Answer:
b) Bioremediation
Explanation:
The use of natural occuring or intentionally introduced micoorganisms to treat environmental pollutants is called as Bioremediation.
Most of the bioremediation processes includes oxidation-reduction reaction.The natural degradation process of pollutants is improved by bioremediation.Green plant, Decomposers and their enzymes are used in bioremediation to imrprove the condition of the environment.If an animal was raised in an environment absent stimulation except for vertical bars/stripes, what might you expect the animal’s behavior to be when exposed to a horizontal bar shaped toy?
Answer: The animal would ignore the horizontal bar.
Explanation:
If the animal is kept in an environment where it is not exposed to any stimulus and then the animal is being exposed to the horizontal bar shaped toy.
Then the organism if not exposed prior will not show any effect on the exposure to the animal with toy.
The animal would simply ignore the toy and walk away with paying heed to it. It is incorporated in the behavior of the organism that if it is exposed to something new at later stages it will be ignored.
If an animal is raised in an environment absent of stimulation except for vertical bars/stripes, it may exhibit a preference for vertical stimuli over horizontal stimuli. This is because of habituation, which is a form of non-associative learning where an animal stops responding to a stimulus after repeated exposure without any punishment or reward.
Explanation:If an animal was raised in an environment absent stimulation except for vertical bars/stripes, you might expect the animal's behavior to exhibit a preference for vertical stimuli over horizontal stimuli. This is because the animal has been habituated to vertical bars/stripes and may not recognize or respond to horizontal bar-shaped toys as readily. Habituation is a form of non-associative learning where an animal stops responding to a stimulus after repeated exposure without any punishment or reward.
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During the translation of mRNA molecules, the new polypeptides are often directed to specific parts of the cell by the presence or absence of short sequences of amino acids called signal peptides. Which of the following would you expect to find in the polypeptides that will eventually fold to become enzymes important in the citric acid cycle? Group of answer choices A. no signal peptide B. an amino terminal signal peptide C.an internal signal peptide D.a signal anchor peptide
Answer:
B. an amino terminal signal peptide
Explanation:
The reactions of the citric acid cycle occur in the matrix of mitochondria. Therefore, all the enzymes required for this pathway are present in the matrix of mitochondria. These enzymes are formed on the ribosomes present in the cytosol and are transported into the mitochondria with the help of cytosolic heat shock proteins. The newly formed mitochondrial proteins have signal sequences present at their N terminal. The proteins to be transported into the matrix have a single signal sequence that at N terminal which is removed by a protease once the enzyme enters into the matrix.
Enzymes in the citric acid cycle typically do not require signal peptides for localization within the cell. A. No signal peptide Therefore , A. No signal peptide is correct .
In the process of translation, where mRNA molecules are decoded to form polypeptide chains, the eventual localization of these polypeptides within the cell often involves specific sequences of amino acids known as signal peptides.
These sequences guide the newly formed polypeptide to its destined location within the cell.
When considering enzymes crucial in the citric acid cycle, a central metabolic pathway occurring within mitochondria, we can predict the type of signal peptides associated with their eventual localization.
Enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle, such as citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, and succinate dehydrogenase, are primarily localized within the mitochondria.
These enzymes play vital roles in energy production through the citric acid cycle.
In this context, the expected signal peptide would be A. no signal peptide.
The enzymes critical to the citric acid cycle do not typically possess a signal peptide guiding them to specific parts of the cell, as they are destined for the mitochondria.
Once synthesized, these polypeptides can enter the mitochondria directly without the need for a guiding signal peptide.
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Which of the following scenerio is an example of where a cell may meed to preform a form of endocytosis. to get rid of waste to send out the products other parts of the organism needs. to get nutrients it needs
A cell may perform endocytosis, an active transport mechanism, to obtain nutrients it needs, such as when a white blood cell engulfs bacteria. This is different from exocytosis, which involves the cell getting rid of waste or sending out products.
