Answer:
yes
Explanation:
As they can be the family of the same father and mother
What region of the brain is considered the emotional brain
a. The limbic system
b. The amygdala
c. The cingulated gyrus
d. The insula
e. The hypothalamus
Answer:
The limbic system
Explanation:
Limbic system is also named as paleomammalian cortex. Limbic system is located on both sides of thalamus beneath the cerebrum temporal lobe.
The limbic system controls the different functions like behavior, long term memory and emotion. This system is also referred as emotional brain as it controls the emotional state of an organism.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a)
Answer:
The limbic system
Explanation:
The limbic system of the brain is considered the emotional brain.
In the PNS, the ANS is responsible for the _____________ control of three effector tissue: cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and ______________
a. Involuntary/somatic tissue
b. Voluntary/somatic tissue
c. Involuntary/glandular tissue
d. Voluntary/glandular tissue
e. Voluntary/skeletal muscle
Answer:
Involuntary/glandular tissue.
Explanation:
Autonomic nervous system is a part of peripheral nervous system that control the important functions of our body.
Autonomic nervous system control the involuntary actions of the body. This nervous system control the heart beat regulation ( cardiac muscle), contraction of smooth muscle and secretion of the glands of an organism's body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Answer:
b. Voluntary/somatic tissue
e. Voluntary/skeletal muscle
Explanation:
b and e
Signaling molecules released at a synapse are called ______________.
Answer: neurotransmitters
Explanation:
The neurotransmitters are the chemicals which are released at the synaptic cleft or synapse present between the two neurons. These are the chemical messengers which carries the signals from one neuron to other and helps in transmission of the information. The chemical molecules of the neurotransmitters usually diffuse across the synaptic cleft and they bind to the receptors of the postsynaptic cells.
Answer:
Neurotransmitters
Explanation:
Signaling molecules released at a synapse are called neurotransmitters.
Keeping in mind the life cycle of bacteriophages, consider the following problem: During the reproductive cycle of a temperate bacteriophage, the viral DNA inserts into the bacterial chromosome where the resultant prophage behaves much like a Trojan horse. It can remain quiescent, or it can become lytic and initiate a burst of progeny viruses. Several operons maintain the prophage state by interacting with a repressor that keeps the lytic cycle in check. Insults (ultraviolet light, for example) to the bacterial cell lead to a partial breakdown of the repressor, which in turn causes the production of enzymes involved in the lytic cycle. As stated in this simple form, would you consider this system of regulation to be operating under positive or negative control?
The system of regulation in bacteriophage life cycle operates under negative control, as the temperate phage remains inactive until stressors induce the lytic cycle.
Explanation:The regulation of the lytic and lysogenic cycles in bacteriophages can be characterized as being under negative control. In a lysogenic cycle, a temperate bacteriophage's DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome as a prophage. During this state, several operons maintain the prophage state by interacting with a repressor that prevents the initiation of the lytic cycle.
When environmental stressors such as ultraviolet light or toxic chemicals affect the bacterial cell, they lead to the breakdown of the repressor. This, in turn, causes the production of enzymes involved in the lytic cycle. Because the repressor actively inhibits the lytic cycle under normal conditions, and a stress-induced breakdown of the repressor is required to initiate the lytic cycle, this system of regulation is considered to be operating under negative control.
Lymphatic vessels remove excess fluid from tissues. Often after mammexront( the surgical procedure to remove of all or part of a breast) the lymphatic vessels draining the arm are damaged. Explain a consequence of this damage. What can be done to reduce the symptoms?
10. The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates a. Epiphyseal growth has ended b. Epiphyseal growth is just beginning c. Growth of bone in diameter is just beginning d. The bone is fractured at the location e. No particular event
Answer:
epiphyseal line indicates..
Explanation:
that the growth cycle has completed in this individual...the answer is A.
The presence of an epiphyseal line in a bone indicates that the growth, or lengthening, of that bone has ended. It occurs as a result of the hardening of the growth plate once the bone has reached its full length.
