A client admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea has a K level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L), symptoms of paresthesia, restlessness, and dyspnea. What could have caused his condition

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Metabolic Acidosis

Explanation:

Metabolic acidosis is a situation that occurs in a person when there is an accumulation of acids in the body.

The causes of metabolic acidosis include kidney failure, constant ingestion of drugs like aspirin, absence of sodium bicarbonate in the kidneys.

Symptoms of metabolic acidosis include vomiting, nausea, abnormal breathing, difficulty in breathing e.t.c

Metabolic acidosis can be managed by taking in the recommended dosage of sodium bicarbonate required by the body which helps to make the blood less acidic.

Answer 2

The symptoms of paresthesia, restlessness, and dyspnea may be caused by metabolic acidosis.

What is metabolic acidosis?

Metabolic acidosis is a health problem due to the accumulation of acidic fluids in the human body.

Metabolic acidosis can be caused by the accumulation of toxins in the body and/or kidney failure.

The intake of drugs/medications may also be a cause of this condition (metabolic acidosis).

In conclusion, the symptoms of paresthesia, restlessness, and dyspnea may be caused by metabolic acidosis.

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Related Questions

A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?

Answers

A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis-This is an example of Internal evidence.

Explanation:

Internal Evidence  refers to the practice data that is found in the health care records of a nursing home/clicnic.

On the other hand ,the external evidence are based on the information that is collected from various scientific research

In the  statement -(A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis) the information related to the pilot program was obtained through internal evidence .

so we can say that the internal evidence factor has proven most effective in this decision

Internal evidence

Explanation:

Evidence-based practice is very crucial in healthcare services like nursing. This involves using the right evidence to make medical decisions regarding patient care. This is done by the combination of research, clinical expertise and patient preference.

This provides better healthcare outcomes, reduces healthcare costs, and also serves the healthcare professionals’ career.

Internal evidence includes clinical expertise, healthcare institution practice initiatives like quality improvement or outcome management project initiatives. The patient data collected through patient assessment and evaluation are also part of internal evidence .

The given case is a pilot program from the healthcare institution which provides data for internal evidence.

Studies show that _____________ is the optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being

Answers

The answer is Eustress
Final answer:

Eustress is the optimal amount of stress that people need to promote their health and well-being.

Explanation:

The optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being is called eustress. Eustress is a type of positive stress that can motivate individuals to achieve their goals and perform well. Unlike negative stress, which can be harmful to health, eustress provides a sense of excitement, energy, and fulfillment.



An example of eustress is when a student prepares for an important exam. While there may be some pressure and nerves involved, the anticipation and motivation to succeed actually enhance their performance and overall well-being. It is important to note that the optimal amount of eustress may vary for each individual, as what may be motivating and beneficial for one person may be overwhelming for another.

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A client is caring for an 8-year-old child who weighs 30 kg. The health care provider orders gentamicin IM for the client. The recommended dosage range is 2-2.5 mg/kg q8h. What is the maximum amount of gentamicin the client will receive in a day

Answers

Answer:

According to the weight of the 8-year-old child and the dose of Gentamicin recommended by the medical provider, the maximum amount of Gentamicin that the client will receive in a day is 225 mg.

Explanation:

Gentamicin is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria, such as otitis media. For a child of the age and weight range, the usual dose of Gentamicin is 2 to 2.5 mg/kg/dose.

Data:

Recommended dose of Gentamicin: 2 - 2.5 mg/Kg dose.  Interval between doses: 8 hours Child weight: 30 kg.Number of doses in a day = 3 (24 hours / 8 hours = 3=

Maximum daily dose = 2.5 mg X Weight X number of doses/24 h.

Maximum daily dose = 2,5 mg X 30 X 3 .

Maximum daily dose = 225 mg / 24 h .

The maximum dose of Gentamicin that the child will receive in a day is 225 mg.

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With _____ conflict, team members disagree because their different experiences and expertise lead them to different views of the problem and solutions.

Answers

Answer:rr

COGNITIVE CONFLICTS

Explanation:

Cognitive conflict happens when a person is confronted with information or idea that contradicts his or her own beliefs, value and ideas or the emotional discomfort that a person feels when his or her beliefs contradict each other. Example

Cognitive conflict can happen in a workplace when employees has different ideas about how to perform or carry out a given task and they start to contradict each other based on their beliefs , idea or value in order to make a work related decision .

