Answer: Reduced his self-awareness
Explanation:
Reduction in self awareness occurred when an individual is slightly or mostly unaware of the happenings around them. This could be as a result of medical condition or a stimulant that affects their reasoning, they could return to normal after being relieved of the effect as it's mostly a temporary issue. Akiva could care less about the way he treated his family due to the effect of alcohol he took, this affected his system greatly and reduced his self awareness.
Children are not "naturally" prejudiced. Prejudice and discrimination are reinforced when relatives and friends reward children with smiles and laughs for telling derogatory jokes or making negative comments about outgroup members. This is the basic framework of the __________
Answer: Fundamental principle
Explanation:
In this they are coached appropriately from knowing what to avoid, how to avoid and when to avoid.
3. Obtaining goods by false pretenses is a form of theft that involves . If you know that a friend has given you stolen goods, you will be guilty of . The willful burning of a building is the crime of .
Answer: Trickery, receiving and arson
Explanation:
Obtaining goods by false pretenses is a form of theft that involves trickery. If you know that a friend has given you stolen goods, you will be guilty of receiving . The willful burning of a building is the crime of arson.
A banker opts for short-term gain despite indications that his decision might not pay off in the long run. Which error or bias is the banker guilty of?
Answer:
The banker is guilty of bias or error called Immediate Gratification
Explanation:
Immediate Gratification is a term that describes the urge or want of individual to get result instantly without delay. In other words, it is the propensity to seek for immediate but little gains or profits, as against delayed gratification which can yield better or more gains or profit.
In this case, the banker, wants short term gain, because he seeks for immediate gratification, despite indication showing that such decision might not pay off.
An incomplete repeated measures design experiment was done to test people's ability to solve problems that varied in difficulty at three levels (easy, moderate, and hard). The researcher used all possible orders to balance practice effects. Results indicated that performance on the hard problems was better when they were preceded by a moderate difficulty problem than when they were preceded by an easy problem. Which of the following is a possible explanation of this finding?
A. negative transfer
B. differential transfer
C. progressive error
D. nonlinear practice effects
Answer:
Differential transfer
Explanation:
At an art center in Minneapolis, you can see an American flag with stripes of green and black and black stars on a yellow ground. When you stare at this flag, and then look away, the afterimage is the familiar American stars and stripes in red, white and blue. This complementary afterimage is consistent with which of the following theories of color?a. subtractive color mixing.
b. opponent process theory of color vision.
c. additive color mixing.
d. trichromatic theory of color vision.
Answer:
b. opponent process theory of color vision.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that this complementary afterimage is consistent with the opponent-process theory. This theory states that the cone photoreceptors are linked together, and by being linked they form three seperate color pairs in which the activation of one causes the other pairs to be activated. These pairs are blue/yellow, red/green, and black/white.
Thomas Jefferson sent a naval squadron to the Mediterranean Sea to protect American merchant ships from Barbary pirates without waiting for congressional approval. This is an example of the:_____________
1. doctrine of executive prerogative.
2. preservation clause.
3. right of exception.
4. supremacy clause.
5. writ of habeas corpus.
Answer: A. Doctrine of executive prerogative.
Explanation: Doctrine of executive prerogative is the right afforded to the president of the United States by the constitution to act on his own. The doctrine of executive prerogative gives the executive power to the United States president to make certain policies or take certain decisions without congressional support or opinion. These decisions are usually attributed of issues of war or national emergency.
In the scenario above, the deployment of the the naval squadron to the Mediterranean sea to protect American merchant ship from barbary pirates by Thomas Jefferson without waiting for congressional approval exemplifies the doctrine of executive prerogative afforded to the president of the United States as it signifies an emergency issue required to safeguard the lives of the United States citizens
1. Define: popular sovereignty, limited govern- ment, rule of law, separation of powers, checks and balances, judicial review, unconstitutional, federalism 2. What two factors led the Framers to create a federal system of government
Answer:
Popular Sovereignty is a belief that the authority of its government are formed and maintained by people's support through their representatives.
Limited government: This is type of government that is empowered and restricted by law
Rule of law: This is a well-defined and established laws that restrict people and institutions and fairly applied and enforced
separation of power: A situation in which the three arms of government are kept separate.
checks and balances: A situation where each branch of government is empowered prevented from other branch's actions
Judicial review: This is the power given to a court to decide whether government decision or law is constitutional.
