Answer:
The ath operon is most likely controlled by the CAP and a repressor similar to the lac operon.
Explanation:
The CAP senses the low concentration of glucose and activates the transcription of the ath operon for it to metabolize the athelose and obtain energy. When the glucose is in high concentrations, the ath repressor, which works as a lac repressor, inhibits the transcription of the ath operon, it does this by binding to a part of the operon called operator getting in the ARN polymerase way and stoping the transcription. If there is glucose, the repressor binds to it and it is not bound to the operon allowing the transcription and metabolism of glucose.
Answer: The control of an ATH OPERON has both negative and positive sides,they are as follows;
POSITIVE CONTROL OF AN ATH OPERON IS BY;
- Inactive activator ( not glowing w/o yellow square)
- Catabolite activator protein (cAMP)
- Active activator ( glowing w/ yellow square)
NEGATIVE CONTROL OF AN ATH OPERON IS BY;
- Active repressor( glowing w/o yellow square)
- athelose
- Inactive repressor ( not glowing w/ yellow square)
Explanation: The OPERON MODEL describes how bacteria controls the production of groups of enzymes.In operon model, synthesis of the RNA messenger coding for these enzymes is switched on or off by regulatory proteins.
Regulatory proteins bind to the operator to control expression of the operon while a repressor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription,in prokaryotes this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.
In mesophiles, growth rates increase gradually as the temperature is increased, until the optimum growth temperature for the organism is reached. If the temperature is increased beyond the optimum, __________.
Answer: Growth rate of the mesophiles decreases as the temperature increases.
Explanation:
The growth rate of the mesophiles will decrease on increasing the temperature because mesophiles defines the condition which ranges in between 20 and 45 °C (68 and 113 °F).
If the temperature of the environment is more or below this range then the growth rate of the bacteria will be affected.
These are the bacteria which is found in plain regions as the temperature there is optimum for their growth.
Final answer:
If the temperature is increased beyond the optimum for mesophiles, their growth rates decline due to protein denaturation, eventually leading to cell death. Mesophiles are adapted to moderate temperatures, unlike thermophiles, which thrive at much higher temperatures.
Explanation:
If the temperature is increased beyond the optimum for mesophiles, the growth rates will start to decline. This decline is due to the denaturation of proteins and other essential cellular components, which impairs the cell's function and can eventually lead to cell death. Mesophiles, unlike thermophiles, do not possess the necessary adaptations to withstand high temperatures and maintain their cellular integrity.
Therefore, beyond their optimum temperature range, which is generally between 20°C and 45°C, the high temperature can be lethal to mesophilic organisms.
Mesophiles are typically found in environments such as the human body, which has a normal temperature of around 37°C. They play critical roles in processes like food production, including the making of cheese, yogurt, and the fermentation process in beer and wine.
On the other hand, thermophiles thrive at temperatures above 50°C, which are often fatal for mesophilic organisms.
NADH is also used by cells when making certain molecules. Based on your knowledge of the role of NADH in cellular respiration, what do you think NADH's role is in biosynthesis of molecules?1. Oxidising molecules2. Phosphorylating molecules3. Dehydrating molecules4. Reducing molecules
Answer:
The correct answer is 4. reducing molecule
Explanation:
NADH is a coenzyme that plays an important role in making ATP during cellular respiration or oxidative phosphorylation. It stays in two forms in the cell which is NADH which is it's reduced form and NAD+ which is it's oxidized form.
So as NADH is a reduced form and it acts as the electron donor and feed electron in the electron transport chain during oxidative phosphorylation. After donating electron it gets converts into it's oxidized form which is NAD+. Therefore NADH acts as reducing molecule in cellular respiration.
For a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to be
Answer:
permanently attached to the cell membrane
Explanation:
for a protein to be an integral membrane protein, it would have to be permanently attached to the cell membrane and they are mostly transmembrane proteins. they are also called intrinsic proteins with more than one segment integrated into the phospholipid bilayer of the membrane.