Therefore when team members disagree because their different experiences and expertise lead them to different views of the problem and solutions it is called COGNITIVE CONFLICTS.

Answer:

Cognitive

Explanation:

Cognitive conflict is used to describe a kind of feeling or emotional discomfort whereby an individual's feeling, ideas or emotion goes contrary to their prior knowledge.

In the. situation where each individuals in the team have a different disagree because of their different experience we can say that the conflict experienced there is cognitive conflict.

For individuals with cancer who are undergoing chemotherapy, bone marrow suppression places these individuals at risk for life-threatening infections. What is the most common cause of these infections?

Answers

Answer:

Overgrowth of the client's own normal flora.

Explanation:

The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is overgrowth of their own normal flora. Hand hygiene, careful preparation of food, and avoiding exposure to individuals harboring an infection help to decrease the risks secondary to external organisms. These actions however, do not affect the risk of normal flora overgrowth.

Bacterial overgrowth syndrome (BOS) is a term that describes clinical manifestations that occur when the normally low number of bacteria that inhabit the stomach, duodenum, jejunum, and proximal ileum significantly increases or becomes overtaken by other pathogens.

Aplastic anemia.  

The bone marrow failure syndromes comprise a group of disorders than can be either inherited or acquired. These diseases are intrinsic disorders of the bone marrow involving disruption in the homeostasis and function of hematopoietic stem cells, resulting in inadequate production of either a single or multiple cell lines (erythroid for red cells, myeloid for white blood cells, megakaryocytic for platelets). The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is aplastic anemia and overgrowth of their own normal flora.

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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.

Select the phrase that correctly completes the statement. Please Help me its for a test!!

(Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella,Shigella ) ____________ is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.

Mike ate plain deli meat from the refrigerator and then got sick. _________( Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella ) made him ill.

Answers

Pathogens are those organisms which are capable of releasing toxins in the body.

What are toxins?

Toxins are those dangerous substances which are capable of causing damages in the body. They may be released by pathogens.

The organism Clostridium botulinum is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.

The microorganism which is commonly reputed to cause food poisoning is Clostridium perfringens which must be contained in the meat which Mike ate.

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Answer:

Not sure about the first one; might be Clostridium perfringens, second one is Listeria monocytogenes

Explanation:

this is what i got

In the "permission theory" of mood disorders, low ______ activity opens the door to a mood disorder and permits other neurotransmitters to define the form of the disorder.

Answers

Answer:

physical

Explanation:

Sylvia is almost nine months pregnant and very close to her delivery date. The doctors have found that she has an active case of genital herpes. Which of the following is the best course of action to prevent Sylvia’s baby from contracting the disease?
a. Perform a cesarean section
b. Terminate the pregnancy
c. Deliver the baby through the birth canal
d. Give the baby blood transfusions

Answers

The correct answer is A, perform a cesarean section, sometimes called a c-section. It isn’t B because she’s almost due, therefore it’s probably too late to terminate the pregnancy. It isnt C because the birth canal is a natural birth, and it isn’t D- if the mom had HIV, blood transfusions may be required.

The best course of action to prevent Sylvia’s baby from contracting genital herpes is to [ option a ] perform a cesarean section (C-section).

This methodology lessens the gamble of the child being contaminated during conveyance. Prenatal antiviral medication can assist in reducing outbreaks prior to birth.

This is very important because delivering a baby through the birth canal could put the baby at risk of getting the infection, which can lead to serious problems. Antiviral medication is part of the last month of pregnancy's prenatal care for women with genital herpes to reduce the likelihood of an outbreak at delivery. Notwithstanding, in the event that a flare-up happens during work, a C-segment is firmly prescribed to forestall neonatal HSV.

A group of students is reviewing information about the liver and associated disorders. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as a primary function of the liver?

a) Convert urea into ammonia
b) Excrete bile
c) Breakdown amino acids
d) Break down coagulation factors

Answers

Answer:

b) Excrete bile

Explanation:

The primary function associated with the liver includes to excrete bile, also helps to convert ammonia into urea, it is also associated with synthesizing the factors needed for blood coagulation and synthesizes amino acids from the breakdown of proteins.