Explanation:The scenario where a cell may need to perform a form of endocytosis to meet its requirements is when it needs to get nutrients. Endocytosis is a type of active transport where the cell membrane envelops extracellular material. There are three main types of endocytosis:
Phagocytosis: Often nonselective, this process involves the cell taking in large particles such as food particles or bacteria.Pinocytosis: Known as "cell drinking," this process involves the cell taking in small particles and fluids.Receptor-mediated endocytosis: This is a highly selective process where the cell takes in specific molecules that bind to receptors on the cell surface.An example of endocytosis is when a white blood cell engulfs bacteria, which is a way the cell gets nutrients it needs. This would not describe a cell getting rid of waste or sending out products to other parts of the organism, which are functions of exocytosis.
most common reason for decompensation of previously well-compensated heart failure during dental treatment?
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The question is incomplete, here is the full question;
Which of the following is the most common reason for decompensation of previously well-compensated heart failure during dental treatment?
A. Tachycardia due to anxiety
B. Failure to take medications as prescribed
C. Orthopnea due to chair position
D. Lack of sufficient oxygen saturation due to use of the rubber dam
And the most common reason out of the given options for decompensation is failure to take medications as prescribed which is a crucial step in the treatment process.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
Failure to take the prescribed medication.
Explanation:
Decompensation. Your doctor may describe heart failure based on the strength of your heart and the response of your body. Compensated heart failure means that your heart works reasonably well, or even does not detect a problem, or symptoms are easy to treat.
Which of the following organelles is the principal and distinquishing feature of the eukaryotic cell? A. ribosomes B. chloroplast C. mitochondria D. lysosomes E. nucleus
Answer:
E. Nucleus
Explanation:
All living organisms were classified into three major domains viz: Eukarya, Archaea and Bacteria. Eukarya are referred to as EUKARYOTES while the other two domains are collectively referred to as PROKARYOTES.
The major basis of this classification is the presence or absence of a membrane bound NUCLEUS. Eukaryotes are organisms characterized by the possession of a membrane-bound nucleus that houses their genetic material (DNA) while prokaryotes lack a nucleus and hence, their genetic material is found naked in the cytoplasm. Although, prokaryotic cells lack other membrane-bound organnelles like Chloroplast, mitochondria etc. but nucleus is the basis of this classification:
EU meaning TRUE, KARYA meaning NUCLEUS, hence Eukarya means organisms will true nucleus.
Sulci are: A. found only in the cerebrum. B. the cracks between the bumps on the brain. C. the bumps on the surface of the brain. D. found only in the cerebellum.
Answer:
B. the cracks between the bumps on the brain.
Explanation:
Sulci also referred to as fissures, are the grooves which appear like cracks that is found in between an elevated ridge-like structure that looks like bumps, which are found on the surface of the cerebral cortex. The sulci that separate the cerebral cortex forming bumps, and making the cerebral cortex to form folds that are seen on the surface of the brain. The sulci by forming these folds help in increasing the surface area of the cerebral cortex that is made up of nerve cells and dendrites.
Which statement best describes a forest ecosystem that has not experienced any disturbances or natural disasters in the past 100 years?
Answer:
The given question is incomplete, as there is no options provided, and are not available anywhere. But in general, if a forest ecosystem has not experienced any kind of disturbances or natural disasters in the last 100 years then the various plants and animals species dwelling in that forest are reasonably stable.
Explanation:
A forest ecosystem is usually defined as a distinct ecosystem that is comprised of trees, plants and animals, and micro-organisms, in an area that interacts with the abiotic factors such as water, soil in order to survive.
If a forest ecosystem is not disturbed by any anthropogenic or natural disasters for the past 100 years, then the species living in this ecosystem becomes reasonably very stable. They will be adapting to the environment and habitat becomes permanent. There will not occur much physiological and morphological variation in these species.
In continuous reinforcement, an organism is reinforced _____; whereas in partial or intermittent reinforcement, an organism is reinforced _____.
Answer:
In continuous reinforcement, an organism is reinforced every time the desired behavior occurs whereas in partial or intermittent reinforcement, an organism is reinforced sporadically when the desired behavior occurs
Explanation:
Continous Reinforcement :It reinforces the desired response each time it occurs.
