A student classified a mushroom as belonging to Kingdom Plantae. Which of the following best explains why the student is incorrect?

mushrooms do not have chloroplasts

mushrooms cannot reproduce asexually

mushrooms cannot grow in soil

mushrooms do not have a cell wall

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

the first one

Explanation:

Answer 2

Answer:

mushrooms do not have chloroplasts


Related Questions

In the polymerization in vitro of actin filaments and microtubules from their subunits, what does the "lag phase" correspond to? Nucleation Reaching steady state Nucleotide exchange ATP or GTP hydrolysis Treadmilling

Answers

Answer:

Nucleation

Explanation:

The first step of formation of new phase, structure or self-assembly is called as Nucleation.

It is mentioned in the book of Molecular Biology of the Cell that whenever, In-vitro polymerization of micro-tubules and actin filament occur the first step is called nucleation. In other words Lag Phase.

Reference: Alberts B, Johnson A, Lewis J, et al. Molecular Biology of the Cell. 4th edition. New York: Garland Science; 2002. The Self-Assembly and Dynamic Structure of Cytoskeletal Filaments.

Recently, genes have been indentified in angiosperms that are important in preventing pollen from germinating or growing into the stigma. The locus where the genes are found has been termed the A. strict reproductive locus B. similarity locus C. selfless locus D. sterility locus

Answers

Answer:The locus where the genes are found has been termed the sterility locus.The correct option is D.

Explanation:

pollination is defined as the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or another flower. There are two types of pollination: self pollination. ( This occurs when the pollen from the anther is deposited on the stigma of the same flower) and cross pollination (transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower).

Recently there are some incompatible genes that prevents pollen from germinating or growing into the stigma of a flower in angiosperms.The locus where the genes are found has been termed the sterility locus. The pollens are either rejected or degraded.The degradation results from the activity of a ribonuclease encoded by the sterility locus. The ribonuclease is secreted from the cells of the style in the extracellular matrix, which lies alongside the growing pollen tube. I hope this helps. Thanks

If Jack and Jill have a child with an AAa genotype, during which meiotic division, and in which parent, could nondisjunction have occurred?

Answers

Further information from another source:

Jill is heterozygous for gene A and is going to have a child with Jack, who is homozygous recessive for gene A.

Answer:

Maternal meiosis II

Explanation:

Jill has the genotype Aa, and Jack has the genotype aa. Jack can only contribute the a, whereas Jill can contribute A or a. For the child to have 2 copies of the A allele and two copies of the a allele, that means the nondisjunction must have happened in the mother.

As for the stage of meiosis, non-disjunction in meiosis I means that homologous chromosomes fail to separate properly. This would mean that the child would inherit Aa from its mother and a from its father. This is not the case.

Non-disjunction in meiosis II means identical sister chromatids fail to separate properly, which means the child would inherit either aa from its mother, or AA from its mother, and a from its father. This could give the genotype AAa. Therefore, nondisjunction must have occurred in maternal meiosis II

Nondisjunction, leading to an AAa genotype in a child, suggests an extra chromosome from an event in either meiosis I or II in one of the parents. It's not possible to determine exactly which parent or stage without additional information, although the specifics of the genotype hint at meiosis II.

If Jack and Jill have a child with an AAa genotype, nondisjunction must have occurred. Given that humans normally have two alleles for each gene (one from each parent), the presence of three alleles suggests an extra chromosome resulting from nondisjunction. Nondisjunction can occur during either meiosis I or II, and since we have an imbalance in the number of A alleles, it indicates a nondisjunction event in one of the parents.

If we have gametes Ab and aB, the genotype produced should be in a 1:2:1 ratio of AAbb:AaBb:aaBB, provided that no errors such as nondisjunction occurred. However, AAa indicates an extra A allele, which is not expected in typical Mendelian inheritance and is a clear sign of nondisjunction.

Without further information on the parental genotypes, or when nondisjunction occurred, we cannot determine the exact parent or stage of meiosis in which this occurred. However, examining the parental phenotypes and potential genotypes could provide additional clues, as a nondisjunction during meiosis I would result in gametes with either two copies or no copies of the chromosome containing the A allele, whereas nondisjunction in meiosis II would result in one normal gamete, one gamete with an extra A allele, and two gametes with a single A allele. Given the child's genotype of AAa, it is conceivable that nondisjunction occurred in one of the parents during meiosis II.

Note that this answer assumes a homologous pair of chromosomes containing the A allele and does not consider the possibility of a de novo mutation or other complex genetic events.