All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates EXCEPT _________?

A) Bread

B) Soft drinks

C) Pasta

D) Rice

Answers

Answer:

the answer is soft drinks

Explanation:

Because Carbohydrates are essential to the body. They are sugars or starches that provide energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.

There are two different types of carbohydrates: simple and complex. People should limit their intake of simple carbohydrates, such as white bread, pasta, and rice. However, the body needs complex carbohydrates to support the following:

the immune system

brain function

the nervous system

energy to perform tasks

digestive function

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a person consumes 45–65% of their daily calories from complex carbohydrates.

The following foods contain complex carbohydrates:

quinoa

brown rice

vegetables

whole grain pasta, bread, and other baked goods

oatmeal

fruits

barley

People should avoid overly processed products that contain bleached, white flour, and foods with added sugar.

Learn the difference between good and bad carbs here.

All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates except soft drinks, hence option B is correct.

What are the sources of carbohydrates?

The body needs carbohydrates to function. They are sugars or starches that supply energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.

There are two different forms of carbohydrates: simple and complicated. Simple carbs, such as white bread, pasta, and rice, should be consumed in moderation.

The macronutrient category of carbohydrates includes a wide variety of foods and beverages. The majority of carbohydrates are found naturally in foods made from plants, such grains. Additionally, processed food makers add carbs in the form of starch or extra sugar.

Therefore, option (B) Soft drinks is correct.

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A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?

Answers

Answer:

internal evidence

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the factor that has proven most effective in this decision was internal evidence. This factor refers to information that has been gathered from the internal sources in which the contents have been discussed. Which in this scenario were the staff of an acute medical unit within the pilot program.

A group of nursing students is reviewing information about the older adult and mobility. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which statement as accurate?

Answers

Answer:

Falls are the leading cause of death due to injury in individuals who are over the age of 75 years

Explanation:

Falls are the leading cause of deadly injury and the most common cause of nonfatal trauma-related hospital admissions among older adults. Risk factors for falls in the elderly include increasing age, medication use, cognitive impairment and and also sensory deficits.

The health care provider has prescribed amiodarone for a patient with ventricular dysrhythmias. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, which statement by the patient would lead the nurse to notify the health care provider?

Answers

Answer:

I take a blood thinner so I don't get clots.

Explanation:

A ventricular dysrhythmia is the disturbance in the typical rhythm of the electrical movement of the heart which arises in the ventricles while Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medicine utilized for treating and preventing different of types of irregular heartbeats. This includes ventricular fibrillation (VF), ventricular tachycardia (VT), and wide complex tachycardia, as well as paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and atria fibrillation.

From the patient's medical history it is not advisable to prescribe an amiodarone dosage.

Answer:

I do take blood thinners , to prevent clotting.

Explanation:

Amiodarone as oral or intravenous  intake is used to slowdown or prevent excessive excitation of the heart to reduce irregular heart beats.(arrhythmia), They are therefore commonly refers to as anti-arrhythmia drugs.

Arrhythmia causes accumulation of blood in the vascular system, leading to blood clotting. Therefore blood thinners are usually used by patients with arrhythmia to prevent clot.

However,usage of amiodarone and blood  thinner e.g heparin, will  make the blood too thin, which may lead to lysis of blood cells and profuse bleeding.

Therefore the nurse should alert the health care provider immediately, she noticed this in medical history, to review the prescription.

Which theory would suggest that watching a horror movie late at night could make you more likely to interpret unfamiliar, faint sounds in your home as threatening as you subsequently tried to fall asleep?

Answers

Answer: Signal detection theory

Explanation:

Signal detection theory is the concept that defines about ability to distinguish between information contained stimulus and random stimulus pattern that disturbs the focus from information. Distraction can be created through noise-like factors.

According to the question, horror movie can induce random pattern which makes a person interpret about noises or sound while falling asleep because of distractions which does not happen while sleeping normally (without watching horror movie) as information-oriented pattern .Thus, it depicts signal detection theory.      

