Write a one sentence explanation for the following statement:

The presence in liver of glucose-6-phosphatase is essential to the function of the liver in synthesizing glucose for use by other tissues.
a. Glucose-6-phosphate must be hydrolyzed in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.
b. Glucose-6-phosphate must be fully ucleaved in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.
c. Glucose-6-phosphate must lower the energy barier of desorption in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.
d. Glucose-6-phosphate must be activated in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

a. Glucose-6-phosphate must be hydrolyzed in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues

Explanation:

Liver cells contain a membrane bound enzyme called glucose-6-phosphatase for glycogenolysis by glucagon especially during starvation when free glucose is required. As glucagon enters the liver cells it activates the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which then acts on glucose-6-phosphate and hydrolyzes it. As glucose-6-phosphate is hydrolyzed, it results in the formation of a phosphate group and a free glucose. The free glucose thus formed is transported from the liver cell to other tissues by specific glucose transport membrane protiens.


Related Questions

Compare the rate of human contributions to nitrogen fixation with the natural rate.

Answers

Answer:

Nitrogen fixation is the modification of nitrogen present in the atmosphere into a combined form (e.g ammonia) via chemical and some biological action (microbes like soil rhizobia).

Human processes, e.g fertilizers production and fossil fuels consumption, have majorly affected to a high amount the level of fixed nitrogen in the Earth's ecosystems. It is believed that the level of nitrogen fixed by human process will be much more than that fixed via microbial processes involving diazotrophs such bacteria as Azotobacter and archaea as effected by enzyme nitrogenases.

The rate amounting from nitrogen fixation is believed to be 140 teragrams (Tg) of nitrogen per year (1 teragram is equivalent to 1 million metric tons). This amount is very small when viewed to the level at which human factors or means of contribution increases nitrogen amount to the environment.

How how many carbon and hydrogen atoms would be contained within this molecule?​

Answers

Answer:

The answer to your question is this structure has 5 carbons and 10 hydrogens.

Explanation:

Carbons are the number of edges of the figure.

This is a pentagon it has 5 edges so it has 5 carbons. See the picture below

Number of hydrogens

All the carbons have 2 carbons so,  5 carbons x 2 hydrogens = 10 hydrogens

When a protein enters the low-pH environment of the stomach, charges on amino acid side chains are changed. These changes break ionic bonds, which changes the structure of the protein. This will change the:

a) Secondary structure of the protein.

b) Amount of buffer in the stomach.

c) Function of the protein.

d) Primary structure of the protein.

Answers

Explanation:

c) Function of the protein.

Large monomer chains form biological macromolecules that perform many essential body functions, including nucleic acids, carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. These are organic molecules, meaning Carbons bonded to the elements oxygen (O), hydrogen (H), nitrogen (N), and phosphorus (P) are ringed or long-chain.

Proteins are structural support molecules consisting of long amino acid chains joined by peptide (CONH) bonds; these are 20 different units organized into several macromolecules. Amino acids are absorbed through digestion and incorporated into the cells of the body to form muscle organs that signal molecules and provide an alternative source of energy.

Higher order protein structure, or how a protein folds,  is influenced by hydrogen bonding and side chain interactions. pH changes can directly affect and hinder folding, how proteins are shaped and by extension, their function.  

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how could two plants in different locations have the same dna

Answers

Answer: The two plants must be allopatric species

Explanation:

Allopatric species of plants of the same species would have the same or closely similar DNA. Even if TWO plants of same species are placed in different geographical locations (whether by natural or man-made factors) they would retain the same DNA.

However, after a long period of time of interacting with their respective environment, there would be lack of gene flow between the two plants and they MIGHT become genetically different (with different DNA).

But before then, the two plants living in different locations with the same DNA is best described as Allopatric species

Final answer:

Two plants in different locations can have the same DNA if they are of the same species, if genes have been transplanted, or through the movement of seeds or pollen. The similarity in the DNA structure can be identified using computer technologies.

Explanation:

Two plants in different locations could have the same DNA due to a few reasons. Firstly, they could belong to the same species. This could be determined if the genetic codes of the two plants are identical, meaning they have the same DNA. Scientists can use computer technologies to help identify these relationships. Sometimes two segments of DNA code can randomly share a high percentage of bases in the same locations, leading to the manifestation of same DNA in the plants.