The adequate stimuli for olfactory receptors are chemicals, typically odorant molecules. For an olfactory receptor, which modality will induce a receptor potential of the largest amplitude?

Answers

Answer:

Moderate-intensity chemical.

Explanation:

Receptors may be defined as any cell, tissue or organ that has the ability to respond against the particular stimuli like light, smell and  pressure. These receptors send information to the brain.

The olfactory receptor is involved in detecting the different type of smell. This will initiate the signaling process and generation of the action potential for the  transformation of information. The moderate- intensity chemical can easily detect the change and induce the receptor action potential of the large amplitude.

Thus, the answer is moderate-intensity chemical.

Final answer:

The largest receptor potential in an olfactory receptor is induced when the receptor binds with its specific volatile odorant molecule, initiating a signaling cascade that leads to depolarization and potentially action potentials.

Explanation:

The amplitude of a receptor potential in an olfactory receptor is greatest when the receptor is exposed to the specific chemical compound that it is optimally tuned to bind with. These chemicals, typically volatile odorant molecules, interact with receptor proteins on olfactory neurons. When an odorant molecule binds to its specific receptor, it initiates a signaling cascade involving a G protein called Golf, activation of adenylyl cyclase, a rise in cyclic AMP, and subsequently the opening of cation channels that leads to an influx of calcium and sodium ions. This influx then causes the opening of calcium-activated chloride channels. Due to high intracellular chloride concentrations in olfactory receptor neurons, chloride ions flow out of the neuron, further contributing to depolarization, which generates a receptor potential. This receptor potential may trigger the generation of action potentials if the depolarization crosses a certain threshold, thus relaying the signal to the olfactory bulb in the brain.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between a polar covalent bond and a nonpolar covalent bond?

A: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve sharing of protons whereas polar covalent bonds involve transfer of
protons.

B: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve sharing of electrons whereas polar covalent bonds involve transfer of electrons.

C: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve sharing of protons whereas polar covalent bonds involve sharing of electrons.

D: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two atoms that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent bonds involve two atoms that are unequal in their electronegativity.

E: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two electrons that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent
bonds involve two electrons that are unequal in their electronegativity.​

Answers

answer is D  

Explanation:

Polar covalent bonding is a type of chemical bond where a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms. ... If the electronegativity of two atoms is basically the same, a nonpolar covalent bond will form, and if the electronegativity is slightly different, a polar covalent bond will form.

Considering the definition of covalent bond, the correct answer is option D: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two atoms that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent bonds involve two atoms that are unequal in their electronegativity.

A covalent bond is a force that joins two atoms of non-metallic elements to form a molecule. Atoms share pairs of electrons from their most superficial layer (called the valence layer) to achieve the stability of the molecule that has been formed with the bond and thus comply with the octet rule.

On the other side, electronegativity refers to the tendency of the atom of a given element to attract electrons.

So, the covalent bond between two atoms can be polar or nonpolar.  

Polarity depends on the difference in electronegativity of the joining elements. The greater the electronegativity difference, the greater the polar character of the bond. The most electronegative element will be the one that most strongly attracts the shared electrons, then a negative partial charge will be generated on said element, while a positive partial charge will be generated on the other element (less electronegative).

Finally, nonpolar covalent bonding occurs when pairs of electrons are shared between atoms that have the same or very similar electronegativity, favoring an equitable distribution of electrons.

In summary, the correct answer is option D: Nonpolar covalent bonds involve two atoms that have equal electonegativity whereas polar covalent bonds involve two atoms that are unequal in their electronegativity.

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genetics book g how do you know that only a single gene is responsible for he color diferences between these snakes?

Answers

Answer:

Here is the full question:

An albino corn snake is crossed with a normal colored corn snake. The offspring are all normal-colored. When the first generation progeny snakes are crossed among themselves, they produce 32 normal colored snakes and 10 albino snakes.

a. How do you know that only a single gene is responsible for the color differences between these snakes?

b. which of these phenotypes is controlled by the dominant allele?

c. a normal colored female snake is involved in a test cross. This cross produces 10 normal colored and 11 albina offspring. what are the genotypes of the parents?

Explanation:

First of all, in genetics, Phenotype are the observable physical properties of an organism; these include the organism's appearance, development, and behavior. An organism's phenotype can be determined by its genotype, which is the set of genes the organism carries, as well as by environmental influences on these genes.