Reinforce every single time the animal performs the response.
Use for teaching the animal the contingency.
Partial reinforcement :It reinforces a response only part of the time . Though this results in slower acquisition in the beginning , it shows greater resistance to extinction later on.
Can reinforce ocassionally based on time.
Can reinforce ocassionally based on amount.
Can make it predictable or unpredictable.
Blood flow is ________ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is ________ proportional to the total peripheral resistance.
Answer:
Blood flow is directly proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is inversely proportional to the total peripheral resistance.
Explanation:
Blood flow is determined by the pressure difference and the resistance of the vessel. Pressure difference drives the flow of blood while resistance impedes the flow. Ohm’s law shows the relationship between blood flow, peripheral resistance and pressure difference.
(Q=∆P/R)
Flow= Q
Pressure difference = ∆P
Resistance = R
This equation shows a direct proportion between the flow of blood and pressure difference. The relationship between blood flow and resistance is shown as an inverse proportion by the equation. A change in resistance is the the mechanism that changes direction of blood flow in vessels.
The flow of the blood should be directly proportional to the blood pressure difference. The flow of blood should be inversely proportional to the total peripheral resistance.
Ohm law?Blood flow is measured by taking the difference of the pressure and the vessel resistance. The difference of the pressure-driven the blood flow while on the other hand, the resistance impedes the flow. Ohm law represent the relationship between the flow of the blood resistance and the pressure difference.
(Q=∆P/R)
Here Flow= Q
Pressure difference = ∆P
Resistance = R
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F a gene is inserted or deleted in a genome, these events can lead to new alleles forming that may cause variation within a species. Which process below most likely causes these events to occur?
Answer:
Mutation
Explanation:
A mutation can be described as any change which occurs in the DNA of an organism. These mutations can be beneficial or harmful for a species of organisms. Mutations are one of the reasons that variations arise among the organisms of a species. If a certain kind of mutation is favored by natural selection, then it can increase in the allele frequency and might completely eradicate the previous wildlife characteristics of a species.
Why was the Euglena green in color? What is the name of the specialized body structure that is located at the base of the tail?
Euglena is green in color because of the chlorophyll that is contained in the chloroplast of that organism and the body structure that is located at its base is known as flagellum .
Explanation:
Euglena are species that are found in the fresh and salt water. They are abundantly found in inland waters where they manage themselves to bloom in large amount and color the water surface of ditches and ponds green.
This green color which them form are mainly due to the chlorophyll that is contained in the chloroplast of the organism. chlorophyll is known to be the pigment that is responsible for the green color.It is the cause for the green color in this case too.
Euglena contains a specialized body structure which is located at the base of the tail by which it manages to move.
This specialized structure is known as Flagellum.
Answer:
Euglena is green because it contains chloroplasts. The structure located at the base of the tail (the flagellum) is called the photoreceptor. The photoreceptor detects light, while the chloroplasts produces sugars through photosynthesis.
Explain how breast-cancer genes are still present in the population, despite cancer-related surgeries and deaths.
Answer:
What are so called breast-cancer genes, are mutations in two genes: BRCA1 (BReast CAncer gene one) and BRCA2 (BReast CAncer gene two), and are also associated with ovaric cancer. According to the question, these genes are present in the popolation despite surgeries and deaths, and asks why. Surgeries does not eliminate the genes, they eliminate the tumors, and people can still reproduce after that. And also, most people already had offspring before they know they have cancer, so they are inheriting the mutations on the genes anyway.
Explanation:
Answer:
Cancer related surgeries have absolutely no way to remove genes.
For example, BRC1 is a gene, inherited from a parent, which has been linked to breast cancer. You start out as one cell which divides again and again making copies of itself and eventually become a baby etc. Whatever genes were present at conception are in all of your cells. A surgery doesn't remove these genes, just the tumor.
As for death, in order for natural selection to take place and thus remove a deleterious gene from the population, those who have the gene have to be affected by it BEFORE they have kids.
Say for example a baby gets a mutation that causes a new disease no one has ever heard of. They die when they're 5 years old. After they die, there are no more copies of this bad gene in the population.