Unconstitutional : An action which violate the authority and rights stated in the constitution.
Federalism: This is type of government in which power is divided between national and state and local government.
2. Threat to liberty and Abuse
Explanation:
All these are very important to know in government and adhered to as a citizen.
popular sovereighty where authority is formed and maintained by people's surport through their represeentatives. Limited power, power is given but restricted by constitution. Rule of law is very important for fairness, everybody is accountable by law. In separation of power, Federal, state and local government are kept separate and check and balance applied here.
In judicial review, government are being cautioned by judicial who decide whether the action taken is constitutional and when an action parformed is not in the written constitution, then it is unconstituonal.
Threat to individual liberty and abuse of power led to creation of federal system of goverment.
Which of the following is not required for the articles of incorporation? a. names of incorporators b. capital stock structure c. names of board members d. All of the above are required.
Option C
names of board members is not required for the articles of incorporation
Explanation:An Articles of Incorporation form is practiced by one or more people who begin a business. It documents the creation of the business as thoroughly as the guidelines by which the company will be accomplished.
Full Name of Corporation, Principal Place of Business, Enrolled Agent, Business Purpose, Stock, Incorporator, period, Active Date is remarkable essential things to be present in the Articles of Incorporation. Filing Articles of Incorporation deducts your business to take benefit of the corporate tax and legal gains of the state where you consolidate.
In the Articles of Incorporation, names of the board members are usually not required. Instead, this information can often be found in the company's bylaws.
Explanation:The Articles of Incorporation is a document required to legally establish a company. These typically include pertinent information such as the company's name, address, and the nature of the business. In the given options, the names of incorporators and capital stock structure are usually required. However, the names of the board members are not typically required in the Articles of Incorporation as these can change over time and can be outlined in the company's bylaws instead.
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Counselor Karen is communicating negative assessment results to Jill that are potentially damaging to Jill’s self-concept. What might Karen need to do in this situation?
Answer:
Karen should work with Jill on extending her level of acceptance prior to feedback session.
Prior to the session, Karen should tell Jill to expand his level of acceptance and consider the negative assessment with a positive approach. Karen shall explain to her that expanding the level of acceptance helps us to feel better and bring positive changes in ourselves. To view the positive changes, it is necessary the we first recognize the negativity with a higher level of acceptance.
Final answer:
Counselor Karen should communicate negative assessment results in a constructive manner, using empathy, supportive feedback, and positive reinforcement, while offering advice and resources for improvement.
Explanation:
When Counselor Karen is faced with the challenge of communicating negative assessment results to Jill that might affect her self-concept, she should take a sensitive approach that minimizes damage. Karen should ensure that her communication is constructive.
This involves being empathetic, offering supportive feedback, and delivering the news in a way that separates Jill's character or personality from the negative assessment. It's also critical for Karen to engage in perception checking to understand Jill's feelings and reactions.
Karen may also use self-affirmation techniques to help Jill focus on her strengths and positive qualities, thus preventing a negative cycle of thinking. Providing positive feedback alongside the negative is crucial, as it can bolster Jill's self-esteem and make her more receptive to growth opportunities.
Lastly, Karen should offer practical advice or resources to help Jill improve, showing her path forward.
Nita is the office manager at a service station. Two applicants, Max and Tim, arrive to interview for the open mechanic's position. Max's clothes are dirty, his hair is unwashed, and he doesn't make eye contact when he gives Nita his name. Tim dresses in clean jeans and a nice shirt, is shaved, and shakes Nita's hand when he introduces himself. After the interview, Keith the head mechanic, asks Nita what she thought. Both men have the skill set needed for the position. Nita recommends Tim. She is responding to her perception of:______.A) the perceiverB) the targetC) her cultureD) diversity
Answer: B) The target
Explanation:
Perception of target is defined as realization and recognization of the aim through opting the appropriate and suitable choice.This perception approaches towards something through analyzation.
According to question, Nita is responding as per perception of target in which she analyzed traits of Tim and Max.On basis of realization of suitable candidate for open mechanic position, she opted Tim as targeted candidate.
Other options are incorrect because culture, diversity and perceive are not the factors that are recognized by Nita in the interviewees.Thus,the correct option is option(B).
Barbara Reskin and Patricia Roos argue that changes in a job’s________ , pay, and ___________ level lead to changes in the_________ composition.
Answer:
autonomy
skill
gender
Explanation: Barbara Reskin and Patricia Roos argue that changes in a job’s autonomy pay, and skill level lead to changes in the gender composition.