"According to the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, what is the ideal treatment plan for individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?"

Answers

(ASD) Autism Spectrum Disorder can be treated with, behavior therapy, speech language therapy, play-based therapy, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and lastly nutritional therapy. But this rout is always important and can always be sustained.

Hope this helps !!

A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to

Answers

Answer:

Control or minimize the risk of intentional contamination.

Explanation:

A food defence plans helps to document the processes or procedures on how to control, minimise and totally stop if possible the risk associated with contaminating food intentionally.

It gives detailed procedure on how this can be achieved.

Final answer:

A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to:

Protect food from intentional contamination. Ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.

Explanation:

A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to protect food from intentional contamination by an individual or group.

It is designed to prevent acts of food terrorism and ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.

Examples of procedures in a food defense plan include implementing access controls, conducting background checks on employees, and monitoring and documenting inventory.

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Dr. Frank is a therapist who believes that psychological disorders can be caused by neurotransmitter imbalances in the brain. Dr. Frank takes which perspective on human behavior?

Answers

Answer:

Biological

Explanation:

Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from ______ syndrome.

Answers

Answer:

Turner syndrome.

Explanation:

Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.

Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.

Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.

Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from Turner syndrome.

What is Turner syndrome?

Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.  It may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood.  Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.

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In hospitals, it was common practice to clear the air bubble from a syringe by expelling a small amount of the syringe contents into the air. One microbiologist estimated that this practice resulted in the release of up to 30 liters of antibiotic into a typical hospital environment annually. How might this have brought about the appearance of antibiotic-resistant mutants in hospitals

Answers

Answer:

The ejection of syringe contents is to remove air bubbles that can be detrimental to patient health. When antibiotics are repeatedly released this way, microflora in the environment are exposed, albeit at non-lethal doses, which causes said micro-organisms to begin to develop means of neutralizing such antibiotics, thereby contributing to antibiotic resistance and mutations. Also, some syringe contents may not be anti-biotic in nature but they can have mutagenic effects on microbial genome at such concentrations.

Explanation:

Antibiotic resistance is the ability of bacteria or other microbes to resist the effects of an antibiotic. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria change in some way that reduces or eliminates the effectiveness of drugs, chemicals, or other agents designed to cure or prevent infections. The bacteria survive and continue to multiply causing more harm

Answer:

The more use and abuse of antibiotics, the more are the chances for bacteria to become antibiotic resistant mutants.

Explanation:

Antibiotic resistance usually occurs when bacteria changes, causing it to reduce or completely diminish the drug's effectiveness, which is prescribed to cure the infection. When bacteria become antibiotic resistant, they survive, continue to multiply and cause harm.

Scott, who is 60, could not understand why he kept slowly gaining weight. He was eating the same amount of food that he had each day since he was 20, and he got regular exercise. What could explain his weight gain

Answers

Answer: Slower metabolism.

Explanation: Our body's metabolism, its chemical processes that support life, starts to slow as we age. This means less efficient use of the energy contained in food which, if unused, gets stored as fat.  

Scott's weight gain can be attributed to a slower basal metabolic rate at age 60, requiring fewer calories than when he was younger. Adjusting caloric intake, increasing physical activity, and considering other health and lifestyle factors are crucial for successful weight management.

As people age, their basal metabolic rate (BMR) tends to slow down, resulting in fewer calories being burned throughout the day. Scott, who is 60 years old, experiences weight gain despite maintaining the same diet and exercise routine that he had when he was 20 because his body now requires fewer calories than it did when he was younger. Additionally, physiological changes, such as loss of muscle mass and potential medical conditions, can also lead to a decrease in activity levels, contributing to weight gain. Therefore, Scott may need to adjust his caloric intake and possibly increase his physical activity to balance his energy expenditure with his caloric consumption.

Other factors that affect weight control include dietary choices, lifestyle habits, and psychological factors. Succesful weight management requires a balance in lifestyle that includes healthy eating and regular physical activity. Scott should consider moderate-intensity physical activity for at least 30 minutes on most days, or potentially 60 to 90 minutes if he was previously overweight, to prevent weight gain or sustain weight loss. It's important to note that achieving and maintaining a healthy weight helps prevent many health issues associated with obesity and can promote overall well-being.

