A client is being seen in the pediatric clinic for a middle ear infection. The client's mother reports that when the client develops an upper respiratory infection, an ear infection seems quick to follow. What contributes to this event? a. eustachian tubes.
b. genetics.
c. oropharynx.
d. epiglottis.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is - option a.

Explanation:

The eustachian tubes joins the pharynx and middle ear and this is the one of the way the infections of the upper respiratory infections affect the middle ear too.

As per the mother's statement it is clear that it develop due to the upper respiratory infections because of opening of the Eustachian tubes not by entic reasons as it occur immediate after the upper respiratory infections.

Thus, the correct answer is - option A.


Related Questions

Studies show that _____________ is the optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being

Answers

The answer is Eustress
Final answer:

Eustress is the optimal amount of stress that people need to promote their health and well-being.

Explanation:

The optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being is called eustress. Eustress is a type of positive stress that can motivate individuals to achieve their goals and perform well. Unlike negative stress, which can be harmful to health, eustress provides a sense of excitement, energy, and fulfillment.



An example of eustress is when a student prepares for an important exam. While there may be some pressure and nerves involved, the anticipation and motivation to succeed actually enhance their performance and overall well-being. It is important to note that the optimal amount of eustress may vary for each individual, as what may be motivating and beneficial for one person may be overwhelming for another.

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Hysterical disorders are forms of communication; they provide the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey. This statement BEST reflects the perspective of _____ theorists.

Answers

Answer:

Hysterical disorders are forms of communication; they provide the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey. This statement BEST reflects the perspective of cognitive theorists.

Explanation:

Cognitive psycology basically focuses on how people think, understand and know. It has emphasis on learning how people comprehend and represent the world around them and focus on conscious thinking. Also has emphasis on individual's active construction for understanding. It also provides  the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey.

Hence, this statement BEST reflects the perspective of cognitive theorists

In hospitals, it was common practice to clear the air bubble from a syringe by expelling a small amount of the syringe contents into the air. One microbiologist estimated that this practice resulted in the release of up to 30 liters of antibiotic into a typical hospital environment annually. How might this have brought about the appearance of antibiotic-resistant mutants in hospitals

Answers

Answer:

The ejection of syringe contents is to remove air bubbles that can be detrimental to patient health. When antibiotics are repeatedly released this way, microflora in the environment are exposed, albeit at non-lethal doses, which causes said micro-organisms to begin to develop means of neutralizing such antibiotics, thereby contributing to antibiotic resistance and mutations. Also, some syringe contents may not be anti-biotic in nature but they can have mutagenic effects on microbial genome at such concentrations.

Explanation:

Antibiotic resistance is the ability of bacteria or other microbes to resist the effects of an antibiotic. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria change in some way that reduces or eliminates the effectiveness of drugs, chemicals, or other agents designed to cure or prevent infections. The bacteria survive and continue to multiply causing more harm

Answer:

The more use and abuse of antibiotics, the more are the chances for bacteria to become antibiotic resistant mutants.

Explanation:

Antibiotic resistance usually occurs when bacteria changes, causing it to reduce or completely diminish the drug's effectiveness, which is prescribed to cure the infection. When bacteria become antibiotic resistant, they survive, continue to multiply and cause harm.

A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?

Answers

Answer:

internal evidence

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the factor that has proven most effective in this decision was internal evidence. This factor refers to information that has been gathered from the internal sources in which the contents have been discussed. Which in this scenario were the staff of an acute medical unit within the pilot program.

The nurse is discussing acne vulgaris with a group of adolescents. The teenagers make the following statements regarding the topic. Which statement is the most accurate regarding acne vulgaris?
a) "Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup."
b) "There is a new immunization that you can get to keep from having acne."
c) "My mom says I have acne because I eat too much chocolate."
d) "My next door neighbor told me that acne was caused by a fungus."

Answers

Answer:

A. Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's make-up

Explanation:

Acne is as a result of blockage of the pilosebaceous units (hair follicles and their accompanying sebaceous gland).

The make up blocks the pores and allows build up of dead cells which eventually breaks out as acne.

Answer:

a) Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup.

Explanation:

Acne vulgaris is a skin disease involving the sebaceous glands found at the root of hair follicles. It commonly occurs during the pubertal phase of growth when the oil glands are active. Acne vulgaris is characterized by pimples, blackheads, cysts, and spots which are mostly found on the face, back, neck, chest and shoulders.

