You throw a rock straight up from the edge of a cliff. It leaves your hand at time t = 0 moving at 13.0 m/s. Air resistance can be neglected. Find both times at which the rock is 4.00 m above where it left your hand. Enter your answers in ascending order separated by a comma. Express your answer in seconds.

Answer:

Current I=6.34A

Explanation:

Given data

L=L₁=L₂=4.42 m

I₁=7.33A

Angle α=69.4°

B=0.547T

Force F=2.24N

Required

Current I

Solution

The length of each wire ,the magnetic field B,and the angle are same for both wires.

As we know that Force is:

[tex]F_{net}=I_{1}LBSin\alpha -I_{2}LBSin\alpha\\F_{net}=(I_{1}-I_{2})LBSin\alpha\\I_{2}=I_{1}-\frac{F_{net}}{LBSin\alpha}\\I_{2}=7.33A-\frac{2.24N}{(4.42m)(0.547T)Sin(69.4)} \\I_{2}=6.34A[/tex]    

Current I=6.34A

Answer:

voltage between the plates is 4.952 × [tex]10^{-26}[/tex] V

Explanation:

given data

plate separated distance = 2.67 cm

electron speed = 1.32 × [tex]10^{7}[/tex]  m/s

solution

we will get here first force that is express as

force in parallel plate F = [tex]\frac{eV}{d}[/tex]   ..............1

and force by Newton second law F = ma   .............2

equate equation 1 and 2

ma = [tex]\frac{eV}{d}[/tex]    .................3

and here we know as kinematic equation

v²- u² = 2 × a × s    ...........4

so for initial speed acceleration will be

a = [tex]\frac{v^2-u^2}{2\times s}[/tex]  

a = [tex]\frac{(1.32 \times 10^7)^2}{2\times 2.67 \times 10^{-2}}[/tex]  

a = 3.262 × [tex]10^{-13}[/tex]  m/s²

now we put a in equation 3 and we get v

ma = [tex]\frac{eV}{d}[/tex]

9.1093 × [tex]10^{-31}[/tex] × 3.262 × [tex]10^{-13}[/tex]  = [tex]\frac{1.602 \times 10^{-19} V}{2.67 \times 10^{-2}}[/tex]  

solve it we get

v = 4.952 × [tex]10^{-26}[/tex] V

Answer:

μk = 0.408

Explanation:

Given:

m=0.50 Kg,

Let compressed distance x = 0.20 m, and

stretched distance after releasing y = 1.00 m

K = 100 N/M

Sol:

Law of conservation of energy

Energy dissipation due to friction = P.E stores in the spring

Ff * y = 1/2 K x ²   (Ff = μk Fn)  And (Fn = mg) so

μk mgy  =   1/2 K x ²

μk = 1/2 K x ² /mgy   Putting values

μk = (1/2 ) (100 N/M) (0.20 m)² / (0.50 Kg x 9.8 m/s² x 1 m)

μk = 0.408

0.4

(i) Since the mass is forced against the spring, an elastic energy ([tex]E_{E}[/tex]) due to the compression of the spring by the force is produced and is given according to Hooke's law by;

[tex]E_{E}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] k c²            --------------------------------(i)

Where;

k = spring's constant

c = compression caused on the spring.

From the question;

k = 100N/m

c = 0.20m

Substitute these values into equation (i) as follows;

[tex]E_{E}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x 100 x 0.20²

[tex]E_{E}[/tex] = 2J

(ii) Now, when the mass is released, it causes the block to move some distance until it stops thereby doing some work within that distance. This means that the elastic energy is converted to workdone. i.e

[tex]E_{E}[/tex] = W          ------------(ii)

The work done (W) is given by the product of the net force(F) on the block and the distance covered(s). i.e

W = F x s           -----------------(iii)

But, the only force acting on the body as it moves is the frictional force ([tex]F_{R}[/tex]) acting to oppose its motion. i.e

F = [tex]F_{R}[/tex]

Where;

[tex]F_{R}[/tex] = μN      [μ = coefficient of kinetic friction, N = mg = normal reaction between the block and the tabletop, m = mass of the block, g = gravity]

[tex]F_{R}[/tex] = μ x mg

Substitute F = [tex]F_{R}[/tex] = μ x mg into equation (iii) as follows;

W = μ x mg x s             ----------------(iv)

Now substitute the value of W into equation (ii) as follows;

[tex]E_{E}[/tex] = μ x mg x s                ------------------(v)

Where;

[tex]E_{E}[/tex] = 2 J               [as calculated above]

m = 0.50 kg

s = distance moved by block = 1.00m

g = 10m/s²            [a known constant]

Substitute these values into equation (v) as follows;

2 = μ x 0.50 x 10 x 1

2 = 5μ

μ = 2 / 5

μ = 0.4

Therefore, the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the tabletop is 0.4

The tangential acceleration of a point on a rotating rigid body with constant angular acceleration depends on the change in the angular velocity. It's represented by the formula a_t = r * α, thus can change if the radius changes, even if the angular acceleration is constant.

