Answer: the client will show and explain how to take care of herself. (Self-perineal)
Explanation:
The client should be able to explain and show appropriate self-perineal care.
Perineal care cleanses, comforts, and prevents infection. The nurse must ensure that the client understands perineal care for the immediate postpartum recovery period. Vaginal lochia is initially bloody 1 to 3 days postpartum. Rho(D) immune globulin should also be given 72 hours after delivery if laboratory results shows that the infant is Rh-negative and the mother hasn't been sensitized to Rh antigens.
Key outcomes within the first 12 hours postpartum for a client with an episiotomy include monitoring blood loss, preventing infection, managing pain, and initiating breastfeeding to stimulate oxytocin release and aid in hemostasis.
For a postpartum client who is Rh-negative and has undergone a vaginal delivery involving a second-degree median episiotomy, several key outcomes should be achieved within the first 12 hours:
Monitoring for Blood Loss: Close observation of the mother for any significant blood loss is crucial. Excessive bleeding may indicate complications.Infection Prevention: Ensuring that the episiotomy site is kept clean to prevent any signs of infection. Parental care education and hygiene practices are essential.Pain Management: Administering appropriate pain relief measures to help the mother cope with discomfort from the episiotomy.Initiating Breastfeeding: Encouraging breastfeeding as soon as possible to stimulate oxytocin release, which helps in uterine contraction and hemostasis.These outcomes are aimed at ensuring maternal health and proper postpartum recovery.
in 1973, Lepper and colleagues conducted an experiment in which children did drawings. Some of the children were promised a reward while others received a surprise reward. The researchers found that the children who received the expected reward for drawing _____.
Answer:
were unlikely to draw independently at a later time
The home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dl/ The client is taking cholestyramine. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching:___________.1. Constipation and bloating might be a problem.2. I will continue to watch my diet and continue to reduce fats.3. Walking a mile each day will help to solve the process.4. I will continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store.
Answer:
4. I will continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store
Explanation:
Further teaching is needed because of drug interaction between cholestyramine and nicotinic acid. Cholestyramine prevent full absorption of Nicotinic acid, therefore continuous intake of this will over load the liver, causing liver damage.
In addition, interaction of the two drugs may lead to liver damage, because nicotinic acids inhibit enzyme for cholesterol synthesis in the liver and aid withdrawal of the deposited cholesterol from the blood,Cholestyramine also works on the liver to remove low -density lipoprotein while increasing levels of high density lipo-protein.Thus putting further strain on the liver.
However, the nurse should summarise that; if the you wish to continue to take nicotinic acid,it should be under the prescription; Cholestyramine should be taken 4-6hrs before or after taken nicotinic acid, although not recommended.
This interaction may also lead to glucose intolerance.
What actions do you think are most successful in preventing dropouts? Why? Write at least one paragraph.
Answer: There are several reasons why people, especially those in the category of students, drop out. But some actions can be done to reduce this event.
Explanation:
People for various reasons are prone to leave, especially those in the educational field. When a person begins his studies he has strong motivations that allow him to stay, but then some situations and eventualities can lead to someone leaving. The reasons why a student leaves are diverse such as illness, economic problems, poor motivation towards studying, not having chosen the right career, among others.
Some of how you can decrease and prevent a student from dropping out is aimed at giving clear information. A student who chooses a career does it because of the ideal he has and how his whole process will be when he sees that things are not going as he imagined he can be frustrated so it is important to express clearly about the career of its choice. That the student understands the pace of studies that career has and the commitment it entails will help it be more prepared to face what is coming. Another action that can be taken to prevent abandonment is to offer support. When a person is going through a difficult situation, the first thing they think about is abandoning their studies because they do not have the concentration to focus on it, support is vital so that the student knows that it is not alone and that there are other alternatives to look for a solution.
The __________ holds that people typically develop romantic relationships with people who are similar to themselves in physical attractiveness and other traits.
Answer:
attraction-similarity hypothesis
Explanation:
According to the attraction-similarity hypothesis, the more similarity people share together, the more the attraction they have between each other, which would easily make both develop romantic relationships. For example, if two persons are from the same religion, studied medicine and are practicing in the medical field, they are from similar family background, the possibility of both developing romantic relationship is high as both would typically get attracted to each other or want to be around each other.