Allele, which can also be called allelomorph, is any one of two or more genes that may occur alternatively at a given site on a chromosome. Alleles may occur in pairs, or we may have multiple alleles affecting the phenotype of a particular trait. The combination of alleles that an organism carries is its genotype. If the paired alleles are the same, the organism’s genotype is said to be homozygous for that trait. If they are different, the organism’s genotype is heterozygous. A dominant allele (A) will override the traits of a recessive allele (a) in a heterozygous pairing.

(a) In the question, we have two phenotypes seen in the second generation of this cross: normal and albino. Therefore, only one gene with two alleles is needed to control the phenotypes like colour of the snakes observed. The 3:1 ratio of these phenotypes in the F2 generation will be seen only if a single gene is involved.

(b) The allele controlling the normal phenotype (A) is dominant to the allele controlling the albino phenotype (a).

(c) The male parent’s genotype is aa. The normally colored offspring must receive an A allele from the mother, so the genotype of the normal offspring of the testcross is Aa. The albino offspring must receive an a allele from the mother, so the genotype of the albino offspring of the testcross is aa. Thus, the female parent must be heterozygous Aa.

Suppose that life exists elsewhere in the universe. All life must contain some type of genetic information, but alien genomes might not consist of nucleic acids or have the same features as those found in the genomes of life on Earth. What might be the common features of all genomes, no matter where they exist?

a. the ability to allow acquired traits to become incorporated into the genetic material
b. a large and varyýing number of building blocks that can reflect the complexity of lving organisms.
c. the entire set of information an organism, needs for reproduction organismS and development
d. must not be able to mutate to new forms
e. the ability to replicate the genetic information accurately for the next generation

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is e. the ability to replicate the genetic information accurately for the next generation

Explanation:

As there are chances of existence of life in the universe but we can not say that they will have the same type of genetic material as we have but the ability of replication of genome and the ability to pass the genetic information accurately to the next generation will be the most common feature in all genome because without genome replication and transfer life can not evolve and proceed on any planet.  

Therefore replication and genetic information transfer to the next generator is necessary. So the right answer is e.

Final answer:

All genomes, no matter where they exist, would contain the entire genetic information necessary for an organism's development and reproduction, have the ability to accurately replicate this information for the successive generation, and possess the capacity to vary or mutate, enabling evolution and adaptability.

Explanation:

Despite potential differences in the specific components of life forms originating from different parts of the universe, some universal characteristics of genomes can be hypothesized.

Genetic Information: All genomes would need to contain a complete set of instructions necessary for an organism's development and reproduction. This instruction set would border the entire set of information an organism needs for reproduction and development. The ability to Replicate: This attribute, the ability to replicate the genetic information accurately for the next generation, is a fundamental feature of life, ensuring continuity of species. Variability: The genetic material should be capable of varying, allowing diversity and evolution. It contradicts option b, which states that genomes should not mutate to new forms. Mutations are vital for evolution and adaptability of all living organisms.

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A cat is composed of organ systems, which are composed of organs, which are composed of tissues, which are composed of cells. Describes what characteristic of life?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - cellular organization.

Explanation:

The first and major characteristic of life is a cellular organization out of eight major characteristic features of life every living organism possesses. It says that living things are made of cells. The cellular organization is the fundamental base of the growth and evolution of life.

The evolution of life includes the organization of the micromolecules to the macromolecules that form cell organelles and organelles to a cell, cells form tissue and tissues to organ and organ to organ system and ultimately this complex organization forms the whole organism such as cat.

Thus, the correct answer is - cellular organization.

Final answer:

The characteristic of life being described in the question is the 'biological organization' or 'biological hierarchy'. It includes the hierarchical structure from atoms to organisms.

Explanation:

The organized structure from cells to systems in a cat describes the characteristic of life known as biological organization or biological hierarchy. Life is structured in a hierarchical manner from the microscopic level to the macroscopic level. This starts from atoms, forming molecules, which combine to form cells. Cells group together to form tissues, tissues group to form organs, organs group to form organ systems, and organ systems form an organism.

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The following two genotypes are crossed: AaBbCc X+Xr AaBBcc X+Y, where a, b, and c represent alleles of autosomal genes and X+and Xr represent X-linked alleles in an organism with XX-XY sex determination.
a. What is the probability of obtaining genotype aaBbCc X+X+ in the progeny?Can you please explain.

Answers

Answer:

1/64

Explanation:

The following genotypes were crossed: AaBbCc X+Xr and AaBBcc X+Y

If we asume that the autosomal genes are in different chromosomes, then they will assort independently during meiosis and gametogenesis. In that case, we can use the Multiplication Rule of Probability to obtain the probability of having a specific genotype in the progeny. This rule states that when two or more events are independent, the probability of all them happening at the same time will be the result of the multiplication of the individual probabilities of each event.