Acne occurs when sebaceous glands are blocked and infected by a bacteria called propionibacterium acnes.

Risk factors and causes of acne vulgaris include; genetic factors, hot climate, oily and greasy makeups, menstruations and hormonal changes.

It can be treated by using over-the-counter medications such as benzoyl peroxide, sulfur, salicylic acid, azelaic acid, antibiotics and also soaps and gels etc.

You arrive at a local community center for a 56-year-old woman complaining of chest discomfort. The women tells you that she took one of her nitroglycerin tablets about 15 minutes ago, but she still has chest discomfort. Responding paramedics are approximately 10 minutes away. You should:

A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen
B. Assume that she is experiencing angina pectorals, administer oxygen, and perform a thorough physical exam.
C. Give her up to tow more nitroglycerin tablets, place her supine and elevate her legs, and update the responding paramedics
D. Place her in a semi sitting position, assist her in taking up to 3 more nitro tablets, and administer oxygen.

Answers

Answer:

A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen

Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?

ability to avoid seasonal illnesses

ability to go many years without seeing a doctor

ability to heal following injury

ability to run a marathon

Answers

The health benefit that is most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to go many years without seeing a doctor

Explanation:

Physical resilience is the ability of an individual to cope up with stress, adapt to various external and internal changes, at the same time maintain the body’s health and stamina.

Physical resilience is directly linked with a healthy body, overall well being, and a long healthy life which reduces the need for visits to a doctor or a healthcare facility to take care of any medical illness.

Healthy eating of nutritional foods, healthy mind with good mental stability, performing endurance exercises and resistance training will increase the physical resilience.

The correct option is 3. The health benefit most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to heal following injury.

Physical resilience refers to the capacity of the body to recover from or adjust easily to misfortune or change. In the context of health, this typically means the ability to bounce back from illness, injury, or other physical stressors.

Let's consider the options provided:

1. Ability to avoid seasonal illnesses: While this is a positive health outcome, it is more closely related to a strong immune system rather than physical resilience per se.

2. Ability to go many years without seeing a doctor: This could be indicative of good health, but it doesn't necessarily reflect physical resilience. It could also be due to a lack of access to healthcare services or a tendency to ignore health issues.

3. Ability to heal following injury: This is a direct measure of physical resilience. It reflects how well the body can repair itself and return to its previous state of health and functionality after suffering damage.

4. Ability to run a marathon: This reflects cardiovascular endurance and muscular fitness, which are components of physical fitness rather than resilience. While being fit can contribute to overall resilience, the ability to run a marathon is not as direct a measure of resilience as the ability to recover from injury.

The correct question is:

Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?

1. ability to avoid seasonal illnesses

2. ability to go many years without seeing a doctor

3. ability to heal following injury

4. ability to run a marathon

You are lying by the pool, relaxing with your eyes closed, and feeling drowsy. In this situation, the type of brain waves that would most likely show up on your EEGs are ________ waves.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is Alpha waves.

Explanation:

There are 5 types of brain waves

ThetaDeltaAlphaBeta Gamma

Alpha waves

They have a frequency of 8 to 12 hertz. Our brain produces these waves, when it is in a state of calm or peace. When our brain is not thinking or not doing anything but only relaxing and meditating. These waves are also produced when our mind is in a state of wakeful rest, like it is not sleeping but it is not thinking processing any thoughts. So the first waves to appear on EEG will be Alpha waves.

Answer:

Alpha waves

Explanation:

You are lying by the pool, relaxing with your eyes closed, and feeling drowsy. In this situation, the type of brain waves that would most likely show up on your electroencephalogram (EEGs) are ALPHA waves.

Alpha waves are shown in the electroencephalogram (EEG) when someone is in a wakeful state where the person is quietly resting and they are brainwaves that exists when a person is in a quiet flowing thought and meditation states.

Alpha brainwaves are dominant during quietly flowing thoughts, and in some meditative states which enable the brain to rest which aid the overall calmness and alertness of the mind and body integration.

Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from ______ syndrome.

Answers

Answer:

Turner syndrome.

Explanation:

Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.

Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.

Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.

Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from Turner syndrome.