With breast cancer most women are in their 50's when diagnosed. This means they have already had kids and passed on their genes. To top it off all if their kids inherit a gene such as BRC1 from their mom, they they pass it on to their kids before they develop cancer and die (if they even get cancer).
What are three of the characteristics of an autosomal recessive trait that are observed in a pedigree analysis?
Answer:
In autosomal recessive trait two alleles of the abnormal gene are required to cause the disease. So if the gene is present in the heterozygous conditions in the offspring the offspring would be disease-free but would be disease carrier.
The characteristic that is seen in the pedigree analysis of autosomal recessive diseases are.
They affect both males and females in equal frequency.
They can skin generation.
When both parents are heterozygous for the disease than one-fourth offspring would be affected.
Unaffected parents can produce affected offspring.
Each ATP molecule contains about 1% of the amount of chemical energy available from the complete oxidation of a single glucose molecule. Cellular respiration produces about 32 ATP from one glucose molecule. What happens to the rest of the energy in glucose?a. It is stored as fat.b. It is converted to heat.c. It is used to make water from hydrogen ions and oxygen.d. It is released as carbon dioxide and watere. It is converted to starch.
Answer:
b. It is converted to heat.
Explanation:
Cellular respiration is the process of energy transformation. During this process, the chemical energy present in the chemical bonds of glucose molecules is first stored in the form of NADH and FAD2. Then the same is used to drive the process of ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation. Each process of energy transformation loses some of the energy in the form of heat to the surroundings. The lost energy can not perform any function. Therefore, part of the energy of glucose is also lost in the form of heat as the process of cellular respiration follows the laws of thermodynamics.
Which best describes the outcome of DNA replication? The new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA. The new DNA molecule is synthesized from amino acids. The new DNA molecule has a different number of codons. The new DNA molecule is single-stranded.
Answer:
The answer is A (The new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA.)
Explanation: Just did it on edge 2020
The best statement that describes the outcome of DNA replication is that the new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA.
What is DNA replication?DNA replication is the process by which new sequence of nucleotides are synthesized from an original DNA template.
In DNA replication, the old strand of DNA is unwind into two single stranded DNA. The single stranded DNA serves as a template for the new DNA strand.
Since the new DNA is synthesized from the old strand of DNA, therefore, the new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA.
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The shells of a certain species of marine snail are highly variable, with some snail shells being solid colors and others being striped. Which condition of natural selection is this most related to?
The shells of a certain species of marine snail are highly variable, with some snail shells being solid colors and others being striped. Which condition of natural selection is this most related to?
a) artificial variation
b) environmental variation
c) genetic variation
d) no variation
Answer:
c) genetic variation
Explanation:
The process of natural selection can operate on a population only when the population has genetic variations. This means that different variants of a genetic trait must be present in the population. In the species of marine snails, some snails have solid colored shells while the others have striped shells. Here, the snail population has genetic variations with respect to their shells. The natural selection would favor the shells which impart survival fitness to snails under the prevailing conditions.
Explain how a primary sensory neuron transmits information about the intensity of a stimulus to a secondary sensory neuron at a chemical synapse (i.e. explain temporal summation of postsynaptic potentials).
Answer:Information, in the form of nerve impulses, reaches the spinal cord through sensory neurons of the PNS. These impulses are transmitted to the brain through the interneurons of the spinal cord. ... The spinal cord is thus responsible for mediating all information flow between the body and the brain.
Explanation:
Knowledge of measurement techniques and statistics is needed only for exercise physiologists who are going to carry on independent research in the field, not for the average exercise science practitioner.
Answer:statistics is a science that teaches how to effectively generate data ,input our data collected and analyze it. Almost every human collect data at every point in time depending on your field. For an exercise practioner he could collect data on the number of people his practicing with,analyze and make meaningful interpretation of the result,data can be collected on plants etc.
Explanation:The knowledge of statistics is for everyone and not limited for certain discipline the rate of use is what differs.
When an individual, in meeting health goals, takes small steps that allow success, he or she is employing what self-management skill?