An integral membrane protein must be embedded within the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane, interacting with its nonpolar tails. These proteins perform functions such as transport of substances, signal transduction, or cell bonding.
Explanation:For a protein to be an integral membrane protein, it must be embedded within the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane. Integral membrane proteins usually have a hydrophobic region that interacts with the nonpolar tails of the phospholipids in the cell membrane. This interaction ensures the protein remains in the membrane. For instance, some functions of these proteins can include transporting substances across the membrane, acting as receptors for signal transduction, or joining cells together. They interact closely with the lipids in the cell membrane and, to remove them, it typically requires a detergent to dissolve the membrane.
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The subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that consists of nerves that control all of the involuntary muscles, organs, and glands is called the ________ nervous system
Answer:
The Autonomic Nervous System is that part of PNS consisting of motor neurons that control internal organs. It has two subsystems. The autonomic system controls muscles in the heart, the smooth muscle in internal organs such as the intestine, bladder, and uterus.
The subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary muscles, organs, and glands is called the autonomic nervous system. It functions without our conscious awareness and is responsible for vital functions such as heart rate, breathing, digestion, and body temperature.
Explanation:The subdivision of the peripheral nervous system that consists of nerves that control all of the involuntary muscles, organs, and glands is called the autonomic nervous system. This system functions without our conscious awareness and is responsible for controlling vital functions such as heart rate, breathing, digestion, and body temperature. The autonomic nervous system can be further divided into two main branches: the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, which typically have opposing effects on the organs they innervate.
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In 1992, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) introduced ____ as a voluntary labeling program designed to identify and promote energy-efficient products to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Answer:
energy star.
Explanation:
Its main objective is to help consumers, businesses, and industry save money and protect the environment through the adoption of energy-efficient products and practices.
A certain drug prevents a neurotransmitter from initiating a response in the receiving neuron. Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism by which the drug may be acting?
a) The drug is preventing the neurotransmitter from binding to its receptors in the receiving neuron.
b) The drug is causing more neurotransmitter molecules to be released.
c) The drug is preventing the neurotransmitter from being degraded.
d) All of the listed responses describe how the drug may be acting.
Answer:
The correct answer is statement a.
Explanation:
Endogenous chemicals that take part in neurotransmission are known as neurotransmitters. It is a chemical messenger that performs transmission of impulses across a chemical synapse, that is, from one nerve cell to another. The neurotransmitters get discharged from the synaptic vesicles and pass onto the synaptic cleft, where they get attached to the receptors present on the target cells.
However, there are some of the drugs, which prevents the binding of a neurotransmitter with its receptor known as receptor antagonists. These antagonists or drugs prevent a neurotransmitter from starting a response in the receiving nerve cell. Some of the receptor antagonists are beta-blockers, alpha-blockers, and calcium channel blockers.
What was Mendel referring to when he wrote that "the hybrid character resembles that of one of the parental forms so closely that the other either escapes observation completely or cannot be detected with certainly...." ?
Answer:
It means that one either exactly resembles a parent or it does not.
Explanation:
A chemical is reported to inhibit bacterial replication. Bacterial cells are placed in medium with all nutrients necessary for replication. The chemical is added to the culture, and after a half hour an extract of the DNA is prepared. A significant percentage of the DNA is in pieces about 1000 to 2000 bases in length. The results are consistent with the chemical blocking the function of DNA ligase.a) trueb) false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
DNA ligases are enzymes required for replication, repair, and recombination of DNA molecules. The DNA ligase repairs the break in the DNA molecule by the formation of a phosphodiester bond.
The bacterial genome consists of a circular DNA molecule, thereby laboratories use these enzymes to create recombinant DNA molecules
Final answer:
The statement is true; the chemical likely inhibits DNA ligase function, leading to the observed accumulation of DNA fragments that are characteristic of interrupted DNA replication.