Alternatively, the plants could have the same DNA due to transplantation of genes. If genes transplanted from one plant to another function successfully, this shows that they are similar enough to have the same DNA.

Lastly, movement of seeds or pollen could also lead to plants in different locations having the same DNA. Plant breeders could have carried seeds to different areas, or pollen could have travelled far, causing plants in new locations to have the same DNA as those in the original location.

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To assist the investigators with the crime, you will need to perform Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) to create copies of this gene so the sizes can be compared to determine if the blood was from a man or woman. During PCR it will be necessary to break the hydrogen bonds of the base pairs. Where are those hydrogen bonds normally found?
a. Between two nitrogen-containing bases in a single strand of DNA.
b. Between the phosphate and sugar of the same nucleotide.
c. Between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a different nucleotide.
d. Between one nitrogen-containing base on a single strand of DNA and another nitrogen-containing base on the complementary strand of DNA.
e. Between one phosphate on a single strand of DNA and a sugar on the complementary strand of DNA

Answers

Answer:

d. Between one nitrogen-containing base on a single strand of DNA and another nitrogen-containing base on the complementary strand of DNA.

Explanation:

Polymerase Chain Reaction serves to make copies of a small amount of DNA. To perform the process of replication, the sample DNA molecule must be denatured. It means that the hydrogen bonds that hold the two DNA strands of the double helix together should be broken down.

A double-stranded DNA molecule has two DNA strands. The nitrogenous base of nucleotides of one DNA strand of a helix makes hydrogen bonds with a complementary base present on the other DNA strand. Adenine base makes two hydrogen bonds with thymine base while guanine makes three hydrogen bonds with cytosine. In this way, hydrogen bonds between the complementary bases of two DNA strands hold them together in a double helix.

Final answer:

Hydrogen bonds in DNA structure are normally found between one nitrogen-containing base on a single strand of DNA and another nitrogen-containing base on the complementary strand of DNA. These bonds are broken during the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process.

Explanation:

In the context of DNA structure, hydrogen bonds are normally found in option d. Between one nitrogen-containing base on a single strand of DNA and another nitrogen-containing base on the complementary strand of DNA. This is a key feature of the double helix structure of DNA. These hydrogen bonds hold two complementary strands of DNA together and are the bonds that need to be broken during the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process. This is performed in the denaturation step of PCR, which allows for the replication of the DNA strand.

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A client in the emergency department is diagnosed with a communicable disease. When complications of the disease are discovered, the client is admitted to the hospital and placed in respiratory isolation. Which infection warrants airborne isolation.

A. MumpsB. ImpetigoC. MeaslesD. Cholera

Answers

Answer: C. Measles

Explanation:

Measles is a contagious disease which is caused by the Rubeola virus. It is an airborne disease which spread easily through sneezes and coughs of the infected person. It may also caused due to direct contact with the nasal secretions. It can spread when people share a common living space and lack immunity to fight against the disease causing symptoms.

The symptoms include cough, inflamed eyes, red rashes all over the body and begins with fever.

On the basis of the above information, measles is the disease due to which the client must be placed in a respiratory isolation so as to prevent the infection to other people.

Part A: If one follows 70 primary oocytes in an animal through their various stages of oogenesis, how many secondary oocytes would be formed?

Part B:How many first polar bodies would be formed?

Part C: How many ootids would be formed?

Answers

Answer:

Part A : 70 secondary oocytes will be formed.

Part B : 70 first polar bodies will be formed.

Part C : 70 ootids will be formed.

Explanation:

During oogenesis growth maturation of a single oogonium produces one primary oogonium.

the primary oogonium then undergoes meiosis -1 and produces  one secondary oocyte and first polar body.

The secondary oocyte then undergoes meiosis - 2 and forms an ootid and second polar body.

The ootid then differentiates into the ovum.

As in the above scenario , 70 primary oocytes are present , they undergo meiosis-1 and produces 70 secondary oocytes and 70 first polar bodies. Hence answers of part A and B is 70.