What is Turner syndrome?

Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.  It may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood.  Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.

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Select the correct text in the passage.
Which are Jordan’s short-term goals?

Answers

Short-term goals is something you want to accomplish soon within the year. However, long-term goals usually take a year or more to accomplish due to time & planning. In this case, Jordan’s short term goals are saving money to subscribe to a health magazine, start an online blog, and read at least two good books on nutrition.

________ are a person's enduring favorable or unfavorable evaluations, emotional feelings, and action tendencies toward some object or idea. A. Values B. Discriminations C. Beliefs D. Attitudes

Answers

D. Attitudes is the answer

Answer:The answer is C

Explanation:attitude is the sign you show to tell how you feel about a person or conditions... By your attitudes it will be known weather the condition is favourable, enjoyable, etc

Dr. Frank is a therapist who believes that psychological disorders can be caused by neurotransmitter imbalances in the brain. Dr. Frank takes which perspective on human behavior?

Answers

Answer:

Biological

Explanation:

A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?

Answers

A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis-This is an example of Internal evidence.

Explanation:

Internal Evidence  refers to the practice data that is found in the health care records of a nursing home/clicnic.

On the other hand ,the external evidence are based on the information that is collected from various scientific research

In the  statement -(A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis) the information related to the pilot program was obtained through internal evidence .

so we can say that the internal evidence factor has proven most effective in this decision

Internal evidence

Explanation:

Evidence-based practice is very crucial in healthcare services like nursing. This involves using the right evidence to make medical decisions regarding patient care. This is done by the combination of research, clinical expertise and patient preference.

This provides better healthcare outcomes, reduces healthcare costs, and also serves the healthcare professionals’ career.

Internal evidence includes clinical expertise, healthcare institution practice initiatives like quality improvement or outcome management project initiatives. The patient data collected through patient assessment and evaluation are also part of internal evidence .

The given case is a pilot program from the healthcare institution which provides data for internal evidence.

The B vitamins
a. protect the cells from damage by free radicals.
b. facilitate chemical reactions that yield energy from the macronutrients.
c. provide strength and stability to bones.
d. can be broken down to yield about 4 kcal per gram.

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

B vitamins are important for making sure the body's cells are functioning properly.

Final answer:

B vitamins are chiefly involved in facilitating chemical reactions that derive energy from carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. They serve as coenzymes in metabolic processes.

Explanation:

The B vitamins predominantly serve the function outlined in option (b) - they facilitate chemical reactions that yield energy from macronutrients. They act as coenzymes, assisting enzymes in catalyzing metabolic reactions, especially those involved in the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, thereby aiding in the production of energy. They do not typically provide protection from free radicals, support bone health, or yield kcal per gram as they are not a primary energy source.

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"According to the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, what is the ideal treatment plan for individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?"

Answers

(ASD) Autism Spectrum Disorder can be treated with, behavior therapy, speech language therapy, play-based therapy, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and lastly nutritional therapy. But this rout is always important and can always be sustained.

Hope this helps !!

A light, pleasant feeling that comes after stress is gone is?

A) Cope

B) Relief

Answers

A light pleasant feeling that comes after stress is gone is Relief.

Explanation:

Stress is defined as the body's response to a change physically, mentally and emotionally.

Everyone encounters stress at some point of their life. It is how the body reacts to these changes mentally, physically, and emotionally and copes with it.

Physical response to stress is fatigue, lethargy and feeling energyless,. Mental response could range from depression to anxiety.Emotional response might be sleeping difficulties, anger problems etc.

But once the stress passes through, the sensation that one gets, is that of relief. All the muscles of the body relax, the mind is at peace and the individual is able to sleep better. All these give a sense of relief to the person and he is able to live his life in peace.

A group of nursing students is reviewing information about the older adult and mobility. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which statement as accurate?

Answers

Answer:

Falls are the leading cause of death due to injury in individuals who are over the age of 75 years

Explanation:

Falls are the leading cause of deadly injury and the most common cause of nonfatal trauma-related hospital admissions among older adults. Risk factors for falls in the elderly include increasing age, medication use, cognitive impairment and and also sensory deficits.

