child, the mother as well as the healthcare professionals.In a healthcare setting, thorough washing of hands on a routine basis is very important as it acts to control the spread of infection. Keeping the area clean is also important however, this becomes secondary, the primary importance should be given to washing hands before and after the client contact. Once the students choose this action to prevent infections to clients this would indicated the success of the training.Which of the following is NOT one of the roles of the President of the United States?
A. head of state
B. chief executive
C. speaker of the House
D. commander in chief of armed forces
Answer:
c.speaker of the house
Explanation:
all those 3 fall under his roles but even if he's in legislative he just chooses ambassadors...
Answer:
C is correct
Explanation:
the nurse completes dietary teaching with a client who has chronic kidney failure. the nurse determines more teaching is needed when the client makes which statement?
Answer:
The options
"I will eat more oranges and other foods with vitamin C."
"I should increase dairy products in my diet."
"I should add protein powder to my fruit smoothies."
The CORRECT ANSWER IS
"I will eat more oranges and other foods with vitamin C."
Explanation:
"I will eat more oranges and other foods with vitamin C."
Citrus fruits are rich in potassium and should be stayed away from, since kidneys find it difficult to remove the excess potassium. Examples of foods that are rich in potassium are dried fruits, avocado, tomato, potatoes, and bananas. This statement indicates that additional teaching is needed.
In kidney failure, the client stands a higer chance for hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, and hyperphosphatemia.
Potassium, is found in large amounts in citrus fruits and dried fruits, and there's need to take these fruits with caution.
Phosphorus is limited due to the important balance of potassium electrolyte with calcium. Protein is inhibited as the failure to remove uric acid, which is produced during protein metabolism, via the kidneys. Sodium, obtained in foods, is also restrained to avoid fluid overload and edema.