As 70 secondary oocytes are formed , they undergo meiosis -2 and forms 70 ootids which then differentiate in 70 ovums.

Final answer:

70 primary oocytes will result in 70 secondary oocytes and 70 first polar bodies. After meiosis II, the 70 secondary oocytes will form 70 ootids.

Explanation:

Part A: During oogenesis, primary oocytes undergo meiosis I to produce secondary oocytes. Meiosis I results in the formation of two cells, one secondary oocyte and one polar body. Therefore, if 70 primary oocytes are followed, 70 secondary oocytes would be formed.

Part B: Each primary oocyte also produces a first polar body during meiosis I. Therefore, if 70 primary oocytes are followed, 70 first polar bodies would be formed.

Part C: After meiosis II, the secondary oocyte undergoes a second division to form an ootid and a second polar body. Therefore, if the 70 secondary oocytes undergo meiosis II, 70 ootids would be formed.

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What is the add-on code for the coronary artery transcatheter placement during coronary intravascular brachytherapy for delivery of the radiation device

Answers

Answer:

Add-on-code is 92974.

Explanation:

Transcatheter placement of radiation delivery device for subsequent coronary intravascular brachytherapy. This code is reported in the reference given below and also on the Current Procedural Terminology database.

Reference: Buck, Carol J. Workbook for Step-by-Step Medical Coding, 2014 Edition-E-Book. Elsevier Health Sciences, 2014.

Domestic cats have 38 chromosomes in their diploid cells. If a diploid cat cell enters meiosis, how many chromosomes and double-helical molecules of DNA will be present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis II?

Answers

Answer:

Meiosis is a reduction division of diploid cells.(2n) Chromosomes numbers are reduced with each successive division stages  of meiosis 1 and 2, to haploid(n).

Cats  have  38 diploid  somatic (body)chromosome (2n) in the somatic cells  and are reduced to 19  new   varied haploid cells (n) of chromosomes in the gametes.

In cats, as in other mammals, during spermatogenesis in (seminiferous tublule of testis) and oegensis(in the ovaries);meiotic  reduction division reduced the diploid  somatic chromosomes to haploid chromosomes  in  sex gametes.

Therefore 38 chromosomes will be in  the somatic chromosomes, while the sex gametes, with double-helical molecules of DNA, at the end of meiosis II will  have 19 chromosomes, half of the somatic chromosomes.

Explanation:

Final answer:

At the end of meiosis II in domestic cats, each daughter cell will have 19 chromosomes and 19 double-helical molecules of DNA.

Explanation:

Domestic cats have 38 chromosomes in their diploid cells. During meiosis, each diploid cell undergoes a process to produce gametes (sperm or egg cells in animals) that are haploid, meaning each cell will have half the number of chromosomes of the original cell. Prior to meiosis, the cell's DNA is replicated, so each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.

At the end of meiosis I, the cell divides into two daughter cells, each with 38 chromosomes, but these chromosomes still consist of sister chromatids. Therefore, there are technically 76 double-helical molecules of DNA at this point. It is not until meiosis II that these sister chromatids separate, leading to four haploid daughter cells, each with 19 chromosomes. Since the chromatids have separated, each chromosome consists of a single double-helical molecule of DNA. Hence, each gamete will contain 19 chromosomes and 19 double-helical molecules of DNA at the end of meiosis II.

"The presence of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or delusions, irrational belief, persecutions, flat affect, no motivation, no speech or minimal, or speaks as word salad."

Answers

Answer:Paranoid Schizophrenia

Explanation:

Paranoid Schizophrenia "Absence of alcohol consumption produces physical symptoms ranging from hallucinations, delusions, irrational belief, persecutions, flat affect, no motivation, minimal or no speech.

The Aye-Aye exhibits incomplete dominance for eye color. In a population of Aye-Ayes there are red-eyed individuals exhibiting the dominant phenotype and yellow-eyed individuals exhibiting the recessive phenotype. If there are 66 yellow-eyed individuals in the current population of 459, how many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation which will consist of 410 total individuals?

Answers

Answer:

196.8

Explanation:

In a population of Aye-Ayes there are red-eyed individuals exhibiting the dominant phenotype  -----i.e RR

yellow-eyed individuals exhibiting the recessive phenotype ----- i.e rr

in the next generation, we will have the following offspring

          R                    R

r          Rr                   Rr

r          Rr                    Rr

All the offspring are heterozygous in nature.

