Explanation:
The continuous procedure was single-arrange chemostat development without distribution, henceforth the procedure is persistently taken care of with the development medium and the way of life stock is pulled back at a similar rate so as to keep up the bioreactor volume steadyChemostats have for some time been another supported stage for exploratory advancement, and were, truth be told, developed for this application. A chemostat is a development vessel into which a crisp medium is conveyed at a steady rate and cells and spent medium flood at that equivalent rate. In this way, the way of life is compelled to gap to stay aware of the weakening, and the framework exists in a steady-state where information sources coordinate yieldsHence, the right answer is option D "a chemostat using a low-nutrient medium"Erythropoietin is a product of the kidney. is produced in response to increased blood pressure. is produced by the red bone marrow. is found both in the plasma and inside red blood cells. inhibits the production of erythrocytes.
Answer: is produced by the red bone
Explanation:
Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone produced within the marrow of long bones, and helps to stimulate the various stages of development of erthryocytes (red blood cells) through a process called erythropoiesis that also occur in the bone marrow.
What do barbell curls and dips have in common? A. They are both leg exercises. B. They both use free weights. C. Neither exercise is isotonic. D. They are both arm exercises. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Explanation:
Barbell curls and dips both are arm exercise to decrease the weight of arm and musclesThis is perform by the flexing of both elbows and keeping your shoulder bone withdrewDo not allow heavy weight from lower back to arch and push up to about chest levelKeep the spine in zero potential positionDetermine the width of grip and your elbow to ought the potential position of exerciseHence the right answer is option D "they are both arm exercise"Weighted barbells are used during performing exercises that target the muscle biceps. An upper body exercise for increasing strength is called dips.
The correct option is:
Option D. They are both arm exercises.
This can be explained as:
Dips and barbell curls are the arm exercise that is for reducing the fats in arm muscles and builds triceps and biceps.They both are performed by flexing arms and withdrawing the shoulder bones.They both are used for achieving defined muscles and arms.Therefore they both are arm exercises.
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What is a possible health effect of exposure to smoke and asbestos in an indoor environment? a. skin cancer b. nerve damage c. lung problems d. reproductive issues Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D
Answer: Option C) Lung problems
Explanation:
Smoke are light particles produced during the burning of wood or other materials. Asbestos, on the other hand are forms of mineral deposits processed and used in building.
Both smoke and asbestos are harmful since they contain chemical toxins and can be inhaled. Hence, in an indoor environment people who suffer heavy exposure to them will develop chronic inflammatory lung disease.
Answer:
option c which is lung problems
Explanation:
How do carbohydrates contain and/or display information for cells?
Answer:
Carbohydrates may be defined as the polymers of the sugars and one of the most important biomolecule of the living organisms. Carbohydrates plays an important structural and functional role.
Carbohydrates are always present on the exoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane. The are present in the association with the proteins and lipids as glycoproteins and glycolipids. These carbohydrates acts as the signaling molecule that display information on cell surface.
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Fishing Gear sells a range of fishing products to outdoor enthusiasts and serious fishermen. Fishing Gear wants to reach its target market in a way that minimizes intrusiveness. Which of the following would be the best fit for Fishing Gear?
a. personal selling
b. print ads in Fishing and Hunting News
c. commercials on cable television
d. emails to all individuals with a fishing license
e. banner ads on websites
What is the name of the process where a material that is weak enough to flow will rises when it is hot and sinks when it is cool causing a circulation cell?
Answer:
Convection process
Explanation:
The process of convection is commonly takes place in the mantle portion of the earth and also at the atmosphere.
This process is usually defined as the process where the materials are heated at a high temperature, thereby making them less denser, and due to their low density they are gradually pushed upward into the upper zones. As the materials rises up, the density gradually increases due to the lowering of the temperature, and then the materials again sinks. This give rise to the formations of a circulating cell, which are commonly known as the convection cells.
Flat bones consist of spongy bone sandwiched between compact bone. Is this statement true or false?