A young adult is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. When the LPN/LVN places the client's hand over his head, it remains in that position. The LPN/LVN understands that this is a description of which of the following?a) conversion hysteria.
b) waxy flexibility.
c) dystonic reaction.
d) neurasthenia.

Answers

Answer:

b. waxy flexibility

Explanation:

Waxy flexibility -

It is the symptom of catatonia , which is linked with some mental disorder like ,  bipolar disorder , schizophrenia etc.

In this symptom the person is not able to respond to any external as well as internal stimuli , and remain in a stable and constant posture .

Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,

The correct answer is b. waxy flexibility .

To remember the four bases found in DNA-thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine-Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself, "The Girl Ate Cookies." Which of the following did Luke use in this scenario?
1. The method of loci
2. A mnemonic device
3. Chunking
4. Rhyming

Answers

Answer: 2)

A mnemonic device

Explanation: A mnemonic is a tool or memory aid that helps people to remember or memorize things easily. It helps you to remember an idea or phrase with a pattern of letters, numbers, or relatable associations. Mnemonic devices may include special rhymes and poems, acronyms, images, songs, outlines, and other tools. In the question Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself to help him remember more easily the bases of DNA. In other words Luke formed mnemonics using the first letters of the DNA bases to remember them easily.

What type of lifespan developmentalist is interested in how a person who experiences a significant or traumatic event early in life would remember that event later in life?

Answers

Answer:

Cognitive

Explanation:

Cognitive has to do with how a person perceives, remembers, thinks, judges or reasons in a particular situation.

A cognitive developmentalist is a person who studies how a child can perceive situations, process his or her thoughts, make appropriate decisions and remember certain situations that they have been in, from their childhood to their adulthood.

A nursing instructor is teaching pre-nursing students in a pathophysiology class. What would the instructor teach the students about Ménière's disease?

Answers

Answer:

The instructor should teach students about endolymphatic hydrops in the pathophysiology of Ménière's disease.

Explanation:

The options for this question are:

A) It is referred to as endolymphatic hydrops.

B) It originates in the middle ear.

C) It is referred to as lymphatic hydrops.

D) It originates in the outer ear.

Ménière's disease is a pathology that causes dizziness, motor instability and progressive hearing loss, as a result of disorders in the inner ear.

In the inner ear, the endolymphatic system is one of the main structures involved in the sense of balance. Obstruction of the snail aqueduct or inflammation of the labyrinth produces increased endolymphatic volume and pressure. This produces dilation of the endolymphatic duct and the symptoms of the disease.

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Hysterical disorders are forms of communication; they provide the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey. This statement BEST reflects the perspective of _____ theorists.

Answers

Answer:

Hysterical disorders are forms of communication; they provide the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey. This statement BEST reflects the perspective of cognitive theorists.

Explanation:

Cognitive psycology basically focuses on how people think, understand and know. It has emphasis on learning how people comprehend and represent the world around them and focus on conscious thinking. Also has emphasis on individual's active construction for understanding. It also provides  the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey.

Hence, this statement BEST reflects the perspective of cognitive theorists

What is the main nutrition-related problem likely to be encountered by a vegan if his or her diet is not carefully selected? high cholesterol level insufficient intake of vitamin B-12 insufficient intake of complex carbohydrates insufficient intake of fibe

Answers

Answer: insufficient intake of vitamin B-12

Explanation:

The vegan diet is devoid of Vitamin B-12 which can lead to serious health complications like anemia. The Vitamin B-12 is found in animal derived food products for example, dairy, meat and eggs. There are no plant derived food which can provide sufficient amount of B-12.

Vegetarians must ensure to obtain the adequate amount of Vitamin B-12 each day to avoid a deficiency of this vitamin.  

You arrive at a local community center for a 56-year-old woman complaining of chest discomfort. The women tells you that she took one of her nitroglycerin tablets about 15 minutes ago, but she still has chest discomfort. Responding paramedics are approximately 10 minutes away. You should:

A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen
B. Assume that she is experiencing angina pectorals, administer oxygen, and perform a thorough physical exam.
C. Give her up to tow more nitroglycerin tablets, place her supine and elevate her legs, and update the responding paramedics
D. Place her in a semi sitting position, assist her in taking up to 3 more nitro tablets, and administer oxygen.