Now, the question goes further by saying, if there are 66 yellow-eyed individuals in the current population of 459, i.e (q² =66)

How many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation which will consist of 410 total individuals.

In solving Hardy-Weinberg question, we use the following equation below.

p + q = 1

p² + 2pq + q²  = 1

where;

p = the frequency of the dominant allele

q =  the frequency of the recessive allele

p² = the frequency of individuals with homozygous dominant phenotype

2pq  = the frequency of individuals with heterozygous phenotype

q² = frequency of individuals with the homozygous recessive phenotype

Now, If In the next generation, the total population = 410

and q² (yellow-eyed individuals that are recessive in nature) = 66

then; q²= [tex]\frac{individuals with recessive phenotype}{total population}[/tex]

q² =  [tex]\frac{66}{410}[/tex]

q² = 0.16

q = [tex]\sqrt{0.16}[/tex]

q = 0.4

Since q = 0.4, we can easily get p by using the formula above:

p + q = 1

p = 1 - q

p = 1 - 0.4

p = 0.6

∴ Since we've known our p and q , we can easily determine how many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation.

2pq = 2 ( 0.6 × 0.4)

= 2 ( 0.24)

= 0.48

2pq = [tex]\frac{individuals with heterozygous phenotype}{total population}[/tex]

0.48 = [tex]\frac{x}{410}[/tex]

x = 0.48 × 410

x = 196.8 individuals

At the organismic level, which of the following would be at the top of the hierarchy? (5 POINTS)

Organelle

Cell

Organ

Tissue

Answers

Answer:

Cell

Explanation:

The level of an organism organisation is from: cells, which come together to form a tissue. Many tissues make up an organs. Various organs functioning makes up an organ system and the system all work hand in hand to make up the organism.

The cell is the smallest and basic unit of life and it is the start of all life forms.

B. Cell

What is Cell?In biology, the smallest unit that can live on its own and that makes up all living organisms and the tissues of the body.A cell has three main parts: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm.A cell is surrounded by a membrane, which has receptors on the surface.

Biological hierarchy refers to the systemic organization of organisms into levels, such as the Linnaean taxonomy.

Levels of Hierarchy:

Atom, molecule, macromolecule, cell, organelle,  tissue, organ, organ system, organisms, population, community, ecosystem, biome and finally biosphere.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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The ability to taste the chemical phenylthiocarbamide is an autosomal dominant phenotype, and the inability to taste it is recessive. If a taster woman with a nontaster father marries a taster man who in a previous marriage had a nontaster daughter, what is the probability that their first child will be:
a. a nontaster girl?
b. a taster girl?
c. a taster boy

Answers

Answer:

a. a nontaster girl= 1/8

b. a taster girl= 3/8

c. a taster boy= 3/8

Explanation:

Let's assume that the allele "T" is responsible for the taster phenotype while the recessive allele "t" gives the nontaster phenotype. The taster woman had a nontaster father (tt). Therefore, she is heterozygous dominant (Tt). The taster man had a nontaster daughter (tt) which means that he also has one "t" allele and his genotype is "Tt".

A cross between Tt and Tt would produce progeny in following ratio=

Tt x Tt= 3/4 taster: 1/4 nontaster

The probability of sons and daughters during each reproduction is=

XX x XY= 1/2 XX and 1/2 XY

Therefore,  

a. probability of having a nontaster girl= 1/4 x 1/2  = 1/8

b. a taster girl= 3/4 x 1/2 = 3/8

c. a taster boy= 3/4 x 1/2 = 3/8  

Final answer:

Using a Punnett square, the probability is estimated at 12.5% for a non-taster girl, 37.5% for a taster girl, and 37.5% for a taster boy from parents both heterozygous for the PTC tasting allele.

Explanation:

The scenario involves a taster woman with a nontaster father, which means she must be heterozygous (Tt) for the tasting allele because she inherited a non-tasting (t) allele from her nontaster father. The taster man must also be heterozygous (Tt), as he has a nontaster daughter, implying that he was able to pass on a recessive non-tasting allele (t).