Explanation:
The scenario described in the question pertains to an experimental condition where bacterial DNA is extracted after being exposed to a chemical that inhibits replication. The observed DNA fragments of 1000 to 2000 bases in length suggest an interruption in the replication process, which is consistent with the action of a DNA ligase inhibitor. DNA ligase is an enzyme crucial for joining Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand during replication. In the absence of ligase function, these fragments cannot be joined to form a continuous strand, leading to the accumulation of short strands consistent with the reported size of 1000 to 2000 bases.
Reiji Okazaki's experiments with phage and E. coli hinted at the importance of DNA ligase in the replication process. Mutants with deficient DNA ligase accumulated short fragments, which were later termed Okazaki fragments. This corroborates with the observation in the question, where the presence of the inhibitor caused the accumulation of similarly sized DNA strands.
What major body structures belong to the digestive system
Answer:
The major body structures belonging to the digestive system include: The mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and rectum.
Explanation:
The digestive system is one of the major body systems in humans. It is responsible for the intake, breakdown and processing of food for energy and other necessary nutrients needed by the body for survival.
The mouth play a vital role in the process of digestion. The teeth help to chew food into smaller bits, the tongue helps push food into the esophagus. The digestion of certain food class like carbohydrates begin in the mouth through the secretion of ptyalin.
The esophagus is the passageway where food passes to the stomach.
In the stomach, food is digested through the secretion of hydrochloric acid which is naturally found in there. The hydrochloric acid further helps breakdown food for easy absorption and also destroy pathogenic substances.
From the stomach food moves into the small intestine where the actual absorption of nutrients occur through it's walls. The small intestine is divided into the duodenum, ileum and jejunum.
From the small intestine food moves to the large intestine where further processing and secretion of waste is done.
The wastes then move into the rectum for excretion through the anus.
A small number of birds, blown off course during migration, find an island and colonize it. This population will most likely experience genetic drift as a result of __________. Choose the correct answer. Group of answer choices mutations sexual selection the founder effect the bottleneck effect
Answer:
Founder Effect
Explanation:
A founder effect in known to be occur when a new population of new colony develops by only a few members of a large original population. The new population comprising few members is called Founder Population. Here, in the question the blown off population of birds colonizes an island and becomes a new population there. This new population will be termed and Founder Population and the phenomena as Founder Effect.
A ________ is a request sent to software vendors describing a new system that an organization requires in broad, high-level terms, to which interested vendors can respond by describing the products and services that could fit the requirement.
A) request for proposal
B) request for information
C) request for quotation
D) request for tender
Answer:B) request for information
Explanation: Request for information is the gathering of written information about the capabilities of potential supplies for a goods or service.
Like the ______________, the shoulder is classified as ______________ based upon its degrees of freedom. A Hip and wrist; triaxial B Wrist; biaxial CHip; triaxial D Hip and vertebral column; uniaxial
Answer:
I would say C.) Hip; triaxial
Explanation:
The shoulder is a triaxial joint and so is the hip but the wrist is biaxial
Even in Darwin's time, the blending hypothesis was incompatible with observed facts. If the blending hypothesis were true, then what should one expect to observe over the course of generations?A) Phenotypic polymorphisms should increase.
B) Genetic variation should increase.
C) Members of a breeding population should become more uniform in phenotype.
D) Neutral variation should decrease.
E) Genetic polymorphisms should increase.
Answer:
C) Members of a breeding population should become more uniform in phenotype.
Explanation:
The blending hypothesis was the hypothesis which suggested that the produced offspring possess the intermediate characteristics of both the parents. This means that if the tall male and short female are crossed then the offsprings will have intermediate height.
This theory was well accepted at the time of Gregor Mendel and the Charles Darwin. This theory has limitation as the breeding population offsprings will have the uniform characteristics and the unformatism will be established.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
The epidermis receives blood containing oxygen and nutrients from ________
Answer:
From arteries in the connective tissue below.
Explanation:
The dermis is mainly divided into two regions Papillary region, and the Reticular region. These help to protect the body from strain, stress, also helps in a sense of touch, and elasticity to the skin.
Dermis lies under the epidermis. Dermis containing blood vessels that help to nourish the skin with nutrients and oxygen. The blood vessels also help to allow the immune cells to come in connect with the skin to fight with an infection. These blood vessels also help in carrying out waste products.