Autonomy in the workplace refers to how much freedom employees have while working. For some organizations, autonomy means employees are allowed to set their own schedules and Skills are the expertise or talent needed in order to do a job or task. Job skills allow you to do a particular job gender composition refers to the proportion of female to male in a particular place.
If, in midsentence, your friend suddenly slumps over on the couch and appears to have entered the REM stage of sleep, which of the following is the BEST explanation for your friend's behavior?
a. Your friend did not get enough sleep last night and should go to bed.
b. Your friend suffers from epilepsy and just had a seizure.
c. Your friend suffers from narcolepsy and should seek medical attention.
d. You are boring and should take a class in social speaking skills.
The correct answer is letter C
Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive sleepiness during the day, even when the person slept well at night. Sleep attacks can occur at any time and in unusual situations: standing on a bus, during a medical consultation, driving the car, or operating machines, for example.
Normal sleep begins with turning off muscle control. In this phase, it is a sleep of slow waves. About an hour and a half later, the person enters the REM sleep phase, in which the brain activity is intense and the eyes move. People with narcolepsy skip the slow wave sleep stage and suddenly go straight to REM sleep.
Scientist: In an experiment, dogs had access to a handle they could pull to release food into a nearby enclosure that contained a familiar dog and nothing else, contained an unfamiliar dog and nothing else, or was empty. The dogs typically released more food to the familiar dog than to the unfamiliar dog. This suggests that dogs are more motivated to help other dogs they know than to help unfamiliar dogs.
The scientist’s argument would be most strengthened if it were true that, in the experiment, the dogs with access to the handle tended to release more food when
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option D
Option E
Answer:
(A) Incorrect. The conclusion is: “This suggests that dogs are more motivated to help other dogs they know than to help unfamiliar dogs”. If the dogs’ behavior was encouraged by a familiar person, we actually start wondering whether it was the motivation to help that made the dogs release more food, or some external factor not discussed in the passage. It certainly does not strengthen the argument.
Beware of this option. Many times, test-takers end up selecting an answer that actually does the opposite of what has been asked in the question. This answer, if anything, weakens the argument that dogs are more motivated to help familiar dogs.
(B) Incorrect. How dogs react to an empty enclosure compared with one containing an unfamiliar dog does not impact the argument in any way. Even if we take motivation to help as the reason for dogs releasing food, all this option tells us is that dogs are not particularly motivated to help unfamiliar dogs. This does not strengthen the argument that dogs are more motivated to help familiar dogs.
If I simply show Y is low in absolute terms, that does not strengthen that X is more than Y. X may be low as well.
(C) Incorrect. If the behaviour of the dog in the enclosure impacts the other dogs’ propensity to release food in any way, their higher motivation to help familiar dogs, in fact, gets questioned.
(D) Incorrect. How the dogs with the handle reacted to the enclosure’s dogs’ interest level does not help strengthen the argument at all. In fact, if the enclosure’s dogs’ interest level impacted the propensity of dogs with the handle to release food, we question whether ‘motivation to help’ was the driving factor or not.
(E) Correct. This option compares the reaction to a familiar dog in the enclosure with the reaction to a familiar dog not in the enclosure.
To understand this option, let’s first understand a possible challenge to the given argument. Can somebody argue that the dog with the handle released more food in case of a familiar dog not because it wanted to help the familiar dog but because the presence of the familiar dog stimulated him, in some way, to press the handle more often? Essentially, we are doubting whether there was any ‘intention’ to help. If the dog with the handle released more food just on the sight of the familiar dog, regardless of whether the familiar dog got the food or not, we would have a strong reason to doubt that there was an ‘intention’ to help.
This option is around the above aspect. Since dogs release more food when the familiar dog was in the enclosure, we are further convinced that the dogs wanted to help the familiar dog, and it was not just the sight of a familiar dog that triggered the response. If it were just the sight, then the dogs would have released equal quantities of food even when the visible familiar dog was not inside the enclosure. The dogs releasing less food in this scenario (when the enclosure was empty) lends credence to the notion that the dogs realized that the familiar dogs outside the enclosure will not be helped by the released food, and thus their propensity to release food was lower.