We can separate each gene in the cross to determine the genotypic ratios in the offspring, and then multiply the probabilities of the aaBbCc X+X+ genotypes to obtain the overall probability of having progeny with that genotype.

Aa x Aa

1/4 AA

2/4 Aa

1/4 aa

Bb x BB

1/2 BB

1/2 Bb

Cc x cc

1/2 Cc

1/2 cc

X+Xr x X+Y

1/4  X+X+

1/4  X+Y

1/4  X+Xr

1/4  XrY

The probability of having offspring with the aaBbCc X+X+ genotype will be: 1/4 × 1/2  × 1/2  × 1/4 = 1/64

The probability of obtaining progeny with the genotype aaBbCc X+X+ is 1/32, or approximately 3.125%.

The probability of obtaining a specific genotype in the progeny from a cross between two parents with known genotypes. The desired genotype is aaBbCc X+X+.

In order to solve this problem, we need to analyze each gene separately. For the autosomal genes, we will use a Punnett square to determine the chance of each allele combination:

For the A allele, since both parents are Aa, the probability of the offspring being aa is 1/4.For the B allele, one parent is Bb and the other is BB. The probability that the offspring is Bb is 1/2, since the offspring will get a B from parent 2 and either a B or b from parent 1.For the C allele, both parents are Cc, so the probability of the offspring being Cc is again 1/2. This is calculated using a 2 × 2 Punnett square representing the distribution of alleles C and c.

For the X-linked genes, since the female parent is heterozygous X+Xr and the male is XY, the probability of a female offspring receiving X+ from the mother is 1/2, and it must inherit X+ from the father (since the father can only pass on either X+ or Y to a female offspring). Therefore, the probability the female offspring has the genotype X+X+ is 1/2.

Taking all the probabilities together and assuming independent assortment of genes, we multiply the individual probabilities to find the probability of the genotype aaBbCc X+X+:

(1/4) for aa × (1/2) for Bb × (1/2) for Cc × (1/2) for X+X+

= (1/4) × (1/2) × (1/2) × (1/2)

= 1/32

Therefore, the probability is approximately 3.125%.

When you observe a patient like Tina throughout an exam, there are many ways to determine whether a patient is experiencing respiratory distress. Identify one indicator of respiratory distress that can be assessed through observation alone.

Answers

Answer: difficulty in breathing.

Explanation: Rate of respiration becomes irregular per minute which is a sign of respiratory distress. They may be breathing rapidly.  They will look uncomfortable, they may lie-down due to difficulty in breathing.

In this condition, try to check the air ways or pulse of the patient.  

Answer:

Explanation:

Obvious and visible signs of respiratory stress include: fast respiratory rate, wheezing, cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin), sweating, audible breathing, moving backwards of the chest and speech incoherence.

Imagine that you want to compare a new diet for tadpoles that are reared in the laboratory to the traditional laboratory diet of boiled lettuce. You want to decide if the new diet will be associated with an increase in the average weight of the tadpoles. The new diet is a meat-based commercial fish food. In your experiment you keep all other factors, such as tadpole density, temperature, pH, amount of food, etc., constant. The only difference between your control and experimental groups is the type of food the tadpoles receive. Write a null hypothesis for this experiment: Write an alternate hypothesis for this experiment: What is the independent variable? What is the dependent variable? Would you want to test only one pan of tadpoles fed lettuce, and only one pan of tadpoles fed meat? Why or why not? After you weighed your tadpoles at the end of the experiment, how would you determine if the type of diet significantly affected tadpole size?

Answers

Answer:

Hi

Hypothesis: There will be a significant difference between the tadpole weight gain before applying the commercial fish-based diet and the measures after some diet to the diet.

Null hypothesis: There is no significant difference in the means of the tadpole weight before and after the commercial fish-based diet.

Alternative hypothesis: There is a significant difference in the means of the tadpole weight before and after the commercial fish-based diet.

The independent variable is the amount of the commercial fish-based diet given to tadpoles, since it is the variable that is controlled in the experiment. The dependent variable is the tadpole weight gain, since it is the variable that is investigated and measured.

The gain or not in tadpole weight is the variable that we would use to know if the change in diet affects the size of the tadpole.