A 50-year old teacher presents to the urgent care clinic for evaluation of paralysis in her face. She has a history of upper respiratory infection 2 weeks before the onset of these symptoms. She states that her face is dropping and that she is unable to close her eye. on physical examination, you note that her forehead is smooth on the right side, her palpebral fissure appears widened, and her nasolabial fold appears flattened, and she is drooling. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
The most likely diagnosis for the teacher's symptoms is Bell's palsy.
Bell's palsy is an acute, unilateral, peripheral facial nerve paralysis that is idiopathic in nature. The presentation of facial drooping, inability to close the eye, a smooth forehead on the affected side, widened palpebral fissure, flattened nasolabial fold, and drooling are all consistent with this condition. The history of an upper respiratory infection two weeks prior to the onset of facial paralysis is also a common preceding event for Bell's palsy, suggesting a possible viral etiology or reactivation of a latent infection affecting the facial nerve. The physical examination findings of unilateral facial weakness involving both the upper and lower face, without other neurological deficits, further support the diagnosis of Bell's palsy In summary, the constellation of symptoms including unilateral facial weakness, a history of recent upper respiratory infection, and the specific physical examination findings in the absence of other neurological signs point to Bell's palsy as the most likely diagnosis.
Our ____ is determined by how we feel about our ____.
Self-esteem / self-image
Self-image / self- esteem
Self-image / self-perception
Self-perception / self-esteem
Our self-esteem is determined by our self-image, which is part of our self-concept interrelated with the beliefs we hold about our own control over outcomes and the congruency between our real and ideal selves.
Explanation:Our self-esteem is determined by how we feel about our self-image. This statement reflects the interconnection between self-esteem, which encompasses our overall sense of self-worth or personal value, and self-image, which is the mental picture we hold of ourselves. This mental picture includes our perceptions and attitudes towards our abilities, appearance, and behaviors. When we have a positive self-image, we are more likely to have higher self-esteem because we believe that we control our own outcomes. However, this can be affected by our locus of control, which is a belief that we either do control (internal locus of control) or do not control (external locus of control) the outcomes in our lives. Building a positive self-concept is imperative, and according to humanistic theorist Carl Rogers, it involves achieving congruence between our real self and our ideal self. As we experience more congruence, our self-esteem can increase, leading to a more fulfilled life.
In developing a measure of "need for cognition" (the degree to which people like thinking and problem-solving), Dr. Jonason asks his participants to rate their agreement with the following statement: "I frequently solve and enjoy solving crossword puzzles and Sudoku puzzles." What is the problem with this question?A) It is a forced-choice question.
B) It is a double-barreled question.
C) It has a double negative.
D) It is a leading question.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A double barreled question can be defined as the question in which there is more than one issue raised in the question but only allows only the answer of one question.
These questions are indicated by the word and in between the two of the questions. The main problem is it cannot be determined that which one question is answered out of those two questions.
Which factor is a cause of diversity in families? A. discrimination B. social class C. prejudice D. old age
Social class is the factor that causes diversity in families
Explanation:
The Golden rule of India is ‘Unity in Diversity” which runs the entire country and families in it.
Among Indian families staying across the length and breadth of India, there is a huge diversity mainly because of the social classes. The social classes divide Indian communities based on their religion, caste, and economic conditions mainly.
Religiously, Indian families diversify and follow any of the religions like Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, Sikhism, Parsi, Bhuddhism, Jainism and many more. With Hinduism being the majority community followed, people belonging to other religions like Islam or Christianity are called minority communities.
Caste or community wise, Indian families are broadly classified as forward class communities, backward class communities, most backward class communities, scheduled class/tribe etc. People belonging to various castes are placed accordingly into each community.
Economically, Indian families are classified as upper class, middle class (upper and lower) and lower class.
Answer:
social class
Explanation:
Having no plan for retaining or destroying records is a symptom of what type of problem? a. Poor use of equipment b. Excessive records costs c. Management d. Insufficient filing procedures
In recessive disorders linkage studies primarily study affected individuals because: Select one: A. They have high heterozygosity B. They have carrier parents C. They have known genotypes D. They are frequent in the population E. They are heterozygous for their mutations
Answer:
C. They have known genotypes
Explanation:
The genotype is the part of the genetic makeup of a cell, and therefore of any individual, which determines one of its characteristics (phenotype).
One's genotype differs subtly from one's genomic sequence, because it refers to how an individual differs or is specialized within a group of individuals or a species. So, typically, one refers to an individual's genotype with regard to a particular gene of interest and the combination of alleles the individual carries (see homozygous, heterozygous).
Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
Genetic disorders can either be expressed as recessive or dominant. For the dominant genetic disorders to be observable, it is enough if only one of the parents pass on the abnormal gene to their offspring therefore there are two possible genotypes.
On the other hand if the disorder is recessive, the person with the disorder must have taken the abnormal gene from both parents and therefore their genotypes are known which makes it easier for the scientists' studies.
I hope this answer helps.
An athlete is used to performing high-intensity aerobic exercise; however, she will now be changing to longer-duration, submaximal exercise on a regular basis. This change in training strategy will typically result in what changes concerning energy supply?
Answer: This change in training strategy will typically result in
transition from almost exclusively carbohydrate to mostly fat.
A woman is in active labor. As labor progresses, she becomes irritable and complains of feeling increasingly uncomfortable. She is 8 cm dilated. Which of these actions should the nurse take first?
a. Contact the physician
b. Coach the patient in proper breathing and relaxation techniques
c. Administer an analgesic
d. Remove the fetal monitor to allow the client to move around
Answer:
a. Contact the physician
Manuel was born with male genitalia but deep down has felt like a female since he was in grade school. Sometimes he wears women's outfits and it just makes him feel happy and whole - and people who meet him like this even think he is a woman. What is Manuel feeling?Gender dysphoria
Manuel's feelings can be understood as gender dysphoria, a condition where one's gender identity does not align with their assigned biological sex, often leading to psychological distress. People with gender dysphoria may identify as transgender and seek to transition through medical interventions and by adopting the social roles of their identified gender.
Manuel's experience of feeling like a female despite being born with male genitalia is an example of gender dysphoria. This is a condition that involves a conflict between a person's physical or assigned gender and the gender with which they identify. Individuals who have a strong psychological and emotional identification with a gender that is different from their biological sex are often referred to as transgender.
Gender dysphoria is recognized in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), requiring a persistent identification with a different gender and the presence of significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. For individuals like Manuel who experience gender dysphoria, they may seek to transition, which can involve medical interventions such as hormone replacement therapy and surgeries, as well as adopting the dress and social roles of the gender with which they identify.
Transgender individuals may undergo these changes as a means to align their physical appearance with their gender identity, thereby reducing the psychological distress they experience. The process of transitioning, however, is about more than just the physical alterations; it involves embracing one's gender identity and finding a comfortable expression of self that may challenge conventional gender norms and stereotypes.
Which type of health insurance plan is not considered a managed care plan?
preferred provider organization (PPO)
traditional
health maintenance organization (HMO)
point of service (POS) plan
Answer:
Traditional
Explanation:
Managed health care plans are health insurance plans. Certain health insurance providers team up with hospital and medical facilities also known as health care providers so that they can provide medical services to people at a very reduced price and rate.
Managed health care plan can be used as a substitute for traditional health care plan due to the reduced price and rate they provide for their members.
Examples of these Managed health care plans are :
a) Health Maintenance Organization (HMO): This is a type of health insurance plan that employers of labour in a organisation provide for their employees. It helps to provide health care services at a reduced cost and rate. HMO plans are restricted and has a very low flexibility because the medical facilities you can use has already been chosen for you.
b)Preferred Provider Organization (PPO): This is an health insurance plan that reduces the cost of medical services provided to employees in an organization. It is quite similar to the HMO plan. The only difference is that it is not restricted to a particular medical facility or a particular doctor. In this plan you can choose the doctor that you would like to attend to you. It is a flexible plan. A member can choose between a medical facility (or doctor) in the Preferred Provider Organization or a medical facility (or doctor )outside the organization. The Preferred Provider Organization would cover the cost.
c)Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO): This is an health insurance plan that people who choose this plan or employees in an organization can make use of any health care provider or medical facilities in this organization. If any person makes use of health services from any health provider that is not linked to Exclusive Provider Organization, such a person who have to cover such expenses or fees from their own pocket.
d) Point of Service Plan (POS): This is an health care insurance plan whereby the person using this plan if or when sick has to contact a Doctor in the Point of Service network first , agree on the cost or price of the service at a discount rate before proceeding to choose the service in the point of service plan that is best suited for them and would benefit them the most.