Explanation:
A researcher places a red dot on the forehead of a 12 month old, then places her in front of a mirror. She reaches out and touches the red dot on the mirror. At 18 months of age, the researcher repeats the experiment. At that point the child looks in the mirror, then reaches up and touches her own forehead. She has developed:____________
Answer:Self-awareness
Explanation:When children are born they don't have this concept of understanding their own individual existence apart from their mother's.
However, when they are 18 - 24 months they start to recognise their own reflection in the mirror
This may vary especially depending on how the child is raised and where they are raised also based on socioeconomical status. They are able to be aware of the fact that the image they see in the mirror is of them seen by the fact that the child doesn't touch the mirror to touch the dot but she touches herself to show that she is aware that the person in the mirror is heir image.
Answer: Self-awareness
Explanation: self awareness simply refers to having knowledge of one's own personality. It could be described as having a conscious understanding of one's personality, emotion, feelings or other related individual attribute or character.
The scenario above indicates the development of reflective Self-awareness which is developed in a baby at around 18 months. It monitors how a child react when they see a reflection of themselves in mirrors, images or other reflective surfaces.
At 12 months, the baby hasn't developed reflective Self-awareness and only view their reflection as seeing other children.
However, at 18 months, reflective Self-awareness has been developed and they recognize themselves when reflection occurs. Hence, the reason why she reaches out and touches her forehead to locate the red dot placed on her forehead.
Which of the following best describes the main purpose of a budget?
A. To reduce discretionary spending.
B. To plan income and expenses.
C. To eliminate flexible expenses.
D. To get a good credit rating.
B. To plan income and expenses
BudgetA budget is a financial plan for a specific time period, usually one year. It could also include anticipated sales volumes and revenues, resource quantities, costs and expenses, assets, liabilities, and cash flows. A budget is an estimate of revenue and expenses for a given future period of time that is usually created and re-evaluated on a regular basis.The main purpose of a budget is B. To plan income and expensesFor more information:
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The main purpose of a budget is to plan and forecast income and expenses. It's a tool for understanding financial situations, making responsible decisions, and achieving financial goals.
Explanation:The main purpose of a budget is B. To plan income and expenses. A budget serves as a financial plan that outlines and forecasts income and expenses over a set period, typically a month or a year. It is an essential tool to help individuals and organizations understand their financial situation and make responsible financial decisions. By planning income and expenses, people can work towards achieving financial goals, like saving for the future, paying off debts, or making large purchases. Though 'A. To reduce discretionary spending', 'C. To eliminate flexible expenses', and 'D. To get a good credit rating' can be beneficial outcomes of budgeting, they are not the primary purpose of a budget.
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Which of the following is the correct cause-effect relationship? Group of answer choices voltage causes resistance resistance causes voltage resistance causes current voltage causes current current causes voltage
Answer: Voltage causes Current
Explanation:
VOLTAGE is known to 'cause' CURRENT because it attempts to make current flow.
Voltage is like a force (it's not a force, just like one) that pushes electricity. If voltage is being supplied and a circuit is complete, current will flow.
To sum it up, you can have voltage without having current but current cannot flow without voltage.
Marta Hernandez is a single parent with a child in elementary school. She loves her schedule because she can go in any time before 10 a.m. that is convenient for her, as long as she is there at the job during the core hours of 10 a.m. to 2 p.m. Marta enjoys a schedule known as:
Answer:
This question is incomplete. Here are the missing options:
A. job sharingB. flextimeC. a compressed workweekD. home-based worThe answer is B. flextime.
Explanation:
Flextime is a type of schedule in which workers are free to choose their working hours between a period known as "core" time. For example, the core period may comprise any time between 6:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. The worker may decide their most convenient times to work as long as the quota is achieved. Flextime schedules usually involve the same amount of work hours as traditional schedules.
Researchers from Ryerson University in Toronto categorized social media users into passive or active information seekers and passive or active participants. Which of the following is not one of the four segments that were identified?
a. Minimalists.
b. Observers.
c. Information Seekers.
d. Socializers.
e. Mavens.
The four categories of users identified by Ryerson University researchers are passive information seekers, active information seekers, passive participants, and active participants. The options Minimalists, Observers, Socializers, and Mavens are not part of the identified segments from this study.
Explanation:The four categories of users that the Ryerson University researchers identified are passive information seekers, active information seekers, passive participants and active participants. Therefore, the options a, b, d, and e (i.e., Minimalists, Observers, Socializers, and Mavens) represent typologies that are not part of the identified segments from this particular study.