The epidermis receives blood containing oxygen and nutrients from the dermis through diffusion, as it contains no blood vessels itself. The dermis, which lies beneath the epidermis, has the necessary blood vessels to supply these vital substances. This process ensures that the epidermal cells get the nutrients required for their functions.
The epidermis receives blood containing oxygen and nutrients from the underlying dermis. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and does not contain any blood vessels. Instead, it relies on the dermis, the thicker inner layer of the skin, which contains blood vessels that provide oxygen and nutrients through a process called diffusion.
describe the role of cellular respiration in a plant???
Answer:
The process of cellular respiration allows plants to break down glucose into ATP.
Explanation:
Although plants use photosynthesis to produce glucose, they use cellular respiration to release energy from the glucose.
What cells of the nervous system are responsible for anchoring neurons to their blood vessels and controlling the extracellular fluid concentrations of potassium and neurotransmitters?
Answer:
astrocytes
Explanation:
Astrocytes, a type of glial cell, are responsible for anchoring neurons to blood vessels and controlling the extracellular fluid concentrations of potassium and neurotransmitters.
Explanation:Astrocytes, which are a type of glial cell in the central nervous system, are responsible for anchoring neurons to their blood vessels and controlling the extracellular fluid concentrations of potassium and neurotransmitters. They support neurons by maintaining the chemical environment of the CNS tissue and regulating the balance of ions in the extracellular fluid. If the balance of ions is disrupted, it can have significant effects on membrane potential and electrochemical signaling.
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You find a multi-legged animal in your garden and want to determine if it is a centipede or a millipede. You take the animal to a university where a myriapodologist quickly tells you that you have found a centipede. Which of the following may have allowed her to make this distinction?A) segmentationB) poisonous fangsC) egg-layingD) molting
Answer: A- segmentation
Explanation:
Both Millipedes and centipedes are arthropods with jointed legs and multiple segments. While millipedes are flattened slightly with multi segmented bodies, where the first segment is usually legless, while the second to the fourth are characterised with two legs and then the rest have four legs.
A centipede on the other hand, is a multi segmented anthropod a pair of legs on each segment, and their legs range from 30 to 354 on their one inch length bodies, which are known to be longer than that of millipedes.
The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to
Explanation:
The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to Calcium channels remaining open.Depolarization is trailed by the plateau phase wherein film potential decreases generally gradually. This is expected in enormous part to the opening of the moderate Ca2+ channels, permitting Ca2+ to enter the cell while few K+ channels are open, permitting K+ to leave the cell. During stage 1, there is halfway repolarization, in view of an abatement in sodium porousness. Stage 2 is the plateau phase of the cardiovascular activity potential. Film penetrability to calcium increments during this stage, keeping up depolarization and dragging out the activity potential.The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to the sustained influx of calcium ions, which leads to a prolonged contraction period and an extended refractory period necessary for effective heart function.
Explanation:The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is a key feature that distinguishes it from skeletal muscle. This is primarily due to the influx of calcium ions through slow calcium channels. These calcium ions are largely responsible for the prolonged duration of the plateau phase, which facilitates an extended refractory period that is crucial for the cells' proper functioning.
During the plateau phase, calcium ions enter the cardiac muscle fibers, allowing for a more extended contraction. This period is essential for cardiac function as it permits the heart muscle cells to fully contract before another electrical event can occur, thus ensuring effective blood pumping. The calcium ions not only enable this prolonged contraction but also interact with troponin within the troponin-tropomyosin complex, ultimately initiating the process of muscle contraction.
The pH of coffee is _____ times greater than the pH of pure water.