Explanation:

Final answer:

The null hypothesis for this experiment is that there is no significant difference in the average weight of tadpoles fed the new diet compared to the traditional diet. The independent variable is the type of diet and the dependent variable is the average weight of the tadpoles. Statistical analysis should be conducted to determine if the type of diet significantly affected tadpole size.

Explanation:

The null hypothesis for this experiment would be that there is no significant difference in the average weight of tadpoles fed the new diet compared to the traditional diet. The alternate hypothesis would be that the new diet is associated with an increase in the average weight of the tadpoles.

The independent variable in this experiment is the type of diet the tadpoles receive - either the new meat-based commercial fish food or the traditional boiled lettuce. The dependent variable is the average weight of the tadpoles.

It would not be sufficient to test only one pan of tadpoles fed each diet because the results could be biased. Instead, multiple pans of tadpoles should be used for each diet to account for any individual variations.

To determine if the type of diet significantly affected tadpole size, statistical analysis should be conducted on the weight measurements of the tadpoles from both the control and experimental groups. This analysis could involve techniques such as t-tests or analysis of variance (ANOVA) to compare the means and determine if any observed differences are statistically significant.

Think about the changes you see in the numbers of each bean subspecies after one year of predation. If this pattern continues over several years, which one of these hypotheses do you think best predicts the long term change in frequencies? a. Split Peas will be the most frequent sub-speciesb. Split Peas will be the less frequent sub-speciesc. Split Peas will be the most lethal speciesd. None of the above

Answers

Answer:

If the mentioned pattern continues over several years, Split Peas will be the most frequent sub-species.

Explanation:

As the species of peas would begin thriving after predation, it would genetically learn to grow up to adapt to the external condition on its own. This would cause the species to develop immunity against factors defiant for its growth and thrive in the given conditions after predation. Hence, split peas would group and multiply to become the most frequent sub-species.

Which of the following factors directly affects the distance and speed of a migration of a protein during electrophoresis? A. affinity of protein to agarose/polysaccharides B. function of a protein C. solubility of protein D. size of protein E. shape of protein

Answers

Answer:

Protein electrophoresis is the process of the analayzing the present proteins in a specific mixture using the polyacrylamide or agarose gel. These gel are acts as the sieve to extract the proteins from the mixture on their character.

This is shows the migration of the protein on their various factors such as size, affinity to gel, and shape of the protein. The smaller the protein more it will move or migrate faster. Affinity t the gel of the method to the protein also affects the distance and sped of migration.

explain its normal role and why scientists would regard it as the guardian of the genome

Answers

Answer:

p53  or  Tumor protein (TP53 ) is the Guardian of  genome. located on locus 17p13.1  on chromosomes

It is  the gene that regulates  the protein that codes for process of cell cycle of ( mitosis and meiosis)' and cell death therefore suppresses the  uncontrollable   cells  growth which can  lead to tumor.

TP53 has relatively high molecular mass   of 53 kilodalton fractions in the cell ; this characteristics together with the ability to  conserve cell cycle stability  in  multicellular  organism  by stopping   mutation of  genetic materials by suppressing tumor  made it to be called the Guardian of genome.

ROLES

→ p53 functions by arresting the growth of cells to stop uncontrolled growth.

←it also  repair damage DNA to guide against mutation, by activation of protein involved in DNA  repair.

and  

←Promotes death of the cells (Apoptosis,) so that damaged or altered DNA would  not be transcript and translated  in the cell.

The process by which an individual seeks out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics is described as the ______ effect:

Answers

ANSWER:

Active genotype–environment correlation

EXPLANATION:

Genotype–environment correlations refer to genetic differences in exposure to particular environments.

There are three types of genotype–environment correlation:

1. Passive genotype–environment correlation: This refers to the association between the genotype a child inherits from his or her parents and the environment in which the child is raised.

2. Reactive genotype–environment correlation: This refers to the association between an individual’s genetically influenced behaviour and others’ reactions to that behaviour.

3. Active genotype–environment correlation: This refers to the association between an individual’s genetic propensities and the environmental niches that individual selects. For example, people who are characteristically extroverted may seek out very different social environments than those who are shy and withdrawn.

Answer:

"The process by which an individual seeks out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics is described as the active genotype effect."

Explanation:

Active genotype-environment correlation:

The active genotype-environment can be simplified as the case in which any individuals behavior or response to the change is analyzed or judged which is relied upon the genotype or the genome of the subject inside an environment is called as active genotype-environment correlation.

How many carbon and hydrogen atoms would be contained within this molecule?​

Answers

Answer:

The molecule contains five (5) carbon atoms and ten (10) hydrogen atoms.