In this case, a rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with constant angular acceleration. The tangential acceleration of any point on the body would depend on the change in the angular velocity, making the correct answer (b). This is because the tangential acceleration is directly proportional to the angular acceleration and the distance from the axis of rotation, as represented by the formula a_t = r * α, where a_t is the tangential acceleration, r is the radius, and α is the angular acceleration.

Therefore, if the angular acceleration is constant, the tangential acceleration can change if the radius changes. However, if the radius is also constant, then the tangential acceleration will be constant in magnitude, but its direction will change as the direction of the tangent to the motion changes.

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The tangential acceleration of a point on a rotating body with constant angular acceleration depends on the change in the angular velocity. This is due to the relationship defined by the equation for tangential acceleration at = α x r.

In the context of a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis with constant angular acceleration, the correct statement in relation to the tangential acceleration of any point on the body would be: b. The tangential acceleration depends on the change in the angular velocity.

This is because, in physics, tangential acceleration is a measure of how the tangential velocity of a point at a certain radius changes with time. It is directly proportional to the angular acceleration (α) and the radius (r), expressed by the equation at = α x r. Therefore, the tangential acceleration will change as the angular velocity changes, provided there is angular acceleration.

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Explanation:

According to the free body diagram a block of mass m will have expression for force as follows.

                  N = ma

and,       [tex]f_{c} - mg[/tex] = 0  

             [tex]\mu_{s}N - mg[/tex] = 0

       [tex]\mu_{s} = \frac{mg}{N}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{mg}{ma}[/tex]

                  = [tex]\frac{g}{a}[/tex]

                  = [tex]\frac{9.8}{13}[/tex]

                  = 0.75

Therefore, we can conclude that the value of coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0.75.

The coefficient of static friction between the large block and smaller block is equal to 0.754.

Given the following data:

Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 [tex]m/s^2[/tex]

To determine the coefficient of static friction between the large block and smaller block:

A force of static friction can be defined as the frictional force that resists the relative motion of two (2) surfaces.

Hence, a force of static friction is a frictional force that keeps an object at rest or stationary rather than being in relative motion.

Mathematically, the force of static friction is given by the formula;

[tex]Fs = uFn[/tex]

Where;

For these block systems, the forces acting on them is given by:

[tex]uma - mg = 0\\\\uma = mg\\\\ua =g\\\\u=\frac{g}{a}[/tex]

Substituting the parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]u=\frac{9.8}{13}[/tex]

u = 0.754

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Answer:

(a) the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the loop is  0.75 Am²

(b) the torque the magnetic field exerts on the loop is 0.028 N.m

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns, N = 15

width of the loop, w = 10 cm = 0.1 m

length of loop, L = 20 cm = 0.2 m

current through the loop, I  = 2.5 A

strength of the magnetic field, B = 0.037 T

Area of the loop, A = L x w = 0.2 x 0.1 = 0.02 m²

Part (a) the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the loop

μ = NIA

where;

μ is the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the loop

μ = 15 x 2.5 x 0.02 = 0.75 Am²

Part (b) the torque the magnetic field exerted on the loop

τ = μB

where;

τ is the torque the magnetic field exerts on the loop

τ = μB = 0.75 x 0.037 = 0.028 N.m

Given Information:

Magnetic field = B =  0.037 T

Current = I = 2.5 A

Number of turns = N = 15 turns

Length of rectangular coil = L = 20 cm = 0.20 m

Width of rectangular coil = W = 10 cm = 0.10 m

Required Information:

(a) Magnetic moment = µ = ?

(b) Torque = τ = ?

Answer:

(a) Magnetic moment = 0.75 A.m ²

(b) Torque = 0.0277 N.m

Explanation:

(a) The magnetic moment µ is given by

µ = NIA

Where µ is the magnetic, N is the number of turns, I is the current, A is the area of rectangular loop and is given by

A = W*L

A = 0.10*0.20

A = 0.02 m²  

µ = 15*2.5*0.02

µ = 0.75 A.m²

(b) The toque τ exerted on current carrying loop with A area in the presence of a magnetic field B is given by

τ = NIAB

τ = 15*2.5*0.02*0.037

τ = 0.0277 N.m

Alternatively,

τ = µB

τ = 0.75*0.037

τ = 0.0277 N.m

Answer:

The current in the primary is 0.026 A

Explanation:

Using the formula

I1 = (V1/V2)*I2

we have

I1 = (6.4/120)*0.500

I1 = 0.026 A

To find the current in the primary coil of a transformer, we use the power equivalence between the primary and secondary sides, and solve for the primary current using the given voltages and secondary current. This results in a primary current of 26.7 mA.