To find the probability of their children having certain traits, we need to set up a Punnett square:

Parental genotypes: Woman (Tt) x Man (Tt) Offspring genotypes possible: TT, Tt, tT, tt

Since gender is determined independently of the PTC tasting allele, and each child has an equal chance of being a boy or a girl, we will first calculate the probabilities for tasting/non-tasting and then halve them for the probability of each gender.

a. Probability of a nontaster girl: 25% for nontaster (tt) x 50% for being a girl = 12.5%

b. Probability of a taster girl: 75% taster (TT or Tt) x 50% for being a girl = 37.5%

c. Probability of a taster boy: 75% taster (TT or Tt) x 50% for being a boy = 37.5%

Organic amendments will improve soil aeration and drainage and promote robust populations of root damaging soil bacteria and fungi.
O True O False

Answers

Answer16: False

Comments: The organic amendments (manure, bio-solid, wood ash, compost grass clipping etc.) improve the physical, chemical and biological properties of the soil. It also supplies the essential nutrients needed for plant growth. It can also support the beneficial bacterial growth in the soil but not enhance the growth of harmful microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) in the soil.

Organic amendments will improve soil aeration and drainage and promote robust populations of root damaging soil bacteria and fungi - False

Organic amendments

The organic amendments manure, bio-solid, wood ash, compost grass clipping improve the physical, chemical, and biological properties of the soil.

It also supplies the essential nutrients needed for plant growth. It can also support beneficial bacterial growth in the soil but not enhance the growth of harmful microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) in the soil.

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Some archaea are polyploid. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding archaeal polyploidy? Check All That Apply

a. Archaea must undergo meiosis prior to cell division.

b. Each chromosome in a polyploid organism has an identical copy of the organism's genetic information

c. Each chromosome in a polyploid organism has distinct genetic information.

d. A mutation that occurs in one chromosome may be phenotypically "rescued by wild type alleles on other chromosomes.

Answers

Answer:

Option-(C,A):Archaea must undergo meiosis prior to cell division, and Each chromosome in a polyploid organism has distinct genetic information.

Explanation:

Archaea are polyploid:

Archea are prehistoric organisms who can be also termed as the prokaryotic living cells, as they developed from a less developed form to a more complex shape or system. As the feature of being a polyploid makes it easy for any archea to survive in the most severe conditions. As the polyploids contain a number of genetic materials in pair, as each pair is very distinctive in features or more independent in regulating a function then the other. Giving it a more diversity of genetic sequence its genome.

Along, with that the process of meiosis occurs prior to the process or event of cell division. Which is for production of the copies of the parent cell, which posses the same genetic material as that of the parent cells.

Processes such as changes in orbital geometry or volcanic eruptions have clearly affected climate in the past, and these explain the dramatic warming of the last 200 years.

True or false

Answers

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

There has been a constant increase in the earth's global surface temperature. This global rise in temperature is due to the increasing number of volcanic eruptions on earth's surface, changes in the orbital geometry as well as due to the introduction of the industrial revolution, that has been taking place on earth for the last 200 years.

The eruption of volcanoes leads to the release of a large number of pyroclastic materials and greenhouse gases and volcanic gases such as CO₂, SO₂, H₂O, H₂S and many other gases, which is harmful to the atmosphere. This leads to an increasing amount of temperature, resulting in the melting of the glaciers in the polar region.

Over this long time, plate motions have rapidly taken place, due to which the volcanoes were formed and erupted near the convergent and the divergent plate boundaries.

Thus, the above-given statement is true.

Yes, orbital geometry or volcanic eruptions have greatly affected climate in the past which leads to dramatic warming of the last 200 years.

The more eruptions from volcanos and industrial revolution increases the concentration of carbondioxide gas in the atmosphere which is a greenhouse gas responsible for blocking the reflected radiations of the sun leads to warming of the surrounding.

This phenomenon is known as global warming. This global warming greatly change the atmosphere of the earth so we can conclude that volcanic eruptions and industrial revolution greatly affected the climate of the earth.

