Answer:
3
Explanation:
An hypothesis is a proposed explanation to an observation or an intelligent guess about a phenomenon made with little evidence at the beginning before proceeding to do further investigation or research. The most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate the hypothesis is to scatter seeds in several areas of the meadow and observed whether they will start to grow.
It is a model organism used to study various cell and developmental processes such as the growth of developing body parts in the right place and with the correct shape. It develops from a fertilized egg to an adult in a little over a week, and has been a favorite of geneticists for almost a century. Some of its cells have giant chromosomes whose banding patterns have been extremely helpful in classical genetic studies. Which organism is it?
Answer:
Drosophila melanogaster
Explanation:
Drosophila melanogaster or fruit fly is a fly species used as a model organism by geneticists and developmental biologists which helped them awarded eight Nobel prizes.
The studies on the role of genes in developmental biology and the study of the chromosomes obtained from the salivary glands called polytene chromosomes are the topic of research in the Drosophila.
Thus, Drosophila melanogaster is the correct answer.
Answer:
Drospohila.
Explanation:
The model organisms may be defined as the organisms that are well suited for the study of the biological phenomena. The model organisms have some special characteristics that are not present in other organisms.
The qualites of the model organisms that describe in the question clearly signifies that this model organism is Drosophila. The growth pattern and correct body shape is first studied in the Drosophila. The salivay glans of Drosophila consists of giant chromosomes.
Thus, the answer is Drosophila.
Which of the following statements does not apply to the immunoproteasome:
A It is generated in response to interferon-gamma stimulation.
B It contains the nonpolymorphic MECL1 subunit.
C It contains the polymorphic LMP7 subunit.
D Ten per cent of the peptides generated are 8-9 residues in length.
E It exhibits both chymotrypsin-like and trypsin-like activities.
Answer:
Option D. Ten per cent of the peptides generated are 8-9 residues in length is the correct answer.
Explanation:
An efficient derived from constitutive proteasome is called immunoproteasome. Its expression is highly visible in immune cells. It has an important role in immune system which is to degrade proteins of viral origin and intracellular proteins into smaller proteins. (See image for more detailed explanation)
What specific tissue type has large parallel bundles of collagen and is found in tendons and ligaments?
Answer:Connective tissue
Explanation: connective tissue are made up of a tissue consisting of living cells and a non-living substance. They are made up of collagen that are proteinous in nature.
In the pentose phosphate shunt, glucose 6-phosphate is oxidized to 6-phosphogluconate, which is then decarboxylated to ribulose 5-phosphate. What is the main metabolic role of this pathway?
The main metabolic role of this pathway is the production of NADPH.
We can arrive at this answer because:
All metabolic pathways have very important biological roles within an organism.These pathways are formed by a series of reactions that transform a molecule into another essential molecule for the body, usually an energetic molecule or a carbonic compound.In the case of the pentose phosphate pathway, the main role is to supply NADPH molecules to the body, which is a very energetic molecule that serves as a hydrogen donor coenzyme in other metabolic pathways.In addition, pentose phosphate shunt is a blood glucose regulatory pathway that is essential for the proper functioning of the body.
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Answer:
1) Pentose phosphate shunt mainly provides NADPH to the body.
2) It also produces ribose 5-phosphate, which is needed for nucleotide biosynthesis.
Explanation:
1) Pentose phosphate shunt provides NADPH to the body which has the following important uses in the body:
NADPH is required for the reductive biosynthesis of fatty acids, cholesterol, and steroid hormones.NADPH is also required for Nitric oxide (NO) synthesis. NO causes vasodilation and also acts as a neurotransmitter.NADPH is also required in the cytochrome P450 monooxygenase system which is involved in drug metabolism in the body. Pentose phosphate shunt is the only way through which red blood cells (RBCs) get their NADPH. This NADPH protects RBCs from reactive oxygen species.2) This pathway also provides ribose 5-phosphate, which is produced during this pathway. This ribose 5-phosphate then goes to the pathways involved in nucleotide biosynthesis.