Calculating the Primary Current in a Transformer

To determine the primary current in a transformer, we need to use the relationship between the power in the primary and secondary circuits. The power delivered by an ideal transformer is the same on both sides, which means Powerprimary = Powersecondary. This can be written as:

Given parameters are:

We first calculate the power on the secondary side:

For an ideal transformer, this power must be equal to the power on the primary side:

Thus, we have:

Solving for [tex]Iprimary[/tex], we get:

Therefore, the current in the primary coil is 26.7 mA.

Explanation:

The mixing chamber will be well insulated when steady operating conditions exist such that there will be negligible heat loss to the surroundings. Therefore, changes in the kinetic and potential energies of the fluid streams will be negligible and there are constant fluid properties with no work interactions.

   [tex]T < T_{sat}[/tex] at 250 kPa = [tex]127.41^{o}C[/tex]

   [tex]h_{1}[/tex] approx equal to [tex]h_{f}[/tex] at [tex]80^{o}C[/tex]

              = 335.02 kJ/kg

    [tex]h_{2}[/tex] ≈ [tex]h_{f}[/tex] at [tex]20^{o}C[/tex]

                      = 83.915 kJ/kg

and,    [tex]h_{3}[/tex] ≈ [tex]h_{f}[/tex] at [tex]42^{o}C[/tex] = 175.90 kJ/kg

Therefore, mass balance will be calculated as follows.

   [tex]m^{o}_{in} - m^{o}_{out} = \Delta m^{o}_{system} \rightarrow m^{o}_{1} + m^{o}_{2} = m^{o}_{3}[/tex]

And, energy balance will be given as follows.

      [tex]E^{o}_{in} - E^{o}_{out} = \Delta E^{o}_{system}[/tex]

As we are stating steady conditions,

     [tex]\Delta m^{o}_{system}[/tex] and [tex]\Delta E^{o}_{system}[/tex] cancel out to zero.

So,    [tex]E^{o}_{in} = E^{o}_{out}[/tex]

     [tex]m^{o}_{1}(h_{1}) + m^{o}_{2}(h_{2}) = m^{o}_{3}(h_{3})[/tex]

On combining the relations, we solve for [tex]m^{o}_{2}[/tex] as follows.

   [tex]m^{o}_{1}(h_{1}) + m^{o}_{2}(h_{2}) = (m^{o}_{1} + m^{o}_{2})(h_{3})[/tex]

   [tex]m^{o}_{2} = (\frac{(h_{1} - h_{3})}{(h_{3} - h_{2})}) \times m^{o}_{1}[/tex]

              = [tex]\frac{(335.02 - 175.90)}{(175.90 - 83.915)} \times 0.5[/tex]  

       [tex]m^{o}_{2}[/tex] = 0.865 kg/s

                       = 51.9 kg/min      (as 1 min = 60 sec)

Thus, we can conclude that the mass flow rate of cold stream is 51.9 kg/min.

Answer:

Explanation:

Check attachment for solution

Explanation:

There are three forces on the plank.  T₁ pulling up at point P, T₂ pulling up at point Q, and W pulling down at point C.

Let's say the length of the plank is L.

Sum of forces in the y direction before rope II is moved:

∑F = ma

150 N + 150 N − W = 0

W = 300 N

Sum of moments about point P after rope II is moved:

∑τ = Iα

(T₁) (0) − (300 N) (L/2) + (T₂) (3L/4) = 0

-(300 N) (L/2) + (T₂) (3L/4) = 0

-(300 N) (1/2) + (T₂) (3/4) = 0

-150 N + 3/4 T₂ = 0

T₂ = 200 N

Sum of forces in the y direction:

∑F = ma

T₁ + 200 N − 300 N = 0

T₁ = 100 N

The new tensions in the two ropes after the movement of rope 2 are;

T₁ = 100 N

T₁ = 100 NT₂ = 200 N

We are told that as the plank is currently, the two ropes attached at each end have tension of 150 N each.

Thus;

T₁ = T₂ = 150 N

The two ropes are acting in tension upwards and so for the plank to be balanced, there has to be a downward force(which is the weight of the plank) must be equal to the sum of the tension in the two ropes.

Thus, from equilibrium of forces, we have;

W = T₁ + T₂

W = 150 + 150

W = 300 N

Now, we are told that;

Rope 2 is now moved to a point R which is halfway between point C and Q. Since C is the centre of the plank and R is the midpoint of C and Q, if the length of the plank is L, then the distance of rope 2 from point P is now ¾L.