A client is caring for an 8-year-old child who weighs 30 kg. The health care provider orders gentamicin IM for the client. The recommended dosage range is 2-2.5 mg/kg q8h. What is the maximum amount of gentamicin the client will receive in a day

Answers

Answer:

According to the weight of the 8-year-old child and the dose of Gentamicin recommended by the medical provider, the maximum amount of Gentamicin that the client will receive in a day is 225 mg.

Explanation:

Gentamicin is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria, such as otitis media. For a child of the age and weight range, the usual dose of Gentamicin is 2 to 2.5 mg/kg/dose.

Data:

Recommended dose of Gentamicin: 2 - 2.5 mg/Kg dose.  Interval between doses: 8 hours Child weight: 30 kg.Number of doses in a day = 3 (24 hours / 8 hours = 3=

Maximum daily dose = 2.5 mg X Weight X number of doses/24 h.

Maximum daily dose = 2,5 mg X 30 X 3 .

Maximum daily dose = 225 mg / 24 h .

The maximum dose of Gentamicin that the child will receive in a day is 225 mg.

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A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to

Answers

Answer:

Control or minimize the risk of intentional contamination.

Explanation:

A food defence plans helps to document the processes or procedures on how to control, minimise and totally stop if possible the risk associated with contaminating food intentionally.

It gives detailed procedure on how this can be achieved.

Final answer:

A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to:

Protect food from intentional contamination. Ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.

Explanation:

A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to protect food from intentional contamination by an individual or group.

It is designed to prevent acts of food terrorism and ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.

Examples of procedures in a food defense plan include implementing access controls, conducting background checks on employees, and monitoring and documenting inventory.

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Your health care provider has advised you to lose weight. She encourages you to add fiber and complex carbohydrates to your diet and gives you a list of nutritious foods to look for at the grocery store. You stop at the prepared food section of the grocery store to pick up a healthy dinner. Which of these is the best choice to get you started on your "complex-carb" diet?
broccoli & brown rice salad

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- broccoli & brown rice salad

Explanation:

A complex carbohydrate diet with high fibers are part of a healthy and balanced diet. This diet helps us to enhance our mood, reduce cholesterol level, reduce the extra weight, provide energy and enhance our immune system.

The complex carbohydrate diet includes Brown and wild rice, vegetables like broccoli, legumes like black beans and chickpeas,  salads, corn, barley, etc.

Therefore if I have to lose weight than I would choose broccoli & brown rice salad to start on my  "complex-carb" diet because they are the best choice as they will provide me healthy carbohydrates.

Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.

Select the phrase that correctly completes the statement. Please Help me its for a test!!

(Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella,Shigella ) ____________ is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.

Mike ate plain deli meat from the refrigerator and then got sick. _________( Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella ) made him ill.

Answers

Pathogens are those organisms which are capable of releasing toxins in the body.

What are toxins?

Toxins are those dangerous substances which are capable of causing damages in the body. They may be released by pathogens.

The organism Clostridium botulinum is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.

The microorganism which is commonly reputed to cause food poisoning is Clostridium perfringens which must be contained in the meat which Mike ate.

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Answer:

Not sure about the first one; might be Clostridium perfringens, second one is Listeria monocytogenes

Explanation:

this is what i got

Scott, who is 60, could not understand why he kept slowly gaining weight. He was eating the same amount of food that he had each day since he was 20, and he got regular exercise. What could explain his weight gain

Answers

Answer: Slower metabolism.

Explanation: Our body's metabolism, its chemical processes that support life, starts to slow as we age. This means less efficient use of the energy contained in food which, if unused, gets stored as fat.  

Scott's weight gain can be attributed to a slower basal metabolic rate at age 60, requiring fewer calories than when he was younger. Adjusting caloric intake, increasing physical activity, and considering other health and lifestyle factors are crucial for successful weight management.

As people age, their basal metabolic rate (BMR) tends to slow down, resulting in fewer calories being burned throughout the day. Scott, who is 60 years old, experiences weight gain despite maintaining the same diet and exercise routine that he had when he was 20 because his body now requires fewer calories than it did when he was younger. Additionally, physiological changes, such as loss of muscle mass and potential medical conditions, can also lead to a decrease in activity levels, contributing to weight gain. Therefore, Scott may need to adjust his caloric intake and possibly increase his physical activity to balance his energy expenditure with his caloric consumption.