Explanation:
Each osteon is made out of concentric rings of a calcified network called lamellae (solitary = lamella)the lacunae and osteocytes are found in a grid-like system of network spikes called trabeculae (particular = trabecula) (Figure (Links to an outer site.)). The trabeculae may give off an impression of being an irregular system, however every trabecula shapes along lines of worry to give solidarity deep down.This system of flat bones consist of spongy bone permits supplements to be moved to the osteocytes and squanders to be expelled from themHence, the right answer is "flat bones consist of spongy bone sandwiched between compact bone is true statement"The statement is true. Flat bones do consist of spongy bone sandwiched between compact bone, offering protection and a surface for muscle attachment.
Explanation:The statement that flat bones consist of spongy bones sandwiched between compact bones is indeed true. These flat bones such as the ribs, the sternum, and parts of the skull, are relatively thin, flattened, and usually curved.
They have two parallel layers of compact bones sandwiching a layer of spongy bone between them, offering protection to body organs and providing a surface for muscle attachment. The spongy bone also houses bone marrow, where blood cells are produced.
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The primary mRNA transcript is edited much as you edit a research paper before submitting it. Which of the following editing processes is correctly related to the analogy? A. cross out unnecessary phrases: B. cut out introns capitalize beginning of sentences: C. add a poly-A tail punctuate each sentence: D. insert a stop codon proofread paper: E. DNA polymerase replaces wrong bases
Answer:
Cross out unnecessary phrases: Cut out introns.Explanation:
The mRNA is a transcript of DNA . Primary mRNA transcript is edited before translation.
Mature mRNA is transcribed into protein, which is the final product of central dogma.
mRNA contains introns and exons , introns are removed by splicing.
the analogy of mRNA editing is Cross out unnecessary phrases: Cut out introns.
The salivary amylase gene (AMY1) is present in two diploid copies in chimpanzees. Humans are known to have between 6-15 copies, an adaptation that is thought to be related to the high-starch diet of humans. This difference among humans is an example of:_______.
Evolution and Natural Selection
Explanation:
Salivary amylase gene (AMY1) copy number is correlated positively with salivary amylase protein levels, and that individuals from populations with high-starch diets have on average more AMY1 copies than those with traditionally low-starch diets. Higher AMY1 copy numbers and protein levels likely improve the digestion of starchy foods, and may buffer against the fitness-reducing effects of intestinal disease.
Chimpanzees did not feed much on starchy food and thus had only diploid copies of AMY1 gene. However, humans have 6-15 copies of AMY1 gene because of high consumption of starchy food. Therefore, as the evolution of chimpanzees occured, humans adapted itself to what changes in their habitat.
Histones are:____________ a) found in polyribosomes. b) enzymes found in lysosomes. c) proteins of the cytoskeleton. d) proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus. e) on the surface of rough endoplasmi
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Histone coat DNA
Select the correct statement about blood flow. A) It is relatively constant through all body organs. B) It is measured in mm Hg. C) It is greatest where resistance is highest. D) Blood flow through the entire vascular system is proportional to cardiac output.
Answer:
The correct option is (D). The value of cardiac output in the case of the human heart is approx. 5 liters in a minute. The multiplication product of heart rate and stroke volume gives the cardiac output.
Explanation:
The blood flow serves as the parameter for the calculation of cardiac output. For the restoration of homeostasis, increase or decrease in the cardiac output leads to the simultaneous increase and decrease in the blood flow and pressure respectively. Also, the reduction of cardiac output and venous return signifies the higher value of the tidal volume. The associated parameters namely stroke volume and heart rate is also affected by certain factors. Some of them includes age, gender, contractility, heart size and duration of contraction.
Besides the flow of blood in the body depends on the oxygen requirement of the target cell.
The correct statement about blood flow - D) Blood flow through the entire vascular system is proportional to cardiac output.
Blood flowis the movement of blood through the vessels from arteries to the capillaries and then into the veins
reaches almost every cell in the body and returned to the lungs after removing oxygen.The heart is the organ that regulates this flow by pumping it to the various body parts.different parts of the body might have different flow rates.the amount of blood the heart pumps each minute which is called cardiac output is proportional to Blood flow through the entire vascular system.Thus, the correct statement about blood flow - D) Blood flow through the entire vascular system is proportional to cardiac output.