Explanation:The presence of an epiphyseal line in a bone indicates that the epiphyseal growth, or lengthening, of that bone has ended. The epiphyseal line is a remnant of the epiphyseal plate, also known as the growth plate, which is an area of growing tissue near the ends of the long bones in children and adolescents. Once the bone has completed its growth in length, the growth plate hardens and becomes the epiphyseal line.
So, in the context of the options given, the correct answer would be 'a. Epiphyseal growth has ended'. This occurs when the individual reaches physical maturity, and thus, no more bone growth in length would occur from that point onwards.
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If the connection between the hypothalamus and pituitary were severed, damaging the neurons, the secretion of which type of chemical messenger (signal) would most directly be affected?
a) chemokines
b) neurotransmitters
c) releasing hormone
d) tropic hormone
Answer:
Tropic hormones
Explanation:
The damage probably occurred at the infindibular stalk or the pituitary stalk that links the hypothalamus to the pituitary glands. If this were to happen, then there would be no communication between the two endocrine glands and the chemical signals affected will be tropic hormones. This is because the releasing hormones from the hypothalamus will not be able to reach the pituitary glands to stimulate the release of the secondary hormones. Tropic hormones are hormones which have other glands as their targets for example Adenocorticotropin Hormone (ACTH) that regulates how the steroid hormone cortisol is released by the adrenal glands. The picture below shows the pituitary stalk linking the hypothalamus to the pituitary glands.
Severing the connection between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland would directly affect the secretion of releasing hormones, impacting hormonal stimulation mechanisms.
If the connection between the hypothalamus and pituitary were severed, the secretion of releasing hormones would most directly be affected. The hypothalamus contains neurons that are responsible for secreting a variety of these hormones, such as Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), and Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), into the hypophyseal portal circulation.
This process then triggers the anterior pituitary gland to release its own hormones. Thus, if signaling and hormone release from the hypothalamus were blocked, the mechanism of hormonal stimulation would be affected.
The "enteric division" is part of which system
a. Cardiovascular
b. Lymphatic
c. Respiratory
d. Digestive
e. Endocrine
The answer is D, digestive.
What is the purpose of the reflective material in the choroid coat? What is it called?
Answer:
Purpose: to impart better night vision to nocturnal animals by increasing the available light for photoreceptors.
It is called "tapetum lucidum".
Explanation:
The reflective material in the choroid coat of some nocturnal vertebrates is called "tapetum lucidum". Its function is to improve the night vision of nocturnal animals. The tapetum lucidum serves to reflect the dim light available in the night. The reflected light re-stimulates the photoreceptor cells present in the retina. This increases the available light for night vision.
Tapetum lucidum makes the eyes of nocturnal mammals to shine at night.
Final answer:
The reflective material in the choroid coat, known as the tapetum lucidum, reduces internal reflection of light, providing a clearer image and is especially beneficial for night vision in nocturnal animals. Humans, on the other hand, have melanin in the choroid coat to absorb light and prevent internal reflection.
Explanation:
Purpose of Reflective Material in the Choroid Coat
The purpose of the reflective material found in the choroid coat is to reduce reflection of stray light within the eye, enhancing visual acuity by preventing internal glare and light scattering. This reflective material, known as the tapetum lucidum, is particularly significant in nocturnal animals as it amplifies light to improve night vision. The tapetum lucidum achieves this by reflecting visible light back through the retina, thus giving animals with this layer better ability to see in low light conditions. The reflective effect of the tapetum lucidum also causes the eye-shine observed when light is shone into the eyes of certain animals at night.
In humans, however, this feature is absent as the human choroid coat is pigmented with melanin that serves to absorb light rather than reflect it. The melanin within the choroid coat ensures that any light entering the eye does not reflect internally, which would otherwise cause blurring and decrease in the sharpness of vision.
Plsss HELPPPPP IS THIS RIGHT?!!?,, if not please help and out
Cells can be divided into 2 main categories. Eukaryotes(right side) and prokaryotes.
What are 5 facts about cells?The facts about cells.
Cells are too small to see without a microscope.
There are two main types of cells.
1 Prokaryote were the earliest and most basic forms of life on Earth.
2 There are more bacteria in the body than in human cells.
3 Cells contain DNA.
4 Cells contain structures called organelles which have specific roles.
What are the 4 types of cells?The four type of cells are :
1