Since the plank remains horizontal after shifting the rope 2 to point R, let us take moments about point P to get;

T₂(¾L) - W(½L) = 0

Plugging in the relevant values;

T₂(¾L) - 300(½L) = 0

T₂(¾L) - 150L = 0

Rearrange to get;

T₂(¾L) = 150L

Divide both sides by L to get;

T₂(¾) = 150

Cross multiply to get;

T₂ = 150 × 4/3

T₂ = 200 N

Thus;

T₁ = 300 - 200

T₁ = 100 N

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Answer:

Photons Generated= ~1715 photons

Explanation:

The detailed explanation of answer is given in attached file.

Answer:

The final speed of the rod is 0.86 m/s.

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of rod = 1.3 kg

Distance between rail= 0.42 m

Current = 2.6 A

Magnetic field = 0.35 T

Distance = 1.25 m

We need to calculate the acceleration

Using formula of magnetic force

[tex]F= Bil[/tex]

[tex]ma=Bil[/tex]

[tex]a=\dfrac{Bil}{m}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]a=\dfrac{0.35\times2.6\times0.42}{1.3}[/tex]

[tex]a=0.294\ m/s^2[/tex]

We need to calculate the final speed of the rod

Using equation of motion

[tex]v^2-u^2=2as[/tex]

Put the value in the equation

[tex]v^2=2\times0.294\times1.25[/tex]

[tex]v=0.86\ m/s[/tex]

Hence, The final speed of the rod is 0.86 m/s.

The final speed of the rod is 0.86 m/s.

This refers to the rate of change of the position of an object in a specified direction.

To calculate the acceleration

We use the formula of magnetic force

a=Bil/m

a= (0.35 x 2.6 x 0.42)/1.3

a= 0.294m/s^2

Then the final speed of the rod

We use the equation of motion

v^2 - u^2= 2as

=> v^2= 0.86m/s

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Answer:

The proton was moving at a speed of 1.64 x 10⁶ m/s

Explanation:

Given;

strength of magnetic field, B = 0.280 T

circular radius, R = 6.12 cm

mass of proton, m = 1.67 x 10⁻²⁷ kg

charge of electron. q = 1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

When the proton follows a circular arc, then magnetic force will be equal to the centripetal force.

Magnetic force, Fm = qvB

Centripetal force, Fr = mv²/R

Fm = Fr

qvB = mv²/R

[tex]qvB = \frac{Mv^2}{R} \\\\\frac{qBR}{M} = \frac{v^2}{v} \\\\v =\frac{qBR}{M} = \frac{1.602*10^{-19} *0.28*0.0612}{1.67*10^{-27}} =1.64 *10^6 \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the proton was moving at a speed of 1.64 x 10⁶ m/s

Given Information:

Magnetic field = B = 0.280 T

Radius = r = 6.12 cm = 0.0612 m

Required Information:  

Speed of proton = v = ?

Answer:

Speed of proton = v = 1641.77x10³ m/s

Explanation:

Since the proton is moving in a circular path we can model it in terms of magnetic force and centripetal force.

The magnetic force is given by

F = qvB

The centripetal force is given by

F = mv²/r

equating the both equations yields,

mv²/r = qvB

mv = qBr

v = qBr/m

Where q = 1.6x10⁻¹⁹ C is the of the proton, m = 1.67x10⁻²⁷ kg is the mass of proton, B is the magnetic field and r is the radius o circular arc around which proton is moving.

v = 1.6x10⁻¹⁹*0.280*0.0612/1.67x10⁻²⁷

v = 1641772.45 m/s

v = 1641.77x10³ m/s

Therefore, the proton is moving at the speed of 1641.77x10³ m/s.

Answer:

a. The energy of the air at the initial and the final states is 0kJ and 0.171kJ respectively

b. 0.171kJ

c. 0.143

Explanation:

a.

Because there are same conditions of the state of air at the surroundings and at the Initial stage, the energy of air at the Initial stage is 0kJ.

Calculating energy at the final state;

We start by calculating the specific volume of air in the environment and at the final state.

U2 = At the final state, it is given by

RT2/P2

U1= At the Initial state, it is given by

RT1/P1

Where R = The gas constant of air is 0.287 kPa.m3/kg

T2 = 150 + 273 = 423K

T1 = 25 + 273 = 298K

P2 = 600KPa

P1 = 100KPa

U2 = 0.287 * 423/600

U2 = 0.202335m³/kg

U1 = 0.287 * 298/100

U1 = 0.85526m³/kg

Then we Calculate the mass of air using ideal gas relation

PV = mRT

m = P1V/RT1 where V = 2*10^-3kg

m = 100 * 2 * 10^-3/(0.287 * 298)

m = 0.00234kg

Then we calculate the entropy difference, ∆s. Which is given by

cp2 * ln(T2/T1) - R * ln(P2/P1)

Where cp2 = cycle constant pressure = 1.005

∆s = 1.005 * ln (423/298) - 0.287 * ln(600/100)

∆s = -0.1622kJ/kg

Energy at the final state =

m(E2 - E1 + Po(U2 - U1) -T0 * ∆s)

E2 and E1 are gotten from energy table as 302.88 and 212.64 respectively

Energy at the final state

= 0.00234(302.88 - 212.64 + 100(0.202335 - 0.85526) - 298 * -0.1622)

Energy at the final state = 0.171kJ

b.