Explanation:

The name of the compound is cyclopentane which contains five (5) carbon atoms each bonded to two (2) hydrogen atoms making ten (10) hydrogen atoms in total.

Carbohydrate-based fat substitutes use plant polysaccharides to help retain moisture and provide a fatlike texture

Answers

Answer:true

Explanation:

Which replacement for the boldfaced sentence is​ best?
The rangers put out the forest fire that was burning quickly. It took them only a few minutes.

A) The rangers put out the forest fire that was quickly burning.
B) The rangers put out the forest fire that quickly was burning.
C) The rangers put out the forest fire that was burning quickly.
D) The rangers quickly put out the forest fire

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is D)  The rangers quickly put out the forest fire

Explanation:

The statement D, ' the rangers quickly put out the forest fire' best describes the statements 'The rangers put out the forest fire that was burning quickly. It took them only a few minutes.'

Statement D tends to be short and more accurate to describe the scenario mentioned in the question. Hence, it can be considered to be the best replacement which is short and accurate.

Why do solvent particles flow into the cell when the initial volume is below 50%?

Answers

Answer: Differences in osmotic concentrations

Explanation: With solvent particles flowing into the cell, it means the concentration outside of the cell is higher and with initial volume less than 50%, then that within the cell is lower. This results in an osmotic gradient, allowing particles in areas of higher concentration (outside the cell) to flow into the cell, an area of lower concentration.

When the cell is in a hypotonic solution, the interior of the cell is more concentrated than the exterior. When the cell volume is below 50%, water flows into the cell to reach a dynamic equilibrium.

---------------------------------

If the initial volume of the cell is below 50%, it means that the interior of the cell is more concentrated than the exterior.

      concentration inside the cell  >  concentration outside the cell.

The exterior of the cell represents a solution in which the cell is immersed.

When talking about solutions, we can classify them as follows,

Hypertonic ⇒ A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solute than the cell. This means that in the cell interior, the solute concentration is lower than in the solution itself.

Isotonic ⇒ The solute concentration is the same inside the cell and outside.

Hypotonic ⇒ A hypotonic solution has a lower concentration of solute than the cell. This means that in the cell interior, the solute concentration is higher than in the solution itself.

If the initial volume of the cell is below 50%, it means that the cell is in a hypotonic solution.

When a cell is in a hypotonic solution, through osmosis, water moves toward the cell.

Osmosis is the phenomenon that occurs when two dilutions of different concentrations -in this example, the interior of the cell and the solution- are separated by a semipermeable membrane.

The membrane allows the pass of water but not solute. Hence, water can move from the most diluted side to the less diluted one.

Water tends to go from the hypotonic solution to the cell interior and keeps doing so until concentrations are equal in the cell interior and exterior.

This is, the interior and exterior of the cell reach a dynamic equilibrium.

Under experimental conditions ⇒ Cells can not limit the amount of water moving into them ⇒ the cell keeps swelling until the membrane can not stretch anymore, and lysis occurs. It bursts.

Under natural conditions ⇒ the body regulates the extracellular fluids to avoid cells swelling until they burst ⇒ Dynamic equilibriumHomeostasis.

Let us remember that the term homeostasis refers to stability, balance, or equilibrium.

It is the constant interchange of substances between the cells and the intercellular space, until they reach a dynamic equilibrium, despite the constant environmental variations.

So, when the initial volume of the cell is below 50%, solvent particles flow into the cell to maintain homeostasis, which represents a dynamic equilibrium.

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Lipid-soluble hormones readily diffuse through capillary walls, whereas water-soluble hormones, such as proteins, remain in the blood.a. pass through capillary cells.b. pass through pores in the capillary endothelium.c. be moved out of the capillary by active transport.d. remain in the blood.e. be broken down to amino acids before leaving the blood.

Answers

Answer:

b. pass through pores in the capillary endothelium

Explanation:

The fenestrated capillaries and sinusoids have pores in their endothelium. These pores or the intracellular clefts vary in size between the fenestrated capillaries and sinusoids. Sinusoids have larger intracellular clefts. The pores serve as a passage for the movement of water-soluble substances, proteins and other substances that cannot cross the hydrophobic interior of the cell membranes.

Water-soluble hormones also cannot pass through the capillary walls. Therefore, these hormones pass through the pore or the fenestrations present in the endothelium of capillaries.