____________ called controls, known samples, and knowns, these control samples are fully known to the forensic community with respect to composition, identification, source, and type. Examples of control samples include known combustible substances used for arson cases, known drug samples for suspected illegal drug samples, known blood types in violent crime investigations, and known DNA types for trace evidence cases.
Explanation:
Control samples are a kind of forensic samples which is used to confirm analyses to obtain results which are reliable.It plays an important role in assurance procedures as well as quality control. If there is no control samples, then scientific results will produce false positives results. The results which appear true but in reality it is false. If there is no control samples then false negative results may also obtained. The results which appear false but in reality it is true.according the the article, which of the following statements regarding gene therapy is true?
a: gene therapy is not a suitable medical treatment for cancer.
b: gene therapy only works in cases involving diseases of the eye
c: there are risks and benefits associated with gene therapy.
d: all of the above
Answer:
The answer is C. there are risks and benefits associated with gene therapy
not b, since they used it on people/animals who were blind
not a, since 70% tests have been on cancer
Answer:
There are risks and benefits associated with gene therapy
Explanation:
Scientists are currently exploring the use of gene therapy to treat numerous illnesses. Much of the research has involved the treatment of non-infectious diseases, such as cancer and diabetes, and genetic disorders. Gene therapy is a relatively new treatment, and medical researchers are still looking into other applications of the new technology.
There are risks and benefits associated with gene therapy. Some studies, such as the Leber's congenital amaurosis study, have produced promising results. However, there have been a few cases in which patients experienced complications.
Sodium is a necessary nutrient and the major extracellular cation in the body. What is one of its functions?
A) Cardiac stability
B) Muscular stability
C) Immune system functioning
D) Nerve impulse transmission
Answer:
A. Cardiac stability
Explanation:
Sodium helps to maintain the amount of bloodflow throughout your body too much or too les can be really dangerous.
Sodium is a critical nutrient for the body, with one of its key functions being the facilitation of nerve impulse transmission. This process is essential for movement, sensation, and body process regulation.
Explanation:Among its various essential roles in the body, sodium mainly serves as the major cation in extracellular fluid in our body. One of its most important functions is to facilitate nerve impulse transmission (Answer: D). This biochemical process is vital for crucial bodily functions, including movement, sensation, and the regulation of bodily processes. Sodium allows the generation and conduction of electrical impulses in the nerve cells by regulating the fluid balance in our body and assisting in the movement of various other molecules across cell membranes.
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Clouds usually form on the windward side because this is where air a. rises and cools. b. rises and warms. c. sinks and cools. d. sinks and warms.
Answer:
a. rises and cools.
Explanation:
The windward side of any mountain or an island, is the side where the prevailing wind, which carries moisture laden air, faces the mountain or island, thereby causing the wind to rise. This side of the mountain or island where the prevailing wind rises is the cold part where clouds are formed as the prevailing rising wind cools. This clouds later result into rain. The windward side is the cooler and wetter side of a mountain or island.
a DNA strand witha base sequence of ACTTCGCATG when replicated would yield a newly formed strand of the same base sequence true or false
True, a DNA strand is replicated to yield a new strand with the same base sequence. This ensures genetic consistency across cell generations. The base sequence ACTTCGCATG would remain the same in the replicated strand.
Explanation:The statement is true. When a DNA strand is replicated, the resulting strand has the same base sequence as the original strand. This happens through a process known as DNA replication. Let's take the DNA base sequence ACTTCGCATG as an example. During DNA replication, each base in the sequence pairs up with a complementary nucleotide: A with T, and C with G. Therefore, for the given DNA sequence, the replicated strand would also be ACTTCGCATG, albeit in a complementary manner. Thus, DNA replication ensures genetic consistency from one generation of cells to the next.
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In a typical pea experiment, two true-breeding plants with distinct traits of a single character are called the __________, and the offspring are called the __________, which will always be __________.