Answer:
Traditional is not considered a managed care plan
Explanation:
Traditional is not considered a managed care plan because its a form of health insurance that only pays for part of your healthcare, it's also called fee-for-service-plan while managed health care plans have contract with health providers to provide care ti members at a reduced cost. The health care providers make up the plan network and they have network rules.
There are three types of managed health care and they are:
▪Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
▪Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
▪Point Of Service (POS) plan.
________ is a relatively mild disorder in which children have relatively good verbal language, milder nonverbal language problems, and a restricted range of interests and relationships.
Answer:
Asperger's Syndrome
Explanation:
Asperger's Syndrome is a syndrome that affect a person ability to socialize and communicate leading to development disorder of the person.
Asperger syndrome is a form of autism because of the inability or difficulty of the person to socialize and communicate effectively by interacting with others.
Therefore ASPERGER'S SYNDROME is a relatively mild disorder in which children have relatively good verbal language, milder nonverbal language problems, and a restricted range of interests and relationships
Miguel woke up one morning in a strange hotel in detroit. he has no memory of how he got there and cannot remember his name or where he is actually from. based on this, miguel is most likely experiencing dissociative a. amnesia. b. personality disorder. c. identity disorder. d. fugue.
Answer:
he definitely has amnesia
Explanation:
the other ones just don't make sense
Answer:
A. Amnesia
Explanation:
Dissociative amnesia occurs when a person blocks out and he's unable to remember important events and this can be due to an overwhelming traumatic event. Miguel went through a traumatic event at the hotel and hus brain dissociated it (blocked completely) leaving him to remember nothing.
1. Why is the direction of the wave of contraction so important in the heart?
2. Describe the flow of blood beginning at the right atrium and ending at the aorta.
3. Provide one reason the proper amount of iron is so important in your diet.
4. Why can polycythemia potentially cause a heart problem?
Explanation:
The direction of waves of contraction in the heart are very important because they represent the cardiac contraction pathway. It begins from sinoatrial node due to spontaneous depolarization (nodal cells) and triggering of action potentials and transmission of the same to the cardiac cells taking part in the conduction pathway in the cardiac muscle fibers.
The blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle via the tricuspid valves when the atrium contracts and ventricles expand. Once the ventricles receive its full amount of blood the tricuspid valves shuts to prevent any backflow of blood into the atrium. When the ventricles contract, blood enter the aorta through the aortic valve.
Iron is an important mineral required by the body to produce the ‘heme’ part of the protein hemoglobin present in the red blood cells of the blood. Oxygen binds with hemoglobin and is carried via blood to various parts of the body. Hence intake of recommended dietary allowance of iron is very important since deficiency can lead to various conditions like anemia.
Polycythemia vera is a condition which leads to increased production of red blood cells. this increases the blood volume and thickens the blood and slows down the blood flow and causes blood clots. The slowness of blood flow and formation of blood clots can lead to heart failure and heart attacks respectively.
The direction of waves of contraction in the heart are very important because they represent the cardiac contraction pathway. It decides where the blood reflux will take place.
The blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle via the tricuspid valves when the atrium contracts and ventricles expand. Once the ventricles receive its full amount of blood, the tricuspid valves close to prevent any backflow into the atrium. When the ventricles contract, blood enters the aorta through the aortic valve.
Iron is important because it produces the heme part of hemoglobin in the red blood cells of the blood. Lack of iron can lead to many conditions.
Polycythemia vera is a condition which leads to more production of red blood cells. This increases the blood volume and it thickens the blood and slows down the blood flow and causes blood clots. The slowness of blood can lead to heart failure and heart attacks.
(This is a simplified version of someone else's answer, please don't come at me lol)
Complex carbohydrates: a. are small molecules containing six carbon atoms b. are long chains of sugar units arranged to form starch or fiber c. include both single sugar units and linked pairs of sugar units
Answer:
b. are long chains of sugar units arranged to form starch or fiber
Explanation:
Complex carbohydrates are carbohydrates that are made up several sugar molecules that link together to form a long chain. Complex molecules provide a more lasting energy to the body as a result of their long chains which takes time to be broken down as they are converted to glucose in the blood. Examples of food that contain complex molecules include, beans, Fiber-rich vegetables, Fiber-rich fruits, whole grains, peas.
Final answer:
Complex carbohydrates, or polysaccharides, include starch, glycogen, cellulose, and chitin, serving as energy stores or structural materials in organisms.