A) 2
B) 10
C) 100
D)200
Answer:
a) 2
Explanation:
the pH of coffee is 5 and the pH of water is 7, 7-5=2
Answer:
A) 2
Explanation:
An amoeba, a protozoan that moves by pseudopodia, approaches a smaller protozoan and extends its pseudopodia (extensions of cytoplasm in plasma membrane) around the smaller protozoan. Once the amoeba’s pseudopodia completely surrounds the other protozoan, the amoeba’s plasma membrane pinches off by folding back into the amoeba and creating a vesicle containing the smaller protozoan. This vesicle is now within the amoeba itself and will soon fuse with other vesicles containing digestive enzymes. This is an example of Group of answer choicesa phagocytosis. b. osmosis. c. pinocytosis.
Answer: A phagocytosis
Explanation:
This involves the engulfing of solid matter or living organisms by other organisms known as phagocytes during their feeding process.
The process in which an amoeba engulfs another protozoan using its pseudopodia is called phagocytosis. This is an essential feeding mechanism for amoebas belonging to the Amoebozoa supergroup and involves the formation of a phagosome that fuses with lysosomes to digest the food.
Explanation:When an amoeba uses its pseudopodia to surround and ingest a smaller protozoan, this process is known as phagocytosis. Phagocytosis involves the extension of the plasma membrane to wrap around a solid particle, leading to the engulfment of the particle and formation of a vesicle known as a phagosome or food vacuole. This vesicle will ultimately fuse with lysosomes that contain digestive enzymes to break down the ingested material. This type of endocytosis is distinct from pinocytosis, where the cell ingests extracellular fluid containing dissolved substances, and receptor-mediated endocytosis, where specific particles bound to receptors on the plasma membrane are internalized.
The supergroup Amoebozoa includes a variety of protozoans that move and ingest food using amoeboid movement facilitated by pseudopodia. The process of phagocytosis is a critical aspect of the cellular feeding mechanism employed by amoeba and several other unicellular organisms, where after digestion, waste is expelled from the cell by exocytosis.
Research suggests that during early and middle adulthood Group of answer choices crystallized intelligence decreases and fluid intelligence decreases. crystallized intelligence decreases and fluid intelligence stabilizes. crystallized intelligence increases and fluid intelligence decreases. crystallized intelligence stabilizes and fluid intelligence increases. crystallized intelligence increases and fluid intelligence increases.
Explanation:
Psychology has offered many theories about intelligence over the years, including ideas about how there are different forms of intelligence. Some people might be very high in all the different forms, some people might be relatively low across the board, and others might have an interesting mix. This lesson focuses on two specific types of intelligence, called 'fluid' and 'crystallized'Fluid intelligence is defined as the ability to solve new problems, use logic in new situations, and identify patternsUsing a complicated subway system in a new city is a good example of how you might need to use fluid intelligence. The first time you use the subway, you have to figure out the names of the stops you need, which train will take you there, if you need to transfer in the middle, and so on This type of intelligence is sort of like 'street smarts,' where you need to figure things out that moment and adapt to your situationIn contrast, Cattell also named a second, a different type of intelligence that he called crystallized intelligenceDuring early and middle adulthood, crystallized intelligence tends to increase or remain stable, while fluid intelligence peaks and then gradually declines. Engaging in stimulating mental and physical activities can help reduce the rate of cognitive decline.
Explanation:Cognitive Changes in AdulthoodResearch in cognitive aging has examined the differences between fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence. Fluid intelligence, which includes abilities like problem-solving, memory, and information processing speed, tends to decline as we age. On the other hand, crystallized intelligence, which involves knowledge that comes from accumulated life experiences, generally increases or remains stable over time. This is exemplified in activities that rely on expertise or knowledge, such as crossword puzzles, where older adults often perform as well as or better than younger individuals.
Therefore, concerning early and middle adulthood, crystallized intelligence tends to remain steady or improve, illustrated by stable or increasing scores on intelligence tests up to mid-adulthood. Conversely, fluid intelligence peaks in earlier adulthood and then begins a gradual decline. Mental and physical activities have been shown to mitigate the rate of cognitive decline in areas of fluid intelligence, helping maintain cognitive function into older age.
The synthesis of an amino acid follows this pathway: precursor A → intermediate B → amino acid C. Each reaction is catalyzed by a different enzyme. This metabolic pathway is controlled by feedback inhibition with amino acid C inhibiting the conversion of precursor A to intermediate B. Amino acid C acts as a _____ of the first enzyme in the pathway.