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High blood sugar Select one: a. Is termed hypoglycemia and stimulates alpha islet cells to produce glucagon b. Causes beta islet cells to produce glucagon c. Results in the the hypothalamus releasing insulin into the blood d. Stimulates the release of insulin by beta islet cells
Answer:Stimulates the release of insulin by beta islet cells
Explanation:High blood sugar level is called hyperglycemia.
It is very important for the body to regulate it's blood sugar level. This is done by hormones; insulin and glucagon.
When blood sugar rises, the beta cells of the pancreas produces insulin. This insulin reduces the blood sugar level by storing up glucose in the body.
High blood sugar level leads to diabetes.this condition occurs when the pancreas does not produce Insulin or produces insufficient insulin or the body becomes resistance to the activity of insulin.
Patients with diabetes have to take shots of insulin in order to keep their blood sugar level within the normal range.
When the blood sugar level is low, glucagon is produced by the alpha cells in the pancrease.glucagon converts stored glucose back into forms the body can use .
The correct option is (d). High blood sugar stimulates the release of insulin by beta islet cells.
When blood sugar levels rise, the beta cells in the pancreas are stimulated to release insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps cells throughout the body absorb glucose and use it for energy. This process lowers blood sugar levels, counteracting the state of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar).
Option a is incorrect because hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar, not high blood sugar. Hypoglycemia stimulates alpha islet cells to produce glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels.
Option b is incorrect because high blood sugar does not cause beta islet cells to produce glucagon; rather, it stimulates the production of insulin.
Option c is incorrect because the hypothalamus does not release insulin; insulin is released by the beta cells of the pancreas. The hypothalamus is involved in regulating many body functions, including hunger and thirst, but insulin release is not one of them.
These multicellular plants all have something in common, other than being autotrophic. Unlike moss and liverworts, they can grow to
great heights and survive in diverse environments. This is because there is a system for intercellular communication, that moves
substances throughout the plant; water and nutrients up from the ground and glucose from photosynthetic tissue to all parts of the
plant.
What is responsible for this intercellular interaction in higher plants?
es ))
hormones
B)
plasmodesmata
C)
xylem and phloem
D)
meristematic cells
A 12-year-old boy with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome presents with palpitations for the past hour. His blood pressure is 110/62 mm Hg and pulse is 166 bpm. The ECG reveals a narrow-complex tachycardia. Vagal maneuvers are ineffective. Which of the following is the next most appropriate management?
a) Adenosine
b) Cardioversion
c) Procainamide
d) Radiofrequency ablation
Answer: A- Adenosine
Explanation: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is regarded in comparison with prevalent heart condition that makes the human heart to beat rapidly in an unusual way for an interval of time. However, Adenosine is a drug or medicine that is introduced into the body with a syringe after vagal maneuvers we're ineffective to reduce the heart rate of the patient.
Please help, which is a characteristic of living organisms? (Select all that apply.)
Answer:
living organisms make more living organisms.
living organisms adapt and evolve.
living organisms move and breath.
If the trade in tiger products is banned, tiger reserves are guarded by well equipped staff, communities abutting tiger habitat are given a stake in protecting tigers, and the makers of traditional medicines can be persuaded that tiger parts are not needed, then tiger poaching will be halted, habitat and life sustaining prey will be restored, and the immanent extinction of tigers in the wild will be averted. a. Non argument. b. Argument; conclusion: The trade in tiger products is banned. c. Argument; conclusion: Tiger poaching will be halted. d. Argument; conclusion: The makers of traditional medicines.. not needed.
Explanation:
An argument consists of connecting pieces of information that are well backed and supported by facts thereby leading to a validated conclusion In this passage, the terms and conditions resulting in the halting of tiger poaching are based on an assumption or supposition. An argument has two essential cases a) A claim with true premises and b) True premises supporting the claimThis passage represents flawed arguments and hence it must be categorized as non-argumentHence, the right answer is option a " Non argument"
It's easier to train a pigeon to peck for a food reward than to flap its wings for a food reward. This illustrates the importance of ________ in learning.