The stated categories are unique to the conducted research ranging from those who seek information and engage in social media minimally (passive information seekers) to those who actively seek information and also actively participate or engage on these platforms (active participants).
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The segment that is not identified by the Ryerson University researchers for categorizing social media users is 'a. Minimalists.' The four actual segments are Observers, Information Seekers, Socializers, and Mavens.
Among the segments identified by researchers from Ryerson University in Toronto when categorizing social media users based upon their engagement levels, the option that is not one of the four segments is a. Minimalists. The identified segments source users into passive or active information seekers and passive or active participants, typically characterizing them as b. Observers, c. Information Seekers, d. Socializers, and e. Mavens. Each of these groups has distinct interaction patterns with social media platforms, differing in the extent of their activity and the quality of their engagement with the content.
While Observers may only view content without engaging in discussions or sharing information, the Information Seekers are actively looking for news and updates but might not engage in discourse. Conversely, Socializers are heavily involved in discussions and sharing content, creating a dynamic presence on social media. Lastly, Mavens are knowledgeable and influential within certain areas and play a pivotal role in disseminating information and shaping opinions within their networks.
Sarah’s Autos sells multiple automobile brands, showcasing used, pre-owned, and new vehicles. The company’s advertising manager decides to configure a broad matching type for the keyword "automobile," in order to reach a broader group of potential visitors. Which two user searches may generate the advertising manager’s ad? (Choose two.)
A) Road
B) Bicycle
C) Car
D) Automobile
E) Travel
Answer: c. Car d. Automobile
Explanation:
Considering the fact that they are into Automobile's, the company advertising manager will have to work with words that relate to automobile so when potential customers do their search it would bring out Sarah's company, the words which are best suited from the option are car and automobile itself as people seeking to get automobile will search around this words.
What is the correct order of psychosexual stages proposed by freud?
Answer:
The correct order of psychosexual stages proposed by Freud is oral, an al, phallic, latency, genital.
Explanation:
Sigmund Freud, the father of psychoanalysis, proposed that, as people grow up, they develop fixations on different parts of their bodies. Those parts become erogenous zones, which means they can be associated with pleasure or, potentially, frustration, sometimes both. The sequence/order of such focus is oral, an al, phallic, latency (libido is dormant in this stage), genital.
Note: I had separate the word an-al so that I could post this answer.
When planning a party you want to know whom to in- vite. Among the people you would like to invite are three touchy friends. You know that if Jasmine attends, she will become unhappy if Samir is there, Samir will attend only if Kanti will be there, and Kanti will not attend unless Jasmine also does. Which combinations of these three friends can you invite so as not to make someone un- happy?
Answer:
Jasmine and Kanti
Explanation:
Kanti will only attend if Jasmine attends and Jasmine wont be happy seeing samir so you dont invite samir, Jasmine and Kanti will be happy.
According to the "General Model of Job Design" job performance is influenced by: personalized job content extra-organizational job content perceived job content All of the above.
Answer:
perceived job content
Explanation:
According to the "General Model of Job Design" job performance is influenced by perceived job content. Perceived job content has to do with how significant an employee views a job and the related skill they need for the job. An employee will do a job properly if he feels that the job is important for his/her career advancement and if it is important to achieving the organizations long-term or short-term goal, his performance of that job/task is based on how significant he views the task. Another consideration is the skill set, an employee will perform a job better if he/she has the necessary skill required for that job.
In terms of "schemas" early in life, ___________ is related to adjusting ones understanding of the world in order to fit in new information, whereas __________ is related moreso to fitting new experiences into ones current understanding of the world.
Answer:
In terms of "Schemas" early in life Assimilation is related to adjusting ones understanding of the world in order to it in new information whereas Accommodation is related more so to fitting new experiences into ones current understanding of the world.
Explanation:
In psychology, a schema describes both the mental and physical actions involved in understanding and knowing. Schemas are categories of knowledge that help us to interpret and understand the world.
A schema includes both a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. As experiences happen, this new information is used to modify, add to, or change previously existing schemas.
For example, a child may have a schema about a type of animal, such as a dog. If the child’s sole experience has been with small dogs, a child might believe that all dogs are small, furry, and have four legs. Suppose then that the child encounters a very large dog. The child will take in this new information, modifying the previously existing schema to include this new information
In the example above, seeing a dog and labeling it “dog” is an example of assimilating the animal into the child’s dog schema.