Answer:
The synthesis of an amino acid follows this pathway: precursor A → intermediate B → amino acid C. Each reaction is catalyzed by a different enzyme. This metabolic pathway is controlled by feedback inhibition with amino acid C inhibiting the conversion of precursor A to intermediate B. Amino acid C acts as a noncompetitive inhibitor of the first enzyme in the pathway.
Explanation:
A no-competitive inhibitor reduces the activity of an enzyme by binding at its active site although it has already bound to the corresponding substrate
Amino acid C acts as a noncompetitive inhibitor, regulating its own production via feedback inhibition. This is a common mechanism used in metabolic pathways to maintain balance.
Explanation:In the described pathway, amino acid C regulates its own production by inhibiting the first step of the pathway. This is an example of a regulatory mechanism called feedback inhibition. Essentially, when there's plenty of amino acid C present, it will bind to the first enzyme in the pathway, preventing its action and thus stopping more of amino acid C from being produced. So, in this scenario, amino acid C is acting as a noncompetitive inhibitor of the first enzyme in the pathway.
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes the top of an open (aerobic) OF tube to turn yellow. However, an oil-covered (anaerobic) OF tube inoculated with the same strain remains entirely green. What is the best explanation for these results?
Answer:
This bacterial strain oxidizes glucose.
Explanation:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa belongs to the class of the gram negative bacteria and are found ubiquitous in nature. These bacteria can cause diseases in plant as well as in animals.
The bacteria has the ability to undergo the process of both the aerobic and anaerobic respiration depending on the availability of glucose. The presence of green color determines that the bacteria has oxidized the glucose present in the medium.
Only certain organs called the target organs respond to the presence of a specific hormone because
Answer:
Because receptors which are sensitive to the specific hormones are present only in the target organs
Explanation:
Hormones receptors are specialized proteins which are sensitive to particular hormone stimulus. They are responsible for receiving hormones signals as inputs in the target organs, to produce cascade of events as response in the target organs . They usually need small concentration of specific hormones to bind with to produce large effects in corresponding cells functions and morphology.
They can be located in cell membrane where they are called peptide hormone receptors; thus they receive input signals from peptide hormones from the cells surfaces,and stimulated cascade of events to bring about responses inside the cells. Therefore are also called trans-membrane receptors.
However,some can be integrated within the cytoplasm, where they are called nuclear receptors. to initiate cascade of events in the cells which affect the functions of the cells either for secretion or intake of a particular substances.
Final answer:
Target organs respond to specific hormones because only those organs contain cells that have the necessary receptor proteins for the hormones, initiating changes in cellular function.
Explanation:
Why Only Certain Organs Respond to Specific Hormones
Only certain organs, known as target organs, respond to the presence of a specific hormone because only some cells have receptor proteins that can bind to a given hormone. Hormones will travel through the bloodstream, but they can only influence cells that have specific hormone receptors for that hormone. When a hormone interacts with its receptor on a target cell, it initiates a series of cellular events, typically resulting in changes in cellular function, such as the activation of enzymatic pathways or regulation of gene expression that controls protein synthesis. The specificity of hormone-receptor interactions ensures that hormonal signals are accurately and efficiently relayed to the appropriate cellular targets.
A friend of yours appears to have put on a lot of muscle very quickly. At the same time, you notice that your friend seems to have a lot of mood swings and appears depressed. It is reasonable for you to suspect that your friend has begun to take ______.
Answer:
An anabolic steroid
Explanation:
Anabolic steroids ca also e referred to as anabolic-androgenic steroids. They are synthetic or man-made steroids that mimic natural androgens like testosterone in their structure and functions. It is majorly used for muscle mass building.
When anabolic steroids are misused or abused, it can have an effect on an individual's mental health and presenting symptoms like depression, mood swings, mania, aggression etc.
Some athletes and bodybuilders take anabolic steroids to promote building of their muscle mass rapidly.