Answer:
The correct answer is - building self confidence and motivation.
Explanation:
When an individual follows the the health goals that involves the small steps or short goals that can easily achievable that allows to make the feel individual successful. These smalls success helps in individual to build self confidence that he or she can do things on his/her own successfully.
It is also helpful in building motivation to achieve next step with more enthusiasm. Both self confidence and motivation are essential self management skills.
Thus, the correct answer is - building self confidence and motivation.
Diploid somatic cells of elephants have 56 chromosomes. If nondisjunction of one of an elephant's chromosomes occurs in meiosis I, the resulting sperm are expected to have the chromosome complement:
a. 29, 29, 27, 27.
b. 56, 56, 57, 55.
c. 28, 28, 29, 27.
d. 29, 29, 28, 28.
Answer:
a. 29, 29, 27, 27.
Explanation:
Separation of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles during anaphase-I would have produced the haploid chromosome number of the daughter cells. This means that the parent cell with 56 chromosomes would produce four daughter cells each of which would have 56/2= 28 chromosomes. If one of the chromosome pairs did not segregate during anaphase-I, one daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I would have "n+1" chromosomes while the other would have "n-1" chromosomes. This chromosome number is maintained by meiosis-II.
Therefore, nondisjunction at anaphase-I in the parent cell with 56 chromosomes would produce a total of four daughter cells. The two daughter cells would have "n+1= 29" chromosomes and rest two would have "n-1=27" chromosomes.
Final answer:
The correct answer is option a. 29, 29, 27, 27. Nondisjunction in meiosis I results in two gametes with an extra chromosome (29) and two gametes missing one chromosome (27).
Explanation:
A student has asked: "Diploid somatic cells of elephants have 56 chromosomes. If nondisjunction of one of an elephant's chromosomes occurs in meiosis I, the resulting sperm are expected to have the chromosome complement: a. 29, 29, 27, 27. b. 56, 56, 57, 55. c. 28, 28, 29, 27. d. 29, 29, 28, 28."
Diploid cells always contain an even number of chromosomes because there are two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent. For elephants, these somatic cells are diploid (2n), meaning they have 56 chromosomes. When meiosis occurs, which produces haploid (n) gametes, each gamete should have 28 chromosomes under normal conditions.
Nondisjunction in meiosis I means that homologous chromosomes don't separate properly, resulting in gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes. This leads to two cells with an extra chromosome (29 each) and two cells missing one chromosome (27 each).
Correct answer: a. 29, 29, 27, 27
Incorrect options:
b. 56, 56, 57, 55 - These numbers reflect diploid counts with errors, not gametes.
c. 28, 28, 29, 27 - This doesn't reflect meiosis I nondisjunction.
d. 29, 29, 28, 28 - This reflects a normal division outcome, not nondisjunction in meiosis I.
Therefore, if nondisjunction happens in meiosis I, the gametes will have the chromosome counts 29, 29, 27, 27.
A strand of DNA formed by splicing DNA from 2 different organisms is called ___.
Question 16 options:
recombinant RNA
plasmid DNA
recombinant DNA
restriction enzymes
Answer: recombinant DNA
A strand of DNA formed by splicing DNA from 2 different organisms is called recombinant DNA
Explanation:
Using the techniques of recombinant DNA technology, certain enzymes known as restriction enzymes capable of cleaving double stranded DNA in the plasmid of bacteria genomes (other organisms like eukaryotes can also be used) are used to obtain specific sequences of DNA bearing desirable traits in the both organisms.
Once the two DNA fragments have been obtained, another enzyme known as DNA ligase is used to seal the point of splicing, thereby constructing a single DNA from the two organisms.
This single DNA is known as Recombinant DNA
Taxol is a common drug used in cancer treatments that acts as a microtubule stabilizer to inhibit cell division. If a researcher wanted to see how this drug affects development, which model organism would they use and why?
A. Danio rerio, because they are transparent their first two weeks of life
B. C. elegan, because their neurons are completely mapped
C. S. cerevisiae, because they are minimal model eukaryotes
D. Drosophila, because their DNA genome is well known
Answer:
The correct answer is option A.