Whilst the child experience of seeing a very large dog for the first time after having mostly encountered small dogs and taking in the new information that dogs can be large too is accomodation.
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Companies that use IFRS:
(a) may report all their assets on the statement of financial position at fair value.
(b) are not allowed to net assets (assets 2 liabilities) on their statement of financial positions.
(c) may report non-current assets before current assets on the statement of financial position.
(d) do not have any guidelines as to what should be reported on the statement of financial position.
Answer:
(c) may report non-current assets before current assets on the statement of financial position.Explanation:
International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) are a set of rules controlled and issued by International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) to regulate and maintain efficiency and transparency in financial statements throughout the globe.According to IFRS, non-current assets are those assets which are expected to be recovered only after 12 months or more after the statement of financial position is reported.Furthermore, the taxonomy of IFRS provides that companies may report non-current assets before current assets on the statement of financial position.Companies using IFRS may list non-current assets before current assets on their financial statements. This ensures proper classification and consistency. Thus, option c is correct.
May report non-current assets before current assets on the statement of financial position.Are permitted to report some of their assets at fair value, but this is typically limited to certain types of financial instruments and investment properties.Must not net assets (assets minus liabilities) on their statement of financial position; rather, they report assets and liabilities separately.Have specific guidelines provided by IFRS that outline what should be reported on the statement of financial position, ensuring transparency and consistency.________ refers to the technique of comparing performance to similar efforts. The comparison may be to other companies in the same industry, to other industries, or to other time periods.
The technique referred to is benchmarking, which is used to evaluate performance by comparing it to competitors or industry norms. It is often used to identify areas for improvement and make changes to meet or exceed standards.
Explanation:The technique referred to in your question is known as Benchmarking. Benchmarking is a process used to evaluate the performance of a company, business process, or product, by comparing it to the standards set by competitors or industry norms. This may involve comparing performance to other companies in the same industry, to other industries, or other periods. The purpose of benchmarking is often to identify areas for improvement and to institute changes to help the company meet or exceed specific standards.
For example, a technology company might benchmark its product design processes against a competitor known for innovative designs, or a grocery store may benchmark its checkout efficiency against industry averages.
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Three hours after going to sleep, Shoshanna's heart rate increases, her breathing becomes more rapid, and her eyes move rapidly under her closed lids. Research suggests that Shoshanna is:________.A) DreamingB) Entering the third stage of sleepC) Ready to sleepwalkD) Exhibiting a sleep spindleE) Experiencing a night terror
Answer:
Research suggests Shoshanna is A) dreaming.
Explanation:
Most of our dreams take place while we are in the REM stage of our sleep. REM stands for rapid eye movement, referring to our eyes quickly darting back and forth underneath our eyelids. At this moment, our brain is active, our heart rate increases, and we have vivid dreams. We can safely say Shoshanna is dreaming because the description fits the signs of REM sleep, and dreams are rare in other stages.
When inserting a centered zipper, sew the final stitch lines (the ones that show on the outside) beginning at the top of one side, across the bottom of the zipper, and up the other side. A. True B. False
Answer:
The correct option is A - TRUE
Explanation:
TRUE
What was the first african american owned and operated newspaper
Answer:
d
Explanation:
You respond to an accident at a factory. One of the workers has a severe laceration to his arm and is bleeding profusely. What is the first action for managing this scenario?
Answer:
Call the ambulance
Explanation:
Calling the ambulance is the very very first step, because initially, I might not know it is a laceration and he is losing a lot of blood, what If I am not a trained first aider ,the very first thing I will do is to call the ambulance, explain the situation and maybe even get further instructions on what to do before they arrive to save my colleague from death.
The first action for managing a severe laceration and profuse bleeding is to apply direct pressure to the wound.
Explanation:In this scenario, the first action for managing the severe laceration and profuse bleeding of the worker's arm is to apply direct pressure to the wound.
This can be done by placing a clean cloth or sterile dressing directly over the laceration and pressing down firmly.
Applying pressure helps to control bleeding and promote clotting until medical assistance arrives.
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This individual keeps close contact with all members of his or her party,counts votes for key legislation, prepares summaries of bills, and acts as a communications link within the party.
a.committee chairpersonb.majority/minority leaderc.president pro tempored.majority/minority whip
Answer:
Majority or minority whip
Explanation:
A whip is an official of a political party who acts as the party's 'enforcer' inside the legislative assembly or house of parliament. He/she helps to maintain party discipline and behavior on the floor.