Answer:
Parental generation
F1 offsprings
Hybrid/heterozygous
Explanation:
A true breeding plant will always produce the same trait of a given gene when self-crossed. A truebreeding plant is also referred to as Homozygous because it contains identical alleles of a gene. Hence, they undergo meiosis or gamete formation to produce gametes containing the same allelic content.
When two truebreeding plants with two different traits for the same gene i.e. homozygous for different alleles of a gene, are crossed. They are referred to as the Parent or P generation. Their first offsprings called F1 (first filial) offsprings will possess a mixture or combination of the two parental alleles, hence, the F1 offsprings are called hybrids or are said to be heterozygous.
In Mendel's pea experiment, the true-breeding parent plants are called the P₁ generation, and the offspring are the F₁ generation, which are always heterozygous for the contrasting trait.
Explanation:In a typical pea experiment like those conducted by Gregor Mendel, two true-breeding plants with distinct traits of a single character are called the P₁ or the parental generation. These plants were homozygous, meaning they had two identical alleles for the trait he was studying. The offspring produced from the cross of these P₁ plants are referred to as the F₁, or the first filial generation. These F₁ plants, as a result of the P₁ cross, will always be heterozygous for the contrasting trait, which means that genetically, they carry different alleles for the gene under consideration.
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For an animal to move in one direction, its muscles must do all of the following except
a. overcome the effects of friction.
b. exert a force in the opposite direction.
c. spend energy.
d. overcome the effects of gravity.
e. exert a force in the same direction.
Answer:
e
Explanation:
exert a force in the same direction
Variation that results in the evolution of one species to another is called
Genetic variation within a species -- also known as genetic diversity -- increases a species' opportunity for change over successive generations.
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PLEASE HELP ASAP (100 POINTS) AND OTHER STUFF
Read each example and identify it with one of the mechanisms that influence gene pools.
----- A zebra migrates to join a different herd of zebras.
------ Competition for sunlight leads to taller trees.
------The DNA of a snake changes to make its venom stronger.
------ A grassfire randomly sweeps through a population of buffalo and kills most of the animals.
1.Genetic drift
2.Gene flow
3. Mutation
4.Natural selection
Answer:
A zebra migrates to join a different herd of zebras. Gene flow
Competition for sunlight leads to taller trees. Natural Selection
The DNA of a snake changes to make its venom stronger. Mutation
A grass fire randomly sweeps through a population of buffalo and kills most of the animals. Genetic drift
Explanation:
Gene flow: Gene flow can be described as the transfer of genes or genetic variation from one population to another. Hence, the migration of a zebra to a different herd of zebras is a kind of gene flow.
Natural Selection: The phenomenon of natural selection favors those organisms which have better characteristics to survive in an environment. Hence, natural selection favours the taller plants.
Mutation: Mutation can be described as any change which occurs in the DNA of an organism. Hence, a change in the DNA of the snake is mutation.
Genetic Drift: Genetic drift is the change in the gene frequency of an area due to certain disastrous conditions such as a fire.
Answer:
A zebra migrates to join a different herd of zebras. Gene flow
Competition for sunlight leads to taller trees. Natural Selection
The DNA of a snake changes to make its venom stronger. Mutation
A grass fire randomly sweeps through a population of buffalo and kills most of the animals. Genetic drift
Explanation:
Explain what Montesquieu means when he writes"every man invested with power is apt to abuse it, and to carry his authority as far as it will go?"Do you agree or disagree?Why?
Answer:
Montesquieu said that "every man invested with power is apt to abuse it, and to carry his authority as far as it will go". Agree with this statement.
Explanation:
In the book, "The Spirits of the Law", Montesquieu wrote that powers of a government should be divided between three: legislative, executive and judiciary. This separation is important to make sure that a single group of individuals are not given too much of a power. This would ensure that power is not abused.
He said that history has proved that political power has always been abused by a person who has it in abundance. So, to promote political liberty he thought it is important that there are separate branches of powers in a government.
So, Montesquieu made such a system with checks and balances so that no man uses law to do things he shouldn't do and also he refrains from doing what he is allowed to do.
Which liver function study is used to show the size of the liver and hepatic blood flow and obstruction?