Explanation:
Complex carbohydrates, also known as polysaccharides, are large carbohydrates that consist of long chains of monosaccharides (simple sugars). These chains may be unbranched or branched and can include hundreds to thousands of sugar units. Complex carbohydrates include starch, glycogen, cellulose, and chitin. Starch is produced by plants for energy storage, while glycogen serves the same purpose in animals and fungi. Cellulose is a major component of plant cell walls, providing structural support. Lastly, chitin is found in the exoskeleton of arthropods and cell walls of fungi. Complex carbohydrates play critical roles in energy storage and structural integrity within living organisms.
The maternal mortality ratio is: a. The number of pregnant women who die per 100,000 in a given year b. The number of women who die as a result of pregnancy and childbirth complications per 100,000 women in a given year c. The number of pregnant women who die per 10,000 live births in a given year d. The number of women who die as a result of pregnancy and childbirth complications per 100,000 live births in a given year
Answer:
D. The number of women who die as a result of pregnancy and childbirth complications per 100,000 live births in a given year
Explanation:
This encompasses the number of women who die as a result of pregnancy and other child birth complication per 100,000 live births in a given year.
Every death and complications associated with pregnancy and child birth all fall under this.
In order to improve the condition of your muscular system, you could participate in aerobic activities at least ________
Answer: 30 minutes, 3times a week.
Explanation:
Aerobic activity or Exercise which include: brisk walking, dancing, cycling, jogging, swimming and playing basketball are also
Muscle-strengthening activites. They increase the strength of the bones and muscles. Furthermore Muscular fitness activities which should work all the major muscle groups of your body, that includes the legs, the hips, the waist, the chest doing exercises like push ups, pull ups,sit ups and squats
Helps tune out muscles and fitness.
To gain the most from Exercises, one should at least do these activities 30 minutes 3 times weekly.
Answer:tt
30 minutes and 3 times a week
Explanation:
In order to improve the condition of the muscular system, the person should participate in aerobic activities at least 30 minutes in a day and should be done at least 3 times in a week.
The muscular system is made up of the muscles of the body.
A person can improve the condition of the muscular system through diet, intake of lots of water, by stretching and aerobic activities which can help repair and condition the entire muscular system and help to regulate the circulation of the blood.
An executive busy at work receives a phone call from a friend relating bad news. The executive makes a conscious effort to put this information out of mind and continues to work at the task at hand. The next day executive remembers that the friend telephoned but is unable to recall the message. Which defense mechanism does this behavior represent
Answer:
The correct answer is - suppression.
Explanation:
Suppression is the voluntary exclusion or disassociation from any feeling that might cause anxiety causing situations, or feelings. In this type of defense mechanism the brain voluntary exclude itself from the situations that can make an individual unnecessarily anxious.
In the given case the particular executive get a negative information which might lead him to cause anxiety so the his brain follows the suppression to avoid the situation.
Thus, the correct answer is - suppression.
A large health care system in the U.S. has established a program of tracking, evaluating, addressing, and preventing medical errors by its providers. This measure is most directly related to improving which aspect of the health care system?
The nurse is providing prenatal education to a group of pregnant teenagers. One of the group members asks about how the baby develops soon after birth. An accurate statement from the nurse about neonatal development would be which of the following
Answer:
what are the answer choices???
Explanation:
When you are sheltered from harm, your ______ need is being satisfied?
A) Belonging
B) Safety
C) Self-actualization
D) Physical
Answer:
I would say B) Safety
Explanation:
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? Then it should be safety since you are being sheltered from harm, making you safe. Physical needs maily involve the basics, like food or water.
After repeatedly drinking alcohol spiked with a nauseating drug, Dwayne, who has alcohol use disorder, fails to develop an aversion to alcohol because he blames his nausea on the drug, not the alcoholic drink. This illustrates the importance of ________ in classical conditioning.
Answer:
negative reinforcement
Explanation:
i took a test over it in psychology
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
yes
What is it called when someone gets sick from eating food contaminated with germs or toxins? A. Time/temperature control for safety/potentially hazardous foods B. Ptomaine poisoning C. Foodborne illness D. Raw food
Answer:
C. Foodborne illness
Explanation:
Foodborne illness is an illness caused by germs or toxins in food. This can happen because the food was prepared with dirty hands, not cleaned properly.
Some of its symptoms are nausea, diarrhea, cramps and vomits. Foodborne illness is another name for food poisoning.