Answers

Answer:

A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen

Your health care provider has advised you to lose weight. She encourages you to add fiber and complex carbohydrates to your diet and gives you a list of nutritious foods to look for at the grocery store. You stop at the prepared food section of the grocery store to pick up a healthy dinner. Which of these is the best choice to get you started on your "complex-carb" diet?
broccoli & brown rice salad

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- broccoli & brown rice salad

Explanation:

A complex carbohydrate diet with high fibers are part of a healthy and balanced diet. This diet helps us to enhance our mood, reduce cholesterol level, reduce the extra weight, provide energy and enhance our immune system.

The complex carbohydrate diet includes Brown and wild rice, vegetables like broccoli, legumes like black beans and chickpeas,  salads, corn, barley, etc.

Therefore if I have to lose weight than I would choose broccoli & brown rice salad to start on my  "complex-carb" diet because they are the best choice as they will provide me healthy carbohydrates.

Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?

ability to avoid seasonal illnesses

ability to go many years without seeing a doctor

ability to heal following injury

ability to run a marathon

Answers

The health benefit that is most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to go many years without seeing a doctor

Explanation:

Physical resilience is the ability of an individual to cope up with stress, adapt to various external and internal changes, at the same time maintain the body’s health and stamina.

Physical resilience is directly linked with a healthy body, overall well being, and a long healthy life which reduces the need for visits to a doctor or a healthcare facility to take care of any medical illness.

Healthy eating of nutritional foods, healthy mind with good mental stability, performing endurance exercises and resistance training will increase the physical resilience.

The correct option is 3. The health benefit most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to heal following injury.

Physical resilience refers to the capacity of the body to recover from or adjust easily to misfortune or change. In the context of health, this typically means the ability to bounce back from illness, injury, or other physical stressors.

Let's consider the options provided:

1. Ability to avoid seasonal illnesses: While this is a positive health outcome, it is more closely related to a strong immune system rather than physical resilience per se.

2. Ability to go many years without seeing a doctor: This could be indicative of good health, but it doesn't necessarily reflect physical resilience. It could also be due to a lack of access to healthcare services or a tendency to ignore health issues.

3. Ability to heal following injury: This is a direct measure of physical resilience. It reflects how well the body can repair itself and return to its previous state of health and functionality after suffering damage.

4. Ability to run a marathon: This reflects cardiovascular endurance and muscular fitness, which are components of physical fitness rather than resilience. While being fit can contribute to overall resilience, the ability to run a marathon is not as direct a measure of resilience as the ability to recover from injury.

The correct question is:

Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?

1. ability to avoid seasonal illnesses

2. ability to go many years without seeing a doctor

3. ability to heal following injury

4. ability to run a marathon

The nurse is discussing acne vulgaris with a group of adolescents. The teenagers make the following statements regarding the topic. Which statement is the most accurate regarding acne vulgaris?
a) "Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup."
b) "There is a new immunization that you can get to keep from having acne."
c) "My mom says I have acne because I eat too much chocolate."
d) "My next door neighbor told me that acne was caused by a fungus."

Answers

Answer:

A. Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's make-up

Explanation:

Acne is as a result of blockage of the pilosebaceous units (hair follicles and their accompanying sebaceous gland).

The make up blocks the pores and allows build up of dead cells which eventually breaks out as acne.

Answer:

a) Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup.

Explanation:

Acne vulgaris is a skin disease involving the sebaceous glands found at the root of hair follicles. It commonly occurs during the pubertal phase of growth when the oil glands are active. Acne vulgaris is characterized by pimples, blackheads, cysts, and spots which are mostly found on the face, back, neck, chest and shoulders.

Acne occurs when sebaceous glands are blocked and infected by a bacteria called propionibacterium acnes.

Risk factors and causes of acne vulgaris include; genetic factors, hot climate, oily and greasy makeups, menstruations and hormonal changes.

It can be treated by using over-the-counter medications such as benzoyl peroxide, sulfur, salicylic acid, azelaic acid, antibiotics and also soaps and gels etc.