Minimum Work = ∆Energy

Minimum Work = Energy at the final state - Energy at the initial state

Minimum Work = 0.171 - 0

Minimum Work done = 0.171kJ

c. The second-law efficiency of this process is calculated by ratio of meaningful and useful work

= 0.171/1.2

= 0.143

Exergy measures the maximum work a system can produce. To calculate its change and consequently the minimum work supplied and second-law efficiency, additional data like specific heats are required.

This involves thermodynamics, a branch of physics that deals with energy transfer. Specifically, this question is about the concept of exergy, a measure of the maximum amount of work a system can produce with respect to its environment.

(a) The exergy (or available energy) of a system in a given state is the maximum theoretical work that can be obtained as the system communicates with an equilibrium state. In this case, the initial and final states of the system are given, but we need more data such as the specific heats, to compute the initial and final exergies.

(b) The minimum work that must be supplied is equivalent to the change in exergy from the initial to the final state, but again, it cannot be determined without knowing the specific heat values of air

(c) The second-law efficiency is defined as the ratio of the actual work to the work done in a reversible process. Here, it is the ratio of the useful work input (1.2 kJ) to the minimum work needed for the compression process. To find the exact efficiency, we need to compute the minimum required work, which would require the specific heat values.

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Answer:

work done is -150 kJ

Explanation:

given data

volume v1 = 2 m³

pressure p1 = 100 kPa

pressure p2 = 200 kPa

internal energy = 10 kJ

heat is transferred  = 150 kJ

solution

we know from 1st law of thermodynamic is

Q = du +W    ............1

put here value and we get

-140 = 10 + W

W = -150 kJ

as here work done is -ve so we can say work is being done on system

Final answer:

The work done by the gas during the compression where 2 m³ of an ideal gas is compressed from 100 kPa to 200 kPa, with an internal energy increase of 10 kJ, and 150 kJ of heat transferred to the surroundings, is -160 kJ.

Explanation:

The student has asked how much work was done by the gas during a compression process in which 2 m³ of an ideal gas is compressed from 100 kPa to 200 kPa, the internal energy increases by 10 kJ, and 150 kJ of heat is transferred to the surroundings. To find the work done by the gas, we can use the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the change in internal energy (ΔU) is equal to the heat added to the system (Q) minus the work done by the system (W). The formula is ΔU = Q - W.

In this scenario, we have ΔU as +10 kJ (because the internal energy increases) and Q as -150 kJ (because heat is transferred to the surroundings, meaning it is leaving the system, thus it's a negative value). Plugging these values into the first law of thermodynamics gives us:

10 kJ = -150 kJ - W

When we rearrange the equation to solve for W, it becomes:

W = -150 kJ - 10 kJ

W = -160 kJ

Since work done by the system is a negative value in this case, it indicates that 160 kJ of work has been done on the gas by the surroundings during the compression. Thus, the work done by the gas itself is -160 kJ.

Answer:

I₀ = 0.2 mA

Explanation:

        [tex]V = I_{0}*R \\\\ I_{0} = \frac{V}{R} = \frac{1.50V}{7.71e3\Omega} = 0.2 mA[/tex]

0.19mA

Given;

Capacitor of capacitance = 4.07 μF

Resistor of resistance = 7.71 kΩ = 7.71 x 1000Ω  = 7710Ω

Voltage = 1.50V

Since the capacitor is initially uncharged, it behaves like a short circuit. Therefore, the only element drawing current at that instant is the resistor.  This means that the initial current in the circuit is the one due to (flowing through) the resistor.

And since there is negligible internal resistance, the emf of the battery is equal to the voltage supplied by the battery and is used to supply current to the resistor. Therefore, according to Ohm's law;

V = I x R           ---------------(i)

Where;

V = voltage supplied or the emf

I = current through the resistor

R = resistance of the resistor

Substitute the values of V and R into equation (i) as follows;

1.50 = I x 7710

I = [tex]\frac{1.5}{7710}[/tex]

I = 0.00019A

Multiply the result by 1000 to convert it to milliamperes as follows;

0.00019 x 1000 mA = 0.19mA

Therefore, the initial current in the circuit, expressed in milliamperes is 0.19

Answer:

E = I(R + r)

Making I the subject of the formular by dividing both sides by R + r,

I = E/(R + r)

E = 4V, r = 0.7Ohm, R = 0

I = 4/(0 + 0.7) = 4/0.7

I = 5.174285714A

Explanation:

For a cell of emf E, internal resistance r, connected to an external resistance R, the current flowing through the circuit will be given as:

I = E/(R + r). I is measured in Amperes(A), emf in volts(V), R in Ohms and internal resistance r also in ohms

Answer:A. Keep pushing the box forward at a steady speed.