What is the probability that the first offspring from the cross listed below will show the dominant phenotype for all loci? (type as a decimal and round to 5 decimal places)a. AA bb
b. Dd ee x
c. Aa
d. BB dd
e. Ee

Answers

Answer:

0.25000

Explanation:

There is an error in the way the question is written, the cross to analyze is:

AAbbDdee x AaBBddEe

If the genes assort independently, we can predict separately for each gene the proportion of the offspring that will have the dominant alleles using Mendel's law of segregation.

AA x Aa

1/2 AA

1/2 Aa

Phenotype: all A

bb x BB

1 Bb

Phenotype: all B

Dd x dd

1/2 Dd

1/2 dd

Phenotype: 1/2 D, 1/2 d

ee x Ee

1/2 Ee

1/2 ee

Phenotype: 1/2 E, 1/2 e

Genes are independent, so the probability of having all dominant phenotype offspring (A_B_D_E_) can be calculated by multiplying for each gene the probabilities of having at least one dominant allele in the offspring:

1 (A_) × 1 (B_) × 1/2 (D_) × 1/2 (E_) = 1/4 = 0.25

Final answer:

The probability that the first offspring will show the dominant phenotype for all loci is 0.25 or 0.25000 when rounded to five decimal places. This is determined by multiplying the probability of inheriting the dominant alleles from the paired loci of the parents' genotypes.

Explanation:

The probability that the first offspring from the cross listed will show the dominant phenotype for all loci can be calculated using principles of Mendelian genetics and the Punnett square. To have the dominant phenotype for all loci, each offspring must inherit at least one dominant allele for every gene from their parents.

For locus A: since one parent is AA and the other is Aa, there is a 100% chance of getting at least one dominant A allele.

For locus B: one parent is bb and the other BB, so the offspring will have Bb genotype and show the dominant phenotype for B.

For locus D: the parents are Dd and dd, thus the probability of offspring having at least one dominant D allele is 1/2.

For locus E: the parent genotypes are ee and Ee, so the probability of offspring having at least one dominant E allele is 1/2.

Now, multiplying these probabilities together: 1 (A) x 1 (B) x 1/2 (D) x 1/2 (E) = 1/4 or 0.25.

To obtain five decimal places as requested, we represent 0.25 as 0.25000.

Explain why sister chromatid cohesion is important, and discuss the role of the proteins cohesin and separase in sister chromatid separation.

Answers

Answer:

Sister chromatid Cohesion is essential for the bi orientation of chromosomes on the mitotic or meiotic spindle, and is thus an essential condition for chromosome segregation.

Explanation:

Sister chromatid Cohesion:- it is the process  by which sister chromatids are combined and held together during specific periods of the cell cycle.

Why Sister chromatid Cohesion is important?

This is essential for the bi orientation of chromosomes on the mitotic or meiotic spindle, and is thus an essential condition for chromosome segregation.

Protein Cohesion:- The proteins that bind the two sister chromatids, denying any premature sister chromatid partition, are a piece of the cohesion protein family. They regulates the separation of sister chromatids during cell division, either mitosis or meiosis. It hold sister chromatids together after DNA replication until anaphase stage is complete

Separase:- Separase is a protease enzyme which can  cleave the Ssc1 subunit of the cohesin ring complex releasing the tension or strechness in the spindle and allowing segregation of sister chromatids.

Classify the descriptions as being representative of either the somatic nervous system or the autonomic nervous system. a. Voluntary Controlb. One lower motor neuronc. Stimulates skeletal muscle fibersd. involuntary controle. two lower motor neuronsf. innervates cardiac muscle and smooth muscle

Answers

Answer:

The correct classification would be as follows:

Somatic Nervous System

a) Voluntary Control

b) One lower motor neuron

c) Stimulates skeletal muscle fibers

Autonomic Nervous System

d) involuntary control

e) two lower motor neurons

f) innervates cardiac muscle and smooth muscle

Explanation:

Somatic nervous system is a part of the peripheral nervous system that is responsible for the various functions such as voluntary movements of muscles. It is also responsible for the stimulating impulse in between central nervous system that include skeletal muscle.  

Autonomic nervous system is the part of the nervous system that is involved in bodily functions that function not consciously directed. Which is involved in innervates heart muscles and smooth muscles.

Thus, the correct answer is -

Somatic Nervous System

a) Voluntary Control

b) One lower motor neuron

c) Stimulates skeletal muscle fibers

Autonomic Nervous System

d) involuntary control

e) two lower motor neurons

f) innervates cardiac muscle and smooth muscle

Which of the following is NOT a function of nucleotides?

a) expressing the genetic code providing most of the energy for cellular processes

b)storing the genetic code providing substrates for the citric acid cycle providing electrons to the electron transport chain

Answers

Answer: b) storing the genetic code providing substrate for the citric acid cycle providing electrons to the electron transport chain.