Explanation:
Taxol or paclitaxel refers to a chemotherapy drug. It is used in the treatment of various different kinds of cancer. It functions by ceasing the cancer cells from distinguishing into two novel cells, that is, it prevents the growth of cancer.
In the given case, the model organism, which a researcher can use is Danio rerio or zebrafish as the eggs get developed outside the body of the mother and this organism is suitable for studying as they share 70 percent of the genes with humans. Apart from this, 84 percent of the genes related to human disease exhibit a zebrafish matching part.
As a vertebrate, the zebrafish possesses the similar prime tissues and organs as humans. Their blood, muscle, eyes, and kidney share various characteristics with the human systems.
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For biology
(1.)Which question below do scientists need to answer, to determine whether CRISPR can be used to fight a new bacterium that is resistant to antibiotics? (Circle all that apply)
A. Where did the bacterium come from?
B. What sequence of nucleotides does the guide RNA need to include, to kill the bacterium?
C. What proteins do the virus’s guide RNA code for?
(2.) Which of the following system components is likely to be direct (immediate) cause the antibiotic-resistant bacterium’s own DNA to be destroyed?
A. the invasion of the bacteriophage (virus) into the bacterium
B. the action of the Cas-9 protein
C. the production of the Cas-9 protein
D. the coding of the guide RNA
1) What sequence of nucleotides does the guide RNA need to include, to kill the bacterium is the answer.
2). The action of the Cas-9 protein.
Explanation:
CRISPR is a genetic engineering technology used to detect and destroy DNA of the bacteriophage which have infected the bacterial cell previously.
The CRISPR are the sequences of bacteriophage DNA found in genome of the bacteria when bacteriophage has infected it before.
It alters the DNA sequences and modify the function of gene is bacteria.
Cas-9 is an endonuclease which cuts the DNA identified by or complementary to CRISPR.
This system makes bacteria anti viral.
It is an example of acquired immunity.
_____, cells that have not yet encountered their specific antigens, reside in the blood, lymphoid organs, or other lymphatic tissue.
Answer:
Naïve T cells
Explanation:
A naive T cell (Th0 cell) is a T cell that has characterised in bone marrow, and majorly passed through the positive and negative activities of central election in the thymus. Explamples includes the naive kinds of helper T cells (CD4+) and cytotoxic T cells (CD8+).
Naive T cells go through the thymus and into the secondary lymphoid organs. In secondary lymphoid organs, naïve T cells are stimulated by mature dendritic cells. T cell stimulation involves 2 signals: TCR and costimulation. Absence of costimulation during T cell activation produces anergy.
Mature T cells are developed in the thymus and delivered into the bloodstream in low amounts. They are known to be immunologically naïve before it encounters MHC-peptide complexes in which its T-cell receptors (TCR) have high attraction.
What is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal?
Answer:
Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open
Explanation:
When the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal is depolarized, it induces the opening of voltage-gated calcium ion channels.
What is an Axon terminal?An Axon terminal may be defined as a region that is typically found at the end of a neuron after the termination of axons. This region is a small, spherical, bouton-like structure. It is also known as terminal boutons.
Once the voltage-gated calcium ion channels open, it allows the movement of calcium ions inside the cell. This entry of calcium ions provokes the fusion of synaptic vesicles with the membrane and finally the liberation of neurotransmitter molecules into the empty space which is known as the synaptic cleft.
Therefore, the opening of the voltage-gated calcium ion channel is the possible result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal.
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Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work because
a. cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool.
b. heat must remain constant during work.
c. heat is not a form of energy.
d. temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
e. heat can never be used to do work.
Answer:
The correct answer is d. temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
Explanation:
Cell utilise chemical energy for carrying out its metabolism.The chief form of chemical energy used by cells is ATP or adenosine triphosphate that stores a lot of energy in the phosphate-ester bonds.Chemical energy is also stored in the form of lipid or fatty acids.In the cells release of heat energy is not possible because, other than chemical energy cells stores energy in the form of electrochemical gradient (gradient of specific ions like K⁺ or Na⁺ ), proton gradient, etc, across membranes. This is because cells require a specific temperature, that is, the body temperature, to carry out metabolism at an optimal rate.If heat energy is utilised or released in any chemical process it can cause alteration in body temperature, thereby affecting the process of metabolism.In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______.