Other factors that affect weight control include dietary choices, lifestyle habits, and psychological factors. Succesful weight management requires a balance in lifestyle that includes healthy eating and regular physical activity. Scott should consider moderate-intensity physical activity for at least 30 minutes on most days, or potentially 60 to 90 minutes if he was previously overweight, to prevent weight gain or sustain weight loss. It's important to note that achieving and maintaining a healthy weight helps prevent many health issues associated with obesity and can promote overall well-being.

A group of students is reviewing information about the liver and associated disorders. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as a primary function of the liver?

a) Convert urea into ammonia
b) Excrete bile
c) Breakdown amino acids
d) Break down coagulation factors

Answers

Answer:

b) Excrete bile

Explanation:

The primary function associated with the liver includes to excrete bile, also helps to convert ammonia into urea, it is also associated with synthesizing the factors needed for blood coagulation and synthesizes amino acids from the breakdown of proteins.

For individuals with cancer who are undergoing chemotherapy, bone marrow suppression places these individuals at risk for life-threatening infections. What is the most common cause of these infections?

Answers

Answer:

Overgrowth of the client's own normal flora.

Explanation:

The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is overgrowth of their own normal flora. Hand hygiene, careful preparation of food, and avoiding exposure to individuals harboring an infection help to decrease the risks secondary to external organisms. These actions however, do not affect the risk of normal flora overgrowth.

Bacterial overgrowth syndrome (BOS) is a term that describes clinical manifestations that occur when the normally low number of bacteria that inhabit the stomach, duodenum, jejunum, and proximal ileum significantly increases or becomes overtaken by other pathogens.

Aplastic anemia.  

The bone marrow failure syndromes comprise a group of disorders than can be either inherited or acquired. These diseases are intrinsic disorders of the bone marrow involving disruption in the homeostasis and function of hematopoietic stem cells, resulting in inadequate production of either a single or multiple cell lines (erythroid for red cells, myeloid for white blood cells, megakaryocytic for platelets). The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is aplastic anemia and overgrowth of their own normal flora.

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What type of lifespan developmentalist is interested in how a person who experiences a significant or traumatic event early in life would remember that event later in life?

Answers

Answer:

Cognitive

Explanation:

Cognitive has to do with how a person perceives, remembers, thinks, judges or reasons in a particular situation.

A cognitive developmentalist is a person who studies how a child can perceive situations, process his or her thoughts, make appropriate decisions and remember certain situations that they have been in, from their childhood to their adulthood.

What type of developmental approach is cutting edge and at the forefront of research when working with genes associated with mental health disorders such as autism and schizophrenia?

Answers

Answer:

Cognitive neuroscience

Explanation:

Cognitive neuroscience is a field of learning in science that studies the processes involved in perception, memory language, emotion , consciousness and selective attention carried out by the brain.

Cognitive neuroscience also focuses on mental health issues in humans such as autism and schizophrenia.

All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates EXCEPT _________?

A) Bread

B) Soft drinks

C) Pasta

D) Rice

Answers

Answer:

the answer is soft drinks

Explanation:

Because Carbohydrates are essential to the body. They are sugars or starches that provide energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.

There are two different types of carbohydrates: simple and complex. People should limit their intake of simple carbohydrates, such as white bread, pasta, and rice. However, the body needs complex carbohydrates to support the following:

the immune system

brain function

the nervous system

energy to perform tasks

digestive function

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a person consumes 45–65% of their daily calories from complex carbohydrates.

The following foods contain complex carbohydrates:

quinoa

brown rice

vegetables

whole grain pasta, bread, and other baked goods

oatmeal

fruits

barley

People should avoid overly processed products that contain bleached, white flour, and foods with added sugar.

Learn the difference between good and bad carbs here.

All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates except soft drinks, hence option B is correct.

What are the sources of carbohydrates?

The body needs carbohydrates to function. They are sugars or starches that supply energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.

There are two different forms of carbohydrates: simple and complicated. Simple carbs, such as white bread, pasta, and rice, should be consumed in moderation.

The macronutrient category of carbohydrates includes a wide variety of foods and beverages. The majority of carbohydrates are found naturally in foods made from plants, such grains. Additionally, processed food makers add carbs in the form of starch or extra sugar.

Therefore, option (B) Soft drinks is correct.