Answer:
It's easier to train a pigeon to peck for a food reward than to flap its wings for a food reward. This illustrates the importance of Shaping in learning.
Explanation:
The Shaping process involves the steps which makes or even tempts any individual to carry out such actions which are not natural or does not belongs to the innate system of the individual but there are some influencing factors involved for the organism which makes to under go the very process that happens.
A scientist wants to change the DNA of a sexually reproducing organism and have the new DNA present in every cell of the organism. In order to do this after fertilization, she would change the DNA in the:_______1. Zygote2. Placenta3. Testes of the father4. Overies of the mother
Answer:
1. Zygote
Explanation:
A zygote is formed due to the fertilization of the female egg by the sperm cell.
A zygote cell is eukaryotic in nature. It is also a diploid cell because it is the coming together of a sperm cell which is a haploid cell and a female egg which is also a haploid cell.
A zygote cell contains DNA from both the sperm and the egg.
This is why in other to change the DNA of a sexually reproducing organism after fertilization and have an new DNA present in every cell of the organism, the scientist would have to change the DNA in the Zygote.
The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. The rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. This forms a joint that allows for ________.
Answer: hinge like motion of the forearm
Explanation:
The trochlea is the rough hourglass shaped structure that can be found on the distal end of the humerus. The trochlea articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna. This structure performs the function of the hinge joint in the forearm and allows the functions like movements of the circumduction, flexion and extension muscles. These movements does not take place in the antero-posterior side of the humerus.
A sample of the tissue from an inflamed, pus-filled area on the lower leg is treated with KOH and stained with GMS. Under the microscope golden brown spheres are visible. With what disease are these observations consistent?
Answer:
chromoblastomycosis
Explanation:
Here is the complete question;. A sample of the tissue from an inflamed, pus-filled area on the lower leg is treated with KOH and stained with GMS. Under the microscope golden brown spheres are visible. What disease are these observations consistent with?
A) pityriasis
B) fungemia
C) chromoblastomycosis
D) mycetoma
E) sporotrichosis
Answer is
C) chromoblastomycosis
Chromoblastomycosis is a chronic fungal infection of the skin and the subcutaneous tissue caused by traumatic inoculation of a specific group of dematiaceous fungi (usually Fonsecaea pedrosoi, Phialophora verrucosa, Cladosporium carrionii, or Fonsecaea compacta) through the skin.
What part of your ear is responsible for the popping sensation you feel when you’re flying in an airplane?
Answer:
Eustachian tube
Explanation:
Which is secreted by osteoblasts during bone deposition?
Osteoblasts, during bone deposition, secret an extracellular matrix made up of collagen and other proteins. This matrix is later mineralized to form bone tissue.
Explanation:The cells known as osteoblasts play a crucial role in the process of bone formation and growth. During the process of bone deposition, osteoblasts are actively involved in secreting an extracellular matrix that consists of collagen and other proteins. This matrix subsequently mineralizes to form bone tissue. Hence, in answer to your question: osteoblasts secrete an extracellular matrix, essentially made up of collagen and other proteins, during the process of bone deposition.
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Osteoblasts, which are involved in bone formation, secrete osteoid, an uncalcified matrix that hardens into bone when mineral salts are deposited onto it. Trapped within this hardened matrix, osteoblasts then transform into osteocytes, the primary and most common cell type in mature bone.
Explanation:Osteoblasts, the bone cells responsible for forming new bone, secrete osteoid, which is an uncalcified matrix. This osteoid hardens within a few days as mineral salts are deposited on it, thus entrapping the osteoblasts within. Once entrapped within this matrix, the osteoblasts transform into osteocytes, which are the primary cells of mature bone and the most common type of bone cell.
Osteoblasts are found in the growing portions of bone, including the periosteum and endosteum, and they do not divide. They synthesize and secrete the collagen matrix and calcium salts, vital components for bone formation. This process is crucial in maintaining the mineral concentration of the matrix, improving bone density, and ensuring healthy bone growth.