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Kanisha and Jamal receive their grades on thier physics midterms. Kanisha got an A, but Jamal got a D. "You must have the physics gene," Jamal said. "I don't. I might as well not bother studying." Jamal's attitude illustrates the idea of

A. Genetic discrimination
B. Genetic determinism
C. Genetic handicap
D. Genetic engineering

Answers

Answer: Jamal's attitude illustrates the idea of Genetic determinism.

Explanation:

Genetic determinism which is also called Biological determinism is the belief that human behaviour is controlled by an individual's genes or some component of their physiology, generally at the expense of the role of the environment, whether in embryonic development or in learning. It refers to the idea all human behaviour is innate, determined by genes, brain size, or other biological attributes.

Thus, Jamal saying, "I don't. I might as well not bother studying" illustrates the idea of Genetic determinism.

Describe the regioselectivity and stereospecificity in the hydrohalogenation of an alkene. Entry field with incorrect answer

a. Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition
b. Markovnikov orientation with syn-addition
c. anti-Markovnikov orientation with syn-addition
d. anti-Markovnikov orientation with anti-addition
e. Markovnikov orientation with anti-addition

Answers

Answer:

Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition

Explanation:

Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes (hydrohalogenation) show regioselectivity, they obey Markovnikov rule. This is always obeyed in all alkene reactions with hydrogen halides. The major product is always one in which the halide is attached to the carbon with the least number of hydrogen atoms and the hydrogen attached to the carbon with the greatest number of hydrogen atoms across the double bond. However, the reaction is not steroselective. It does not yield a greater percentage of a particular stereo isomer. The reaction yields a 50-50 mixture of both syn- and anti- addition products.

Answer:

Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition

Explanation:

Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes (hydrohalogenation) show regioselectivity, they obey Markovnikov rulproducts.

Explanation:

Observe: On the SIMULATION pane, observe the directions of the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors. A.What do you notice? The vectors magnitude is constant.

Answers

Final answer:

The SIMULATION pane shows the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors with constant magnitude. This indicates a scenario where the object's speed or direction isn't changing, and thus, its acceleration is zero. Also, the object's acceleration vector would be perpendicular to its path when it's moving in a circular pattern at a uniform speed.

Explanation:

From the SIMULATION pane, observations are made regarding the directions of the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors. The vectors' magnitude appears to be constant in this simulation. This suggests that there isn't a change in speed or direction of the object being studied; hence, its acceleration is zero.

Looking at the graph, it's evident that the ball moved with a constant velocity, as indicated by the horizontal line. This further confirms the notion that the object is not accelerating since acceleration refers to change in velocity.

Momentum vectors and velocity vectors have constant magnitude and point in the same direction when the object moves at a constant speed. Hence, according to the characteristics of vectors, the direction of acceleration is perpendicular to the object's track when motion occurs in a circular pattern at a constant speed. This uniform circular motion is widely observable in physics.

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How many carbon and hydrogen atoms would be contained within this molecule?​

Answers

Answer:

The answer to your question is This structure has 11 carbons and 24 hydrogens.

Explanation:

Each edge of this skeletal figure means one carbon.

See the picture below, there we notice that there are 11 carbons.

Number of hydrogens

Carbon 1  = 3                     Carbon 7 = 2

Carbon 2 = 2                     Carbon 8 = 3

Carbon 3 = 1                      Carbon 9 = 2

Carbon 4 = 3                     Carbon 10 = 2

Carbon 5 = 2                     Carbon 11 = 3

Carbon 6 = 1

Total number of hydrogens = 24

Answer:

The above molecule contains eleven (11) carbon atoms and twenty-four (24) hydrogen atoms.

Explanation:

It can be called an undecane.

In each of the two tests (starch and sugar) a positive and negative control was used. What was the positive control in each of the tests and what was the negative control. Explain your answers.