Answer:Radioisotope Liver Scanner.
Explanation:
Radioisotope liver scan is a type of nuclear medication in which the radioactive tracer is formed by adding radioactive atoms to the molecules absorbed by the normal liver tissues.
It is used in diagnosing liver diseases.
In a species of snail, dark-shelled individuals are better hidden from bird predators in the shady forest, while light-shelled individuals are better hidden in well-lit brushy edge areas. If there were no areas of intermediate brightness in this habitat, which type of selection would act on shell color in these snails? a stabilizing selection b. directional selection c. disruptive selection
Answer:
c. disruptive selection
Explanation:
Disruptive selection, which is also called diversifying selection, is a form of natural selection that causes individuals with intermediate trait to be less favored to survive and reproduce, while those with extreme traits are favored by the evolutionary forces, making them to survive and reproduce more.
Disruptive selection would act on shell color in the snails causing the alleles for the extreme traits to increase in frequency while that of intermediate values will decrease resulting in the population being divided mainly into two groups.
When an insect touches the bristles on the lobes of a Venus flytrap, the lobes close quickly, engulfing the insect. The movement of the insect inside the lobes causes the flytrap to secrete digestive enzymes that kill the insect. Which type of relationship does this describe?
A.) Competition
B.) Parasitism
C.) Predation
D.) Commensalism
Answer: Option C. Predation
Explanation:
The predation type of relationship consists of the interactions between two species and their consequent effects on each other. In the predator prey relationship, one species is feeding on the other species. The prey species is the animal being fed on, and the predator is the animal being fed.
The flytrap is an example of a predator because, it secrete digestive enzymes that kills the insect. The insect is an example of a prey because, the insect was engulfed by the flytrap.
Final answer:
The relationship between a Venus flytrap and the insects it captures and digests is known as predation, where the flytrap is the predator and the insect is its prey.
Explanation:
When an insect touches the trigger hairs inside the lobes of a Venus flytrap, it initiates a thigmonastic movement, causing the lobes to close quickly and trap the insect. The struggling of the insect prompts the Venus flytrap to release digestive enzymes which eventually kill and digest the insect. The type of relationship this activity represents is predation, where one organism, the predator (Venus flytrap), kills and eats the other, the prey (insect).
Which statement forms part of cell theory?
Answer: Option D) All living things are made up of cells
Explanation:
The cell theory states that:
- the cell is the structural and functional unit of life
- all living organisms are made of cells
- all cells come from previously existing cells
- there is no life apart from the life of cells
- all living things are either single cells (unicellular) or group of cells (multicellular)
Deafness is a _____ along with ADHD. comorbidity dual-disease syndrome discrepancy disease psychopathological syndrome
Answer:
The correct option is A) comorbidity
Explanation:
In the field of medicine, comorbidity can be described as a term which is used for disorders which show more than one disorders along with a primary disorder.
For example, ADHD is a attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in which a person experiences a number of conditions such as problems in attention, the ability to sit still, and self-control. the same case goes with deafness. Although the primary effect of deafness is the lack of the ability to hear but certain other factors such as posture and balance are affected by it.
Deafness is a comorbidity along with ADHD, where comorbidity signifies having more than one diagnosed disorder. ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by inattention and impulsivity, and individuals can have additional disorders like depression or OCD.
Deafness is a comorbidity along with ADHD. Comorbidity refers to an individual who has two or more diagnoses, which can include a combination of substance abuse and various psychiatric disorders such as depression, bipolar disorder, or schizophrenia. In the context of ADHD, which is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulty maintaining attention and controlling impulses, comorbidity may involve secondary disorders such as depression or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
Hearing loss, or deafness, is the partial or complete inability to hear and can be comorbid with ADHD. Comorbidity does not imply a dual-disease syndrome, discrepancy disease, or psychopathological syndrome specifically but denotes the co-occurrence of multiple disorders in the same individual.
In the study of psychopathology, researchers must often rely on ________, which are people's own accounts of their internal states and experiences.