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Identify the lysogenic virus:
A. Measles
B. Chicken pox
C. Small pox
D. Flu
Answer:
Flu
Explanation:
In order to survive, all organisms must carry out 1) autotrophic nutrition 2) heterotrophic nutrition 3) enzyme-controlled reactions 4) the process of reproduction
Explanation:
(3) In order to survive, all organisms must carry out enzyme-controlled reactions.
Enzymes is the Most of the responses that happen in living life forms are chemical controlled. They are along these lines explicit in the responses that they catalyze one chemical will respond with particles of one substrate. The site of the response happens in a territory on the outside of the protein called the active site. Enzymes can be influenced by an assortment of elements, for example, temperature, pH, and focus. Chemicals work best inside explicit temperature and pH ranges, and imperfect conditions can make a protein lose its capacity to tie to a substrate.The most of the enzyme has an optimum pH range.All organisms need to carry out essential processes like organismal nutrition and enzyme-controlled reactions to survive, and maintain homeostasis. Organisms can be autotrophs or heterotrophs based on their mode of obtaining nutrients. Individual survival does not depend on the ability to reproduce, but does require energy transformation and stable internal conditions.
All living organisms require certain essential processes to survive. One of the foundational aspects is organismal nutrition, which determines how an organism acquires energy necessary for cellular functions. In terms of nutrition, living entities can be classified into groups such as photoautotrophs, who obtain energy from light, and heterotrophs, who gain energy by consuming other organisms.
Another key process is the ability to conduct enzyme-controlled reactions. These reactions are crucial for converting energy into a usable form (usually ATP) and facilitating the growth, repair, and reproduction of the organism. Additionally, organisms must maintain a stable internal environment, often referred to as homeostasis, which allows them to function effectively in varying external conditions.
While reproduction is an important life process for the continuation of a species, it is not essential for the survival of an individual organism. Therefore, not all organisms must reproduce to survive, but all must carry out enzyme-controlled reactions and maintain homeostasis to continue living.
Anterograde movement of transition vesicles is from __________. Anterograde movement of transition vesicles is from __________. the rough ER to the trans Golgi the trans Golgi to secrete at the plasma membrane the rough ER to the cis Golgi the cis Golgi to the trans Golgi
Correct Question:
Anterograde movement of transition vesicles is from __________.
A. the rough ER to the trans Golgi.
B. the trans Golgi to secrete at the plasma membrane.
C. the rough ER to the cis Golgi.
D. the cis Golgi to the trans Golgi.
Answer:
C. the rough ER to the cis Golgi
Explanation:
Vesicles are small enclosed sacs located inside or outside a cell. They are formed whenever there is a need for secretion of substances or transportation of materials from one organelle to another organelle within cell. Vesicles can also be used to store nutrients or water in the cell.
We have 3 classes of vesicles and they are:
a. Lysosomes
b. Transition or transport vesicles
c. Vacuoles.
The anterograde movement of transition vesicles is from the rough Endoplasmic Reticulum to the cis Golgi apparatus.
This movement takes place when proteins are made in the ribosomes found in the Endoplasmic Reticulum. The transition vesicles now transport this proteins from the rough Endoplasmic Reticulum to the cis Golgi apparatus where they get matured before they are released into the cytoplasm.
If you put $7850 in the atm each day, what percent of the days in a month should you expect to run out of cash
Answer:
23.33%
Explanation:
Money put in ATM per day=$7850
We have to find the percent of days in a month you should expect to run out of cash.
Form given data
There are 7 days in which you run out cash more than $7850
Total number of days in a month=30
Percent formula:[tex]\frac{corresponding \;days}{Total\;number\;of\;days}\times 100[/tex]
Using the formula
Percent of the days in a month you should expect to run out of cash=[tex]\frac{7}{30}\times 100[/tex]=23.33%
Part A How do the potential energy and the kinetic energy change when the skateboarder is at the top or the bottom of the hill? Why do you think this change occurs?
Answer:
The potential energy (P.E) and the kinetic energy (K.E) are two types of distinct energy that is commonly observed in our day-today's life.