Other Questions
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Maillard browning reaction? It is the reaction involved in when heating a sugar to a temperature greater than its melting point. It produces brown colored compounds. It requires a reducing sugar and an amine group from a protein. It is the reaction that involved in making caramel candies. Three sources of flexibility in completing primary and support activities are particularly useful for firms using the integrated strategy. These are:______.a. flexible manufacturing systems, re-engineering, and total quality management. b. outsourcing, re-engineering, and flexible manufacturing systems. c. outsourcing, total quality management, and information networks. d. flexible manufacturing systems, total quality management, and information networks. "When an interrupt or a system call transfers control to the operating system, a kernel stack area separate from the stack of the interrupted process is generally used. Why?" Help me with this pls!!! You need to fill in the blanks with the words given above 99 Points! Lili has 20 friends. Among them are Kevin and Gerry, whoare husband and wive. Lili wants to invite 6 of her friends to her birthdayparty. If neither Kevin nor Gerry will go to a party without the other, howmany choices does Lili have? Many works of literature feature characters who have been given a literal or figurative gift. The gift may be an object, or it may be a quality such as uncommon beauty, significant social position, great mental or imaginative faculties, or extraordinary physical powers. Yet this gift is often also a burden or a handicap. Select a character from a novel, epic, or play who has been given a gift that is both an advantage and a problem. Then write a well-developed essay analyzing the complex nature of the gift and how the gift contributes to the meaning of the work as a whole. Grace earns $7 for each car she washes. She always saves $22 of her weekly earnings. This week, she wants to have at least $63 in spending money. How many cars must she wash? Enter and solve an inequality to represent this situation. Enter your value as a simplified mixed number, if necessary. If point E is translated 2 units right and 4 units up, what are the coordinates of E'? Q: Lisa sells 10 bottles of homemade ketchup for $10 each. The cost of the ingredients, the bottles, and the labels was $70. In addition, it took her 2 hours to make the ketchup and to do so she took time off from a job that paid her $10 per hour. Lisa's accounting profit is ............ while her economic profit is .............. A school is putting on a play. On the first night of the play, twice as many adults attended the lay as students. Students tickets cost $3 and adults tickets cost $5. The total amount of money earned from tickets sales was $1,131. Write a system of equations that represent this situation. What is 9 to the power of zero simplified there are 6 girls in a music class. this represents 3/7 of the entire class. solve 3/7s=6 to find the number of students,s, in the class. Spinning a roulette wheel 6 times, keeping track of the occurrences of a winning number of "16". a. Not binomial: there are more than two outcomes for each trial. b. Procedure results in a binomial distribution. c. Not binomial: the trials are not independent. d. Not binomial: there are too many trials. The decay constant for 14C is .00012 In 1947, the famous cave paintings in Lascaux, France were discovered and testing revealed that charcoal in the cave contained 20% of the 14C found in living trees. Write a formula for the age of the charcoal (hence of the associated paintings). Show your work to find this formula. A research group discovers a new version of happyase, which they call happyase*, that catalyzes the chemical reaction HAPPY SAD. The researchers begin to characterize the enzyme In the first experiment, with [E_t] at 4 nM, they find that the V_max is 1.6 mu M s^-1. In another experiment, with [E]total at 1 nM and [HAPPY] at 30 M, they find that v0 is 300 nMs1. Based on this second experiment, what is the Km for happyase? Epidemiologic studies that examine the role of a suspected factor in the etiology of a disease may be observational or experimental. The most important difference between experimental and observational studies is that in experimental studies: ___________a. The study and control groups are equal in size.b. The study is prospective.c. The study and control groups are always comparable with respect to all factors other than the exposure.d. The investigator determines who shall be exposed to the suspected factor and who shall not.e. Controls are used. If 2.0j of work is done in raising 180g apple, how far was it lifted? What is the mean of: 9.6, 2, 4.1, 8, 5.9, 2, 3.7, 6, 7.6? How many solutions does the system of equations have? The system has infinitely many solutions. The system has no solution.The system has exactly one solution. Addyson's goal is to spend less than $415 on a trip. So far, she has spent $25 on gas for her car. She will spend $100 each day on other expenses. Addyson's trip must last fewer than how many days?