Therefore, when someone gets sick from eating food contaminated with germs or toxins it is called Foodborne illness.
Answer:
C- Foodborne illness
Explanation:
Foodborne illness is a disease that affect someone that eat food which has been contaminated with bacteria, viruses and parasites and the symptoms include vomiting, nausea and cramping.
Foodborne illness can irritate the gastrointestinal tract due to the intake of food that is harmful to the body.
Foodborne illness can sometimes be severe if left untreated because any food we eat that is contaminated is simply food poison which is why we have to keep our environment clean, by ensuring that the food are properly preserved and the water are very clean before consuming or drinking it in order to avoid FOODBORNE ILLNESS.
Match the terms to their definition. 1. duration the outward roll of the foot during normal motion 2. foot strike the way your foot hits the ground when running 3. frequency maximum heart rate; the greatest number of times the heart can beat during one minute of exercise 4. heart rate monitor rotation of the foot inward so that the arch of the foot absorbs the majority of the body's weight. 5. intensity how hard one exercises 6. MHR a device that measures the heart rate of the person wearing it 7. pronation how long one exercises 8. supination how often one exercises 9. training zones levels of training intensity based on a percentage of MHR
Answer:
1. supination; the outward roll of the foot during normal motion
2. foot strike; the way your foot hits the ground when running
3. MHR; maximum heart rate; the greatest number of times the heart can beat during one minute of exercise
4. pronation; rotation of the foot inward so that the arch of the foot absorbs the majority of the body's weight.
5. intensity; how hard one exercises
6. heart rate monitor; a device that measures the heart rate of the person wearing it
7. duration; how long one exercises
8. frequency; how often one exercises
9. training zones; levels of training intensity based on a percentage of MHR
Explanation:
Recent research has indicated that sustainable weight loss is generally a result not of self-deprivation or adopting an extreme diet, but a healthy lifestyle that integrates a balanced diet, regular exercise, and a long-term approach. a. self-deprivation or adopting an extreme diet, but.
b. self-deprivation or the adoption of an extreme diet, but of.
c. self-deprivation or the adoption of an extreme diet, but.
d. depriving oneself or adopting an extreme diet, but.
e. depriving oneself or adopting an extreme diet, but that of.
Adopting a healthy lifestyle that integrates a balanced diet, regular exercise, and a long-term approach helps to sustainable weight loss is a true statement.
Explanation:
Sustainable weight loss is the key to a lifelong healthy body and mind. Adopting self-deprivation or following an extreme diet regime can provide temporary weight loss but only at the cost of the health. Such severe practices leads to nutritional imbalance and disorders like anorexia nervosa, anemia etc which might further deteriorate both the physical and mental health.
By following a healthy well-balanced diet which provides all the essential nutrients and having light but frequent meals is a healthy way of eating rather than extreme diets or self-deprivation.
Following a regular exercise practice is prime important for a health body as it will help to oxidize the excess fat in the body and burn the extra calories.
Adopting a healthy lifestyle by following both healthy eating and regular exercises on a long-term approach to attain sustainable healthier weight loss.
A healthy plan for losing weight includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. balancing carbohydrates, fats and proteins B. limiting sugar and alcohol intake
Answer:
B
limiting sugar and alcohol intake
Explanation:
Sugars are high in calories and this build of fat in the body.
The limiting sugar and alcohol intake. Thus option B is correct.
What is a health plan ?A health plan is a plan that states the impotence of eating healthy and includes all the essential elements that makes up a good and balanced diet for the body that include eggs, beans, meat and nuts, etc. It also includes the limited use of sugar and limited use of slat. Eating whole grains and fat-free diet.
Find out more information about the health plan.
brainly.com/question/2142190.
During assessment for cranial nerve functions, the client closes the eyes and begins to fall to one side. Which cranial nerve alteration causes this response?
Answer:
Vestibulocochlear nerve or VIII cranial nerve
Explanation:
The VIII cranial is one of the 12 cranial nerves present in the body. The VIII cranial is also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve as it comprises of two types of nerves which are: the vestibular nerves and the cochlear nerves.
The vestibular nerves are responsible for the body posture balance and the movements of the eye or the cochlear nerve send the auditory signals. So during the assessment of cranial nerves if the eyes and body posture changes then the cranial nerves responsible for this is the VIII cranial nerve.
Thus, the VIII cranial nerve is correct.