1. What is the percent increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere between 2015 and 2019? Between 1960 and 2015?
Answer:
2. Explain the fluctuation in the carbon dioxide levels each year.
CAN SOMEONE HELP ME WITH THIS? IT WORTH HALF OF MY GRADE I WILL GIVE BRAINLIST ASAP
Answer:
1. Between 2015. and 2019. is 2.977667493796526% and between 1960. and 2015. its 27.129337539432175%
2. Carbon dioxide fluctuation is a direct response due to photosynthesis and respiration increase in spring and summer and decrease in fall and winter
Explanation:
The percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere varies. An WMO report shows that from 2015-2019, there has been a continued increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels and CO2 growth rates nearly 20% higher than the the other previous five years.
Studies has also shown that due to the annual growth rate of atmospheric carbon dioxide, it rate has been tripled. That is from 0.6 ppm per year in the early 1960s to an average 2.1 ppm in the past 10 years.The amount of CO2 found in the atmosphere is known to varies every year. Studies has shown that this variation is because of the role of plants in the carbon cycle.
Plants are known to use CO2 from the atmosphere when using the sunlight and water so that they can produce food and other substances that they need to survive and thrive.
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"Which of the following is evidence that mitochondria have an endosymbiotic origin? A. They contain their own DNA B. They produce ATP C. They are enclosed by a membrane D. Mitochondrial diseases are maternally inherited"
Answer:
A. They contain their own DNA
Explanation:
Mitochondria is a eukaryotic cellular organelle which is thought to be evolved by the symbiotic relationship between the prokaryotes and the proto-eukaryotes.
The mitochondria were once a free-living prokaryote which during the course of evolution was engulfed by the proto-eukaryote. They formed the symbiotic relationship with each other and the prokaryote evolved into the mitochondria.
There are many pieces of evidence which suggest the endosymbiotic hypothesis one of which is provided in the option is that they contain their own DNA just like the prokaryotes that is one circular DNA present in their cytoplasm not enclosed by the
Thus, Option-A is correct.
________ is the biological heritage (including physical characteristics such as one's skin color and associated traits) that people use to identify themselves.
Answer: Race
Explanation: Race is a heritage that various and diverse group of people use to identify with each other. Race may include physical characteristics such as the skin color example the black race and other associated traits such as facial features and hair texture
Your friend just spent a day at the beach but forgot to use sunscreen. That evening, she complains of a great deal of pain, and you notice that her skin is red and beginning to form large blisters. What type of burn has she suffered?
Insulin A) is released during fasting periods, such as between meals. B) increases blood glucose levels after meals. C) stimulates cells to break down glycogen for energy. D) helps glucose enter cells.
Answer:
The correct answer is D) helps glucose enter cells.
Explanation:
Insulin is a hormone that is released by the beta cells of the pancreas. It is released when the glucose level in the blood gets increase from its normal level.
Insulin helps in reducing the blood glucose level by making the blood glucose to enter the cells so that the blood sugar level gets to normal level and cells can get energy. Insulin also helps in storing glucose in the form of glycogen in the liver and muscles. Glucagon is the hormone that works antagonistic to insulin.
Insulin is secreted by the pancreas in response to elevated blood glucose levels, often after a meal, and helps to reduce blood glucose by facilitating its uptake into cells and stimulating glycogen formation in the liver.
The hormone insulin has several functions related to blood glucose management. When blood glucose levels rise, for example after a meal, the pancreas releases insulin. This hormone helps to lower blood glucose levels by enhancing glucose uptake into cells like muscle cells and the liver, and by stimulating the liver to convert glucose into glycogen, which can be stored for later use. Insulin also increases the number of glucose transporters in the cell membranes, enabling more glucose to enter cells where it is used for ATP production, or converted into fat for storage.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question: Insulin A) is released during fasting periods, such as between meals. B) increases blood glucose levels after meals. C) stimulates cells to break down glycogen for energy. D) helps glucose enter cells, is D) helps glucose enter cells.