A) Number of Z disc
B) Number of desmosomes
C) Number of slow Ca+2 channels
D) Resting member potential
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Ischemia is the cell and tissue damage which results from the lack of the proper blood supply in the heart. Due to improper blood supply there is a lack of oxygen in the heart.
The damaged tissue is normally being replaced by the scar tissue which is quite different from the normal tissue and its basic structure is also not the same.
The scarred tissue lacks the pumps and channels which is necessary to establish the resting potential.
You are hiking in the mountains and the trail goes around the side of the mountain. The trail slopes outwards such that your feet are tilted and one foot is below the other. What are the movements to position your feet that let you walk on the tilted trail?
Answer:
The movement of feet in the position to walk on trail which is tilted is called eversion and inversion movement.
Explanation:
Eversion and inversion movement:
In eversion movement, foot sole rotates away from the midline of body or median plane (turn outwards) while in inversion movement, sole of foot rotates towards the midline of body or median plane (turn inwards).
To walk on a tilted trail, align your feet parallel to the slope, keep the uphill foot higher, and maintain balance by using your muscles and taking shorter steps, while keeping your center of gravity low.
Explanation:Walking on a tilted trail requires adjusting your body and foot placement for stability and balance. It is important to align the feet parallel to the slope of the trail. This often means that the uphill foot should be higher on the slope, and the downhill foot should be lower. As you take a step, shift your weight onto the uphill leg and bring the downhill foot up to meet the other, maintaining a stable stance with your feet at the same relative elevation to the slope. Avoid backwards displacement by taking shorter steps and using your leg muscles to balance the body efficiently.
When moving on steep slopes, such as those with a slope greater than 100%, keep your center of gravity low and expand the base by placing your feet farther apart. Moreover, care should be taken when stepping, as it's the balance and proper alignment of the body that will prevent falling.
Species are normally subdivided into populations that are more or less scattered, that may be separated at one time, but may merge together again, and successfully reproduce, at a later time. Tattersall and DeSalle describe this process as:_________
a. reticulation
b. speciation
c. phylogenesis
d. ontogenesis
Answer:
Reticulation
Explanation:
Reticulation is a process which explains the origin of many organisms formed by the merging of the two lineages. The species are formed when the species in the evolutionary process got scattered, formed two lineages and then again reproduced and merged.
Studies suggest that the origin of many species in the angiosperm phylum is the result of the process of the reticulation.
Thus, Reticulation is the correct answer.
Animals eat other organisms to obtain food. They then break down the food to get energy and rearrange the molecules of their food into new molecules. One of those molecules is carbon dioxide. How is carbon dioxide recycled back into the food chain?
Carbon dioxide is recycled in the food chain through cellular respiration by animals, releasing CO_{2}, and photosynthesis by plants and autotrophs, which fixates CO_{2} into organic molecules like glucose. These organic molecules become food for animals, continuing the carbon cycle.
Carbon dioxide (CO_{2}) is a crucial component of the carbon cycle, which is fundamental to the flow of energy through ecosystems. Animals, including humans, release CO_{2} as a byproduct of cellular respiration, a process where organic molecules are broken down to release energy. Meanwhile, plants, algae, and some bacteria, known as autotrophs, take in CO_{2} from the atmosphere or dissolved forms in water and fixate them into organic molecules like glucose through photosynthesis. These organic molecules are then used to build complex carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids, which serve as food for animals. This cycle repeats as animals consume the organic molecules and, through respiration, return CO_{2} to the atmosphere, making it available for photosynthesis once again. In a sense, the energy and carbon are continuously recycled within the ecosystem.
From this, it is evident that carbon fixation and cellular respiration are two key mechanisms that ensure the transfer and transformation of carbon, allowing it to be a perpetual element of life and energy within the biosphere.