Answers

Answer AND Explanation:

Benedict’s Reagent Data

Sample:  Initial Color:    Final Color:      Reducing Sugar Present in Sample? dH2O        Clear               Blue                    no  

Albumin  clear                 Blue                      no

Milk          white          Orange-ish brown     yes

Glucose  clear              red                          yes

Lugol’s Iodine Data

Sample:     Initial Color:       Final Color:        Starch Present in Sample

dH2O            clear                 orange                 No

Albumin          Clear              orange                  No

Milk               White               Yellow-ish             No

Starch          Foggy                Black                     Yes

Raw Potato    Yellow             Black                     yes

In each of the two tests (starch and sugar) a positive and negative control was used.Test one positive control was milk and glucose and the negative control was the albumin and dh2o1. Milk and glucose have high levels of sugar present while the others don't.The test two results were positive for potato and starch while the dh20, milk, albumin were negative

In the test for reducing sugars using Benedict's solution, milk and glucose serves as positive controls while distilled water and albumin serves as negative controls.

What is the Benedict's test?

Benedict's test is a test used to test for the presence of reducing sugars.

A brick-red precipitate using Benedict's test indicates the presence of reducing sugars.

Milk and glucose serves as positive controls for the test because the both contain reducing sugars.

A negative control in Benedict's test will be distilled water and albumin.

This is because neither distilled water nor albumin contains no reducing sugars.

Therefore, milk and glucose serves as positive controls while distilled water and albumin serves as negative controls.

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The failure of which organelle during development can result in a child being born with webbed toes?a. lysosomes b. peroxisomes c. vacuoles d. rough ER e. Golgi apparati

Answers

Answer:

A lysosomes

Explanation:

discuss the biological underpinnings of motivation including needs drives and homeostasis.

Answers

Answer:

The process by which activities are initiated, coordinated and progress  to meet the physical or psychological needs of an individual  is known as  Motivation

Needs  the request for essential materials or resources which are  paramount for organisms survival and existence. examples of theses Materials are -water, air.

Drives:The possession of  basic needs by an organism, causes physiological and physical arousal that prompts the organism to behave in a such a way  to achieved these  basic needs thus  defusing  the tension.

The maintenance of relatively  constant internal environments of an organism is called Homeostasis. It is a natural compensatory mechanisms of  multi-cellular organisms which maintains fluctuations in  physiological mechanisms of the body.  

Explanation:

Final answer:

The biological aspects of motivation deal with how internal processes such as needs and drives, based on the body's quest for homeostasis, can steer behavior. Drive theory explains that physiological imbalances create needs that become psychological drives, prompting actions aimed at restoring balance.

Explanation:

Biological Underpinnings of Motivation

The discussion of the biological underpinnings of motivation includes needs, drives, and homeostasis. The drive theory suggests that when an imbalance such as a drop in blood sugar occurs, it leads to a physiological need which in turn creates a psychological drive, like hunger, that motivates behavior aimed at reducing the need and restoring balance. Additionally, the concept of homeostasis plays a central role in motivation, as it refers to the body's automatic process to maintain a stable internal environment. Once a physiological need is satisfied, habits formed during this process can influence future behavior when faced with similar physiological needs.

Examples of Drive Theory

For instance, the need for food results from a drop in blood sugar levels, creating a hunger drive that motivates individuals to seek out and eat food. Similarly, the need for water arises from dehydration, prompting the drive to drink. After the consumption of food or water, homeostasis is achieved as blood sugar levels and hydration return to their optimal states.

the tuco toucan, the largest member of the tucan family, possesses the largest beak relative to body size of all birds. This exaggerated feature has received various interpretations such as being

Answers

This exaggerated feature has received various interpretations such as being adapted for better feeding and temperature maintenance.

Explanation:

The largest beak of Tuco toucan relative to body size is an adaptation for feeding. Tuco toucon use their beaks to pluck fruits to eat, they catch insects, frogs and reptiles for feeding. When sleeping they keep their beaks under their feather to keep itself warm. Also, the large beaks help it radiate heat and maintain its temperature. They increase their blood flow to their beaks and maintain temperature  to survive in the tropical climate.

If a cell has 40 chromosomes, how many centromeres would it have when it is in metaphase? a. 1 b. 2 c. 20 d. 40 e. 80

Answers

Answer:

Basically this depends on the type of cell division the cell undergoes.

if the cell undergoes reduction division of meiosis(n) the  chromosome number will be reduced to 20 so the centromere will be 20, However if the cell undergoes multiplication division of mitosis,(2n) the centromere will be 40, since the chromosomes number will increases and sister chromatids holding the chromosomes are held at centro mere.