Always close the fume hood sash when not in use and lower to approximately 12 inches when in use.A. TrueB. False

Answers

Answer:

Option A. True

Explanation:

Fume hoods are constructed in way that when not in use sash should be closed or lower. The reason for lowering sash is that there is an airfoil which exhaust dangerous vapor out of the room even when its shut. It continuously remove hazardous vapors out of the room. Attached is a picture of fume hood.

Which situation could decrease the carrying capacity for humans in a certain
region?

A. A developer building high-rise apartment buildings

B. A scientist developing an inexpensive way to desalinate water

C. A crop disease becoming resistant to medicine

D. A researcher finding an effective cancer treatment

Answers

Answer:

A crop disease becoming resistant to medicine

Explanation:

The carrying capacity of a habitat is the maximum number of individuals of a given species it can support without depleting the available resources. The carrying capacity for humans in a certain region would decrease because of a crop disease becoming resistant to medicine that would reduce the yield. This would lead to increased starvation and malnourished people.

Answer:

A crop disease becoming resistant to medicine

An experimental protocol requires that a nutrient deficiency be induced to assess its effects on memory. What is the most appropriate study design to use to address this question?

a. randomized controlled trial

b. epidemiological study

c. cell culture study

d. animal experiment

Answers

Answer:

Animal Experiment

Explanation:

Also known as animal testing. It involves the use Animal models which are non human animals in an experiment to test the effects of a variable on its' behavior or biological system.

In the said experimental protocol, it is required that nutrient deficiency be introduced to access its effect on memory cells. Hence an animal model will be needed for this type of experiment making an animal experiment as the appropriate study design to be used.

2. T/F. Chromosomes are replicated a second time just prior to the start of Meiosis II.

Answers

Answer: FALSE.

Explanation:

After the first replication in meiosis 1, chromosomes don't replicate the second time in meiosis 11.

There are four phases in meiosis 11 and they are the prophase, metaphase, anaphsse and telophase.

In meiosis 1, chromosomes are replicated. In meiosis 11 the replicated chromosomes are condensed I.e condensation of chromosomes during prophase 1. They chromosomes allign in metaphase 1.

The chromosomes are separated into sister chromatids and move to the opposite poles during anasphae 1 and nuclear envelopes is formed arround the chromosomes in telophase 1 aftter it has been decondensed.

Air pollution only occurs as a result of human activity
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T or F
Need answer ASAP

Answers

the answer to this is false, they’re are many different non-human air pollutants that exist

Answer: False.

Explanation:

Air pollution occur when harmful substances or gases are released into the air which is harmful to humans, plants and animals.

It is not all human activities that lead to air pollution , some are of natural sources.

The non human activity that lead to air pollution are dust and wildfire, dust occur when a vast land is been swept or blown by wind,volcanic eruption which lead to release of particulate substances,animal digestion I.e digestion of food eaten by animals especially cattle lead to release of methane as waste product which cause air pollution e.t.c

Choose the ONE BEST answer explaining how oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA levels are balanced to maximize flux through the citrate cycle when energy charge in the cell is low.

Oxaloacetate is required for mitochondrial shuttle systems, and therefore it makes sense to activate pyruvate carboxylase by ATP and inhibit it by malate.
None of the answers are correct.
The best way to balance the input of carbon into the citrate cycle is to regulate the production of citrate using vitamins like panthothenic acid, which is the cause of beriberi in southeast asia.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase is activated by CoA but inhibited by its product acetyl- CoA, whereas pyruvate carboxylase is activated by acetyl-CoA to produce more oxaloacetate for the citrate synthase reaction
Under conditions of low energy charge in the cell, it makes sense to stimulate pyruvate decarboxylase so that flux through the citrate cycle is maximal, but when CoA is high, maximize the PDH reaction
Increased NADH levels inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase and thereby restricts flux through the pyruvate carboxylase reaction, this in turn, activates the malate dehydrogenase reaction
Acetyl-CoA can be produced by the degradation of fat, and therefore, it is advantageous to stimulate ketogenesis by increasing the amount of oxaloacetate through activation of the isocitrate dehydrogenase reaction
Pyruvate carboxylase and pyruvate dehydrogenase both require thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP), which facilitates coordinate regulation of the two enzymatic reactions and increased citrate cycle flux.

Answers

The answer is d if u arrange them by letters
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