Explanation: Frictional force is a resistant force which oppose the Movement of an object, frictional force can emanate from a rough surface.

When an object that is moving with a consistent force is opposed by the roughness of the surface through which it is moving,it will cause the object to continue to move with a reduced speed as it goes along.

WHEN YOU APPLY A CONSTANT FORCE ON A MOVING OBJECT THAT IS OPPOSED BY A ROUGH SURFACE IT WILL RESULT IN AN AVERAGE MINIMAL FORCE BEING APPLIED TO THE OBJECT.

Answer:

Explanation:

Area, A = 4 cm x 4.2 cm = 16.8 cm²

A).

[tex]\overrightarrow{E}=150\widehat{i}-200\widehat{k}[/tex]

Area is in x y plane so

[tex]\overrightarrow{A}=16.8\times 10^{-4}\widehat{k}[/tex]

Electric flux,

[tex]\phi =\overrightarrow{E}.\overrightarrow{A}[/tex]

[tex]\phi =\left ( 150\widehat{i}-200\widehat{k} \right ).\left (16.8\times 10^{-4}\widehat{k} \right )[/tex]

Ф = 0.336 Nm²/C

B).

[tex]\overrightarrow{E}=150\widehat{i}-200\widehat{j}[/tex]

[tex]\phi =\overrightarrow{E}.\overrightarrow{A}[/tex]

[tex]\phi =\left ( 150\widehat{i}-200\widehat{j} \right ).\left (16.8\times 10^{-4}\widehat{k} \right )[/tex]

Ф = 0 Nm²/C

Answer:

maximum value of the magnetic field  B  = 1 ×[tex]10^{-8}[/tex] T

average intensity of the light = 0.011937 W/m²

power of source =  14.40 J

Explanation:

given data

maximum electric field E = 3.0 V/m

distance from a point source r = 9.8 m

solution

first we get here maximum value of the magnetic field  

maximum value of the magnetic field   = [tex]\frac{E}{C}[/tex]   .........1

maximum value of the magnetic field   = [tex]\frac{3}{3 \times 10^8}[/tex]

maximum value of the magnetic field  B  = 1 ×[tex]10^{-8}[/tex] T

and

now we get average intensity of the light that is

average intensity of the light =  [tex]\frac{EB}{2\mu _o}[/tex]   .........2

average intensity of the light = [tex]\frac{3 \times 1 \times 10^{-8}}{2 \times 4\pi \times 10^{-7}}[/tex]  

average intensity of the light = 0.011937 W/m²

and

now we get power of source that is express as

power of source = average intensity × 4×π×r²   ..........3

power of source = 0.011937 × 4×π×9.8²

power of source =  14.40 J

Explanation:

It is known that relation between torque and angular acceleration is as follows.

                    [tex]\tau = I \times \alpha[/tex]

and,       I = [tex]\sum mr^{2}[/tex]

So,      [tex]I_{1} = 2 kg \times (1 m)^{2} + 2 kg \times (1 m)^{2}[/tex]

                       = 4 [tex]kg m^{2}[/tex]

      [tex]\tau_{1} = 4 kg m^{2} \times \alpha_{1}[/tex]

     [tex]\tau_{2} = I_{2} \alpha_{2}[/tex]

So,      [tex]I_{2} = 2 kg \times (0.5 m)^{2} + 2 kg \times (0.5 m)^{2}[/tex]

                     = 1 [tex]kg m^{2}[/tex]

 as [tex]\tau_{2} = I_{2} \alpha_{2}[/tex]

                   = [tex]1 kg m^{2} \times \alpha_{2}[/tex]        

Hence,     [tex]\tau_{1} = \tau_{2}[/tex]

                  [tex]4 \alpha_{1} = \alpha_{2}[/tex]

            [tex]\alpha_{1} = \frac{1}{4} \alpha_{2}[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the new rotation is [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] times that of the first rotation rate.

Final answer:

The final angular velocity will be approximately 1 rev/s.

Explanation:

First, let's calculate the initial angular velocity using the formula:

Initial Angular Velocity = Initial Moment of Inertia * Initial Angular Velocity / Final Moment of Inertia

Given that the initial moment of inertia is 5 kg(m2), the initial angular velocity is 1 rev/s, and the final moment of inertia is approximately 5 kg(m2), we can calculate the initial angular velocity as follows:  (5 kg(m2) * 1 rev/s / 5 kg(m2)) = 1 rev/s. Therefore, the final angular velocity will also be approximately 1 rev/s.