Answer:
SELF-REPORTS
Explanation:
Self-report surveys or
questionnaires have its participants
show their extent of subjective well
being, by answering to items based
on a number that shows their
feeling
Self-report scales to express the
happiness-how people classify
their own happiness extents on
self-report surveys. People answer
to numbered scales to show their
extent of satisfaction, positive feelings, and absence of negative feelings.
The A and B antigens in humans may be found in water-soluble form in secretions, including saliva, of some individuals (Se/Se and Se/se) but not in others (se/se). The population thus contains "secretors" and "nonsecretors."...... In matings between individuals that are blood type AB and type O, both of whom are Se/se, which of the following phenotypes will be seen?
A) AB,secretor
B) AB, nonsecretor
C) B, secretor
D) B, Nonsecretor
E) A, secretor
F) A, nonsecretor
G) O, secretor
H) O, Nonsecretor
Answer:
C) B, secretor
D) B, Nonsecretor
E) A, secretor
F) A, nonsecretor
Explanation:
When you cross AB(codominant) with O(homozygote recessive), it will result in 50% A(IaIo) and 50% B(IaIo).
The secretor gene is dominant and both parents are a heterozygote, so the ratio of offspring genotype should be 1 : 2: 1 while the ratio of the phenotype will be 3 secretors: 1 nonsecretor.
The possible phenotype will be:
B nonsecretor
A secretor
A nonsecretor
B secretor
B nonsecretor
When individuals with Se/se (secretor) alleles and blood types AB and O mate, their offspring could exhibit the following phenotypes: A, Secretor (E); B, Secretor (C); and O, Secretor (G). This happens because the parents have at least one allele that allows them to be secretors, which will be passed on to the offspring.
Explanation:The ABO blood group system is defined by the presence or absence of antigens A and/or B on the red blood cells. The presence of these specific antigens makes a person's blood type A, B, AB, or O. In this scenario, an individual with blood type AB has both the A and B antigens, while an individual with blood type O has neither antigen. The Se indicator denotes a 'secretor' or a person who can secrete their ABO antigens in their saliva and other body fluids.
Now, when an AB individual (Se/se) mates with an O individual (Se/se), their child can be born with blood type A, B, or O. As both parents are Se/se, meaning they have at least one allele for secretor status, all of their offspring will inherit at least one secretor allele, making them secretors, irrespective of their blood type. Therefore, the following phenotypes can indeed occur: A, Secretor (E); B, Secretor (C); and O, Secretor (G).
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"I really want to believe that my vague recollection of an incident that occurred at Disneyland as a preschooler is true, but that doesn’t mean that it is true." Which of the following critical thinking guidelines does this example illustrate?
a. examine the evidence
b. define your terms
c. don’t oversimplify
d. avoid emotional reasoning
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Emotional reasoning is a cognitive process by which the person concludes that emotional reaction proved that something is true regardless of the observed evidence.
Example : A husband shows the caring nature towards her wife still she can judge her husband and say he is unfaithful because he is jealous.
It is a type of cognitive distortions. It is caused due to lack of self satisfaction and self fulfilling nature.
The cognitive process that people use to make sense out of the environment by selecting, organizing, and interpreting information from the environment is called _____.
Answer:
The cognitive process that people use to make sense out of the environment by selecting, organizing, and interpreting information from the environment is called perception
Explanation:
Perception is ability to see , hear or become aware of something through sense or it is process of interpreting sensory stimuli. Our motiives greatly affects our perception. We perceive objects in our environment due to their feature such as pattern , depth and movements.
For example : A patient in a ward waiting for his visitors in evening would misperceive a stranger as a relative at a distance.
Our attention also affects our perception.
For example : While working in busy medical OPD when lot of patients surrounds a doctor , doctor just focus one patient for examination.
4. Describe the most likely direction of the prevailing winds across the Big Island of Hawaii.
The most likely direction of the prevailing winds across the Big Island of Hawaii is northeast.
Question you guys need to answer: 5) What is the basis for your answer to question 4 above?