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What is the main nutrition-related problem likely to be encountered by a vegan if his or her diet is not carefully selected? high cholesterol level insufficient intake of vitamin B-12 insufficient intake of complex carbohydrates insufficient intake of fibe

Answers

Answer: insufficient intake of vitamin B-12

Explanation:

The vegan diet is devoid of Vitamin B-12 which can lead to serious health complications like anemia. The Vitamin B-12 is found in animal derived food products for example, dairy, meat and eggs. There are no plant derived food which can provide sufficient amount of B-12.

Vegetarians must ensure to obtain the adequate amount of Vitamin B-12 each day to avoid a deficiency of this vitamin.  

To remember the four bases found in DNA-thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine-Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself, "The Girl Ate Cookies." Which of the following did Luke use in this scenario?
1. The method of loci
2. A mnemonic device
3. Chunking
4. Rhyming

Answers

Answer: 2)

A mnemonic device

Explanation: A mnemonic is a tool or memory aid that helps people to remember or memorize things easily. It helps you to remember an idea or phrase with a pattern of letters, numbers, or relatable associations. Mnemonic devices may include special rhymes and poems, acronyms, images, songs, outlines, and other tools. In the question Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself to help him remember more easily the bases of DNA. In other words Luke formed mnemonics using the first letters of the DNA bases to remember them easily.

A client is admitted to the hospital for a possible mastectomy. The evening before the surgery, the spouse appears tense and paces up and down the hall. Which comment by the LPN/LVN to the spouse is best?

Answers

Answer

We promise you she is in good hands and we will do our very best to help her.

Explanation:

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The CNS communicates with peripheral body structures through pathways. These conduct either sensory nerve signals from ____________ or motor nerve signals to ____________ ; processing and integration occur along them. These pathways travel through the white matter of the spinal cord as they connect various CNS regions with spinal nerves. A pathway consists of a(n) ____________ (groups or bundles of axons that travel together in the CNS) and a(n) nucleus (a collection of neuron cell bodies located within the CNS). What is the concept of algae? During a 4 hour trip, a boat sailed 70 km in 2 h. Then the boat did not move for 1 hour and traveled 26 km in the last hour. What was the boats average speed ? A particle is moving horizontally along the x-axis. Its position (in ft) is: s(t)=t^3-18t^2+33t+14 where t is in sec. Find the time at which the particle switches from moving left to moving right.t= ___ sec. The nurse is teaching a client about self-management of gastroesophageal reflux. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?a. "Eat four to six small meals each day."b. "Eat a small evening snack 1 to 2 hours before bed."c. "No specific foods or spices need to be cut from your diet."d. "You may include orange or tomato juice with your breakfast." Complete the sentence with the correct conjugation (form) of the verb in ( ). Je _______ de la natation (faire)Complete the sentence with the correct conjugation (form) of the verb in ( ). Je _______ (jouer) au tennis. Complete the sentence with the correct conjugation (form) of the verb in ( ). Je _______ (vendre) mes DVDs sur eBay et je tlcharge de la musique diTunes when an object moves down and does not stop which force is acting more strongly on the object, friction or gravity? explain A 55.0-kg lead ball is dropped from the Leaning Tower of Pisa. The tower is 55.0 m high. What is the speed of the ball after it has traveled 4.20 m downward While the volunteer rates of teenagers remained quite low in 1974 and 1989, we find that volunteering rates for individuals aged 16 to 19 actually doubled between 1989 and [2005] to a rate that exceeds the national volunteer rate . Increased enthusiasm for volunteering among todays young people is reflected in other research as well. For example, the Higher Education Research Institutes (HERI) found an all-time high in the percentage of first-year college students who indicated that there was a high probability that they would volunteer or participate in community service sometime during their college careers. The Corporations College Students Helping America report recently highlighted a 20 percent increase in the number of college students volunteering between 2002 and 2005, while the University of Michigans Monitoring the Future study also finds a rising trend in volunteering among teens. Corporation for National and Community Service, Volunteer Growth in America: A Review of Trends Since 1974 List two details from the article that support the argument for requiring one hundred hours of community service to graduate high school. The outstanding bonds of Winter Time Products provide a real rate of return of 3.30 percent. The current rate of inflation is 2.30 percent. What is the nominal rate of return on these bonds Which word would best replace impudent in the passage?