Usually, K.E is defined as a type of energy that is produced when an object is in motion. Where, as P.E is a type of energy that is stored in an object when that object is placed at a certain height.
In the given condition, when the skateboarder is at the top of the hill, then at that position, it is comprised of maximum P.E. As the he slowly comes down the hill, then the P.E gradually decreases, and the K.E gradually increases. This shows the P.E is slowly changing into the K.E. And as it comes down, the K.E increases, and eventually when he stops, then both the K.E and P.E becomes zero.
This changes occurs because energy can never be created nor destroyed, and it changes from one form to another.
Answer:
The potential energy and kinetic energy are always in flux. At the top of the hill, potential energy is at its highest and kinetic energy is at its lowest because the skateboarder stops for just a moment before being pulled down the hill by the force of gravity. At the bottom of the hill, kinetic energy is the highest because the skateboarder reaches maximum speed.
Explanation:
PLATO
The following are assessment finding for a client with pre-eclampsia: blood pressure 158/100; urinary output 50 mL/hour; lungs clear to auscultation; urine protein 11 on dipstick; edema of the hands, and feet. On the next hourly assessment, which new assessment finding would be an indication of worsening of the pre-eclampsia
1)Blood pressure 158/104
2)urinary output 20ml per hour
3)Reflexes 21
4)Platelet count 150,000
Answer: The correct answer is (2) urinary output 20ml per hour
Explanation:
Preeclampsia is a condition in pregnant women, or could develop after delievry, where her blood pressure rises significantly, >140/90 mmHg(recorded on two occasions,atleast 4 hours apart).Moreover urine test indicates protein in her urine(proteinuria), swelling particularly of hands,legs and feet(edema),severe headaches along with many other symtoms.
On the next hourly assessment,
• The client's BP was recorded as 158/104, which is almost the same as it was initially recorded,i.e 158/100, which means her BP did not rise significantly.
•The client's reflexes are normal
•The client's platelet count is normal too, although it is on a lower side(normal range is between 150,000-450,000)
•Decrease in urinary output(20ml/hr) is an indication of worsening of preeclampsia because this indicates there is decreased renal perfusion which may subsequently lead to decreased GFR(glomerular filtration rate).
Adrian is recovering from schizophrenia. She has been taking high doses of antipsychotic medications for a very long period of time and has begun to experience uncontrollable movements of her mouth and tongue that make her appear as if she were chewing food in a very exaggerated way. Adrian is experiencing the symptoms of:__________
a) angina.
b) tardive dyskinesia.
c) blepharochalasis.
d) scleritis.
Answer:
Tardive dyskinesia.
Explanation:
Schizophrenia may be defined as the condition in which the individual is unable to accept reality and interpret the reality in different ways. The symptoms are hallucination, disrupted speech and nehativity.
Tardive dyskenia is the medical condition in which the individual cannot control their hand and body movements. This condition might occur due to the medication that have been taken to treat the schizophrenia. The drugs inhibits the effects of dopamine that causes tardive dyskenia.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Tardive dyskinesia is a problem raised due to side effect of the antipsychotic medications. These classes of drugs are used to treat the medical conditions like schizophrenia and other mental disorders.
In this problem there is an uncontrolled movement of the body parts.One might blink eye, movement of tongue in such a way that it appears like chewing food, waving the arms without any reason.
Hence, the correct answer is option B
Which of the following is least likely to be a source of new whole genes in a genome? A. Gene duplication B. Horizontal gene transmission C. Point mutations D. Transposable element insertion
Answer:
C. Point mutations
Explanation:
Point mutation involves the insertion or deletion of a base pair or the substitution of a single base for another in a gene. Point mutation rarely cause a significant change in a gene.
Gene duplication involves the repetition of a gene-containing DNA region in an organism. It can result from errors in DNA replication/repair and other circumstances in the cell.
Horizontal gene transmission involves the transmission of gene-carrying DNA materials between different genomes of different species of organisms.
Transposable elements are regions of DNA that have the ability to move from one place to another within the same genome. They often create a kind of mutation and change the genetic identities of cells.
The correct option is C.