The most likely direction of the prevailing winds across the Big Island of Hawaii is northeast.
Explanation:
The island of Hawaii, like all the other major Hawaiian Islands, is affected by the trade winds. These trade winds bring cool air to the islands from the north, often resulting in precipitation along inland/mountain and windward areas.
All of the Hawaiian Islands have both a windward and a leeward side. In general terms, the windward side is the wet, rainy, and therefore more lush, green, and tropical section. The windward side faces North or East, where it receives the benefit of the cool, trade-wind breeze.
Answer:
The island of Hawaii, like all the other major Hawaiian Islands, is affected by the trade winds. These trade winds bring cool air to the islands from the north, often resulting in precipitation along inland/mountain and windward areas.
Chondroblasts ________. Select one: a. never lose their ability to divide b. within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix c. are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae d. remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes
The correct answer to the question 'Chondroblasts ________.' is: b. within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix.
Chondroblasts, which are young cartilage cells, play an active role in the cartilage development by dividing and secreting new extracellular matrix. The extracellular matrix, made up of collagen and elastin fibers, provides support and elasticity to the cartilage. This continues until the cells become mature chondrocytes, which are then located in the spaces called lacunae. Chondroblasts are part of the endochondral ossification process, where they form a hyaline cartilage diaphysis template in long bones.
Upon a set of complex developmental signals, this matrix begins to calcify. When the matrix calcifies, this prevents the diffusion of nutrients thus causing some chondrocytes to die and creating cavities within the diaphysis cartilage. Eventually, these cavities become filled with blood vessels and osteoblasts, which modify the calcified cartilage matrix into spongy bone.
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The proximal tubule of the nephron (kidney tubule) in the kidney is composed of which type of epithelium?
Answer:
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Explanation:
The epithelium are tissues that line body surfaces and internal organs.
They can be Squamous-,cuboidal or Columnar.
The function of epithelium is to protect the underlying tissue from physical and chemical trauma.
They also help in absorption example in the digestive tract
They help in secretion of hormones in to the vascular system.
In the proximal Tubule of the nephron, it is lined up with the Simple cuboidal epithelium consisting of cells that are cube-like.
What is the name of the endocrine mode of reflex stimulation that releases hormone(s) due to direct stimulation from changing levels of nutrients or ions in the blood?
Answer: Humoral Stimulation
Explanation:
Humoral stimulus refers to the control of hormone release in response to changes in extracellular fluids. Humoral stimulus is also as result of reflex stimulation that releases hormone due to direct stimulation from changing levels of nutrients or ions in the blood, such as the ion concentration in the blood. Some hormones are secreted in direct response to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients.
Considering the inputs and products of each process, why is cellular respiration considered the reciprocal process to photosynthesis?
Answer:
In photosynthesis the six molecules of carbon dioxide and water are converted into a molecule of glucose and oxygen is evolved in this process.
6CO2 + 6H2O + energy(sunlight) → C6H12O6 + 6O2
In cellular respiration, the glucose molecule in the presence of oxygen is converted into six molecules of CO2 and H2O
C2H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP
So in cellular respirate the producet of photosynthesis which is glucose is converted back into substrate of photosynthesis therefore it is considered as reciprocal of photosynthesis.
Keira is giving birth and is attempting to pass the placenta. She is in the ________ stage of birth.
Answer:
The correct answer is- third stage
Explanation:
Labor is divided into three stages first stage, second stage, and third stage. The first stage starts when a contraction starts which dilates the cervix and it ends when the cervix gets fully open.
In the second stage, the baby is pushed by the mother through the birth canal. It ends with the delivery of the baby. After the baby is born the third stage starts and the third stage ends with the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall and safely passed out through the vagina. Therefore the right answer is the third stage.
During the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential, when the membrane potential is more negative than the resting membrane potential, what happens to voltage-gated ion channels?
Answer:
Hyperpolarization occurs when the change in a cell's membrane potential, due to the opening of potassium channels, (K+ migrate outside and Cl- migrates inside) makes it more negative and Na+ channels close.
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