Answer:

Theta1 = 12° and theta2 = 168°

The solution procedure can be found in the attachment below.

Explanation:

The Range is the horizontal distance traveled by a projectile. This diatance is given mathematically by Vo cos(theta) t. Where t is the total time of flight of the projectile in air. It is the time taken for the projectile to go from starting point to finish point. This solution assumes the projectile finishes uts motion on the same horizontal level as the starting point and as a result the vertical displacement is zero (no change in height).

In the solution as can be found below, the expression to calculate the range for any launch angle theta was first derived and then the required angles calculated from the equation by substituting the values of the the given quantities.

Answer:

-0.3

Explanation:

F' = μmg ........... Equation 1

Where F' = Frictional force, μ = coefficient of kinetic friction, m = mass of the stone, g = acceleration due to gravity.

But,

F' = ma ............ Equation 2

Where a = acceleration of the stone.

Substitute equation 2 into equation 1

ma = μmg

dividing both side of the equation by m

a = μg

make μ the subject of the equation

μ = a/g............... Equation 3

From the equation of motion,

v² = u²+2as................. Equation 4

Where v and u are the final and the initial velocity respectively, s = distance.

Given: v = 0 m/s (to rest), u = 8.0 m/s, s = 11 m.

Substitute into equation 4

0² = 8² + 2×11×a

22a = -64

a = -64/22

a = -32/11 m/s² = -2.91 m/s²

substitute the values of a and g into equation 3

μ = -2.91/9.8

μ = -0.297

μ ≈ -0.3

Final answer:

The coefficient of kinetic friction is found using the work-energy principle by equating the initial kinetic energy of the stone to the work done by friction. Given that the stone travels 11 meters and comes to rest, the coefficient of kinetic friction is calculated as approximately 0.296.

Explanation:

To find the coefficient of kinetic friction between the stone and the surface, we need to use the work-energy principle, which states that the work done by all the forces acting on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy. Since the stone comes to rest, all of its initial kinetic energy has been converted into work done against friction.

First, let's calculate the initial kinetic energy (KE) of the stone:

This energy is equal to the work done by friction (Wf):

Wf = Frictional force (f) x Distance (d)

Since the frictional force is equal to the kinetic friction coefficient (µk) multiplied by the normal force (N), and the normal force is equal to the weight of the stone (mg, where g is the acceleration due to gravity), we can express the work done by friction as:

Wf = µkmgd

Setting the work done by friction equal to the initial kinetic energy gives us:

32 J = µkmg(11 m)

Solving for the coefficient of kinetic friction:

µk = 32 J / (mg x 11 m)

Now, assuming the acceleration due to gravity (g) is 9.8 m/s²:

µk = 32 J / (m x 9.8 m/s² x 11 m)

Since the mass (m) cancels out, we don't need to know it:

µk = 32 J / (9.8 m/s² x 11 m)

µk = 0.296

Therefore, the coefficient of kinetic friction between the stone and the level surface is approximately 0.296.

Answer:

[tex]W=-251096.465\ J[/tex] negativesign denotes thatthe work is consumed by the system.

Explanation:

Given:

Isothermal process.

initial temperature, [tex]T_1=300\ K[/tex]

initial pressure, [tex]P_1=150kPa[/tex]

initial volume, [tex]V_1=0.2\ m^3[/tex]

final pressure, [tex]P_2=800\ kPa[/tex]

The work done during an isothermal process is given by:

[tex]W=P_1.V_1\times ln(\frac{P_1}{P_2} )[/tex]

[tex]W=150\times 1000\times \ln\frac{150}{800}[/tex]

[tex]W=-251096.465\ J[/tex] negativesign denotes thatthe work is consumed by the system.

Answer:

d = <23, 33, 0> m ,    F_W = <0, -9.8, 0> ,   W = -323.4 J

Explanation:

We can solve this exercise using projectile launch ratios, for the x-axis the displacement is

         x = vox t

Y Axis  

         y = [tex]v_{oy}[/tex] t - ½ g t²

It's displacement is

      d = x i ^ + y j ^ + z k ^

Substituting

      d = (23 i ^ + 33 j ^ + 0) m

Using your notation

   d = <23, 33, 0> m

The force of gravity is the weight of the body

         W = m g

        W = 1  9.8 = 9.8 N

In vector notation, in general the upward direction is positive

         W = (0 i ^  - 9.8 j ^ + 0K ^) N

         W = <0, -9.8, 0>

Work is defined

           W = F. dy

             W = F dy cos θ

In this case the force of gravity points downwards and the displacement points upwards, so the angle between the two is 180º

          Cos 180 = -1

           W = -F y

           W = - 9.8 (33-0)

           W = -323.4 J

Two circuits are considered equivalent when their output values are the same for all possible input combinations.