Explanation:

If the cell has 40 chromosomes, the number of centromeres will also be 40 the same number as the chromosome.

The correct option is (D) 40.

Centromere

The centromere is present in the center of the chromosomes.

It helps to attach two arms of chromosomes.

It separates the chromosome into two short arms.

Thus, the correct option is (D) 40. Since in metaphase the chromosomes are aligned in a straight line, there is no change to occur in the number of chromosomes.

Learn more about chromosomes, here:

https://brainly.com/question/296477

Correlate Mendel's four postulates with what is now known about homologous chromosomes, genes, alleles, and the process of meiosis.

Answers

Answer:

Mendel proposed that gene occurred in two copies in every individual. This postulate is similar to homologous chromosomes carrying the two alleles of a gene type. Mendel proposed that one variant was more observant than the other variant. This can be depicted as one allele being dominant over the recessive allele.

Alleles segregate from each other when homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I. Non-homologous chromosomes line up independently of each other during metaphase I of each meiotic event. This results in independent assortment during anaphase I and completion of meiosis I

In males, what hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus that tells the anterior pituitary to secrete the gonadotropic hormones

Answers

Answer:

Gonadotropin releasing hormone

Explanation:

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is one of the releasing hormones secreted by the hypothalamus to regulate the secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland.  

At the beginning of puberty, the hypothalamus begins to increase its production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). The gonadotropin-releasing hormone makes the anterior pituitary to release gonadotropins in both males and females. Two gonadotropic hormones are FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone). FSH promotes spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules, and LH promotes androgen production in the interstitial cells.

Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from a logistic to an exponential population growth?

A. Favorable climatic conditions

B. Removal of competitors

C. Decreased death rate

D. Competition for resources

E. Increased birth rate

Answers

Answer:

Option E

Explanation:

As per Thomas Malthus, population of any specie will grow tremendously when resources are supplied in an unlimited amount. Extensive resource supply will reduce competition among species thereby further boosting population growth. This accelerated growth in population is termed as exponential growth.  In general, in an exponential population the birth rate or the rate by which population is increasing either constant through out or increases after certain period of time.

Population of bacteria grows exponentially in case of adequate resource availability as the growth rate remains adequate through out the life cycle.  However, in real world resources are limited and hence exponential population growth is not possible.  

Hence, option E is correct

Answer:

The correct answer would be - option B.

Explanation:

The shift from the logistic population growth to exponential growth takes place if the resources are enough and if there would be enough resources for a population there will be fewer or no competitions. Sufficient resources are only present in favorable conditions.  

If the resources are unlimited it shows the growth rate in the population by using the natural resources, this increase is called exponential population growth, removal of competitors will lead to less utilization of the resources other than the desirable population and it will increase.

Thus, the correct answer is - option B.

The symbol "Cy" represents a mutant allele in Drosophila that confers curly wings instead of normal, straight wings (i.e., the wildtype condition).

Part A

Because the symbol for this mutant allele is capitalized, you can immediately infer that this mutation must be:

a. dominant
b. recessive

Part B

Which symbol refers to the wildtype form of this allele?

a. cy
b. Cy+
c. +
d. Cy

Answers

Answer:

a. Dominant

b. Cy+ , +

Explanation:

The mutation explained in the question is written with capital letters as "Cy". Since the mutation is denoted with upper case letters, it should be dominant over the wild type phenotype.  

In genetics, the wild type phenotype is mutated to produce one or more mutant phenotypes. To distinguish the wild type alleles from the mutated alleles, the former ones are written as "+" or "+" is written as a superscript to the letters denoting the mutant allele. Therefore, the wild type allele for the gene can be written as "+" or as "Cy⁺". Here, "+" is superscript to "Cy".

1. Describe the possible mechanisms whereby exercise may enhance health status and list at least eight of the potential health benefits of a regular comprehensive exercise program.

Answers

Answe

Explanation:

Excersice increases the cardiac and skeletal muscels strenght for maximum oxygen consumption for energy output.

It lowers the blood pressure and in prove RBC count for oxygen transportation and distribution.

It cut down risk of osteoporosis, by stimulating bone growth.

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