A circuit equivalent to another is one that meets the same conditions, (eg same current), under a different configuration.

Therefore, we can conclude that two circuits are considered equivalent when their output values are the same for all possible input combinations.

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/12093917

Final answer:

Two circuits are considered equivalent if they produce the same output for all possible input combinations, as can be demonstrated using a truth table in digital logic. The correct option is C.

Explanation:

Two circuits are considered equivalent when their output values are the same for all possible input combinations. This means that regardless of the input values, both circuits will produce the same output across all scenarios. For instance, in digital logic, two circuits using different logic gates such as AND, OR, NAND, or XOR would be equivalent if they yield the same output for each combination of inputs, as represented in a truth table. An example of this is the use of De Morgan's laws where an AND gate followed by a NOT gate can be equivalent to a NAND gate, producing the same outputs. Understanding these principles is essential for fields like electronics, computer engineering, and programming. Hence, Option C is correct.

Answer:

2.33651226158 m

Explanation:

From the question the required data is as follows

f = Frequency of the initial note = 146.8 Hz

v = Velocity of sound in air = 343 m/s

The wavelength of a wave is given by

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{v}{f}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \lambda=\dfrac{343}{146.8}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow \lambda=2.33651226158\ m[/tex]

The wavelength of the initial note is 2.33651226158 m

Answer:

[tex]171.43m[/tex]

Explanation:

First, define [tex]emf[/tex]( electromotive force )-is the unit electric charge imparted by an energy source. In this case the generator.

The peak emf is:

[tex]E_p_e_a_k=\sqrt2(E_m_a_x)[/tex]=[tex]\sqrt(2\times 120V)=170V[/tex]

Substituting [tex]w=2\pi f[/tex] and the value for peaf [tex]E[/tex] gives:

Total length=[tex]4\sqrt {\frac{NE_p_e_a_k}{Bw}[/tex]=[tex]4\sqrt{\frac{167\times 170}{0.041T\times 2pi \times 60.0Hz}[/tex]

=[tex]171.43m[/tex]

Hence, wire's length is 171.43m

Answer:

The magnitude of the net electric field is [tex]6.57\times10^{5}\ N/C[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge density [tex]\lambda = 4.54\ \mu C/m[/tex]

Charge density [tex]\lambda' = -2.58\ \mu C/m[/tex]

Distance [tex]y_{1}= 0.384\ m[/tex]

Distance [tex]y_{2}= 0.204\ m[/tex]

We need to calculate the magnitude of the net electric field

Using formula of electric field

[tex]E=E_{1}+E_{2}[/tex]

[tex]E=\dfrac{1}{2\pi\epsilon_{0}}(\dfrac{\lambda}{r}+\dfrac{\lambda'}{r'})[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]E=\dfrac{1}{2\pi\times8.85\times10^{-12}}(\dfrac{4.54\times10^{-6}}{0.204}+\dfrac{2.58\times10^{-6}}{0.384-0.204})[/tex]

[tex]E=6.57\times10^{5}\ N/C[/tex]

Hence, The magnitude of the net electric field is [tex]6.57\times10^{5}\ N/C[/tex]

Answer:

a. 0.21 rad/s2

b. 2.205 N

Explanation:

We convert from rpm to rad/s knowing that each revolution has 2π radians and each minute is 60 seconds

200 rpm = 200 * 2π / 60 = 21 rad/s

180 rpm = 180 * 2π / 60 = 18.85 rad/s

r = d/2 = 30cm / 2 = 15 cm = 0.15 m

a)So if the angular speed decreases steadily (at a constant rate) from 21 rad/s to 18.85 rad/s within 10s then the angular acceleration is

[tex]\alpha = \frac{\Delta \omega}{\Delta t} = \frac{21 - 18.85}{10} = 0.21 rad/s^2[/tex]

b) Assume the grind stone is a solid disk, its moment of inertia is

[tex]I = mR^2/2[/tex]

Where m = 28 kg is the disk mass and R = 0.15 m is the radius of the disk.

[tex] I = 28*0.15^2/2 = 0.315 kgm^2[/tex]

So the friction torque is

[tex]T_f = I\alpha = 0.315*0.21 = 0.06615 Nm[/tex]

The friction force is

[tex]F_f = T_f/R = 0.06615 / 0.15 = 0.441 N[/tex]

Since the friction coefficient is 0.2, we can calculate the normal force that is used to press the knife against the stone

[tex]N = F_f/\mu = 0.441/0.2 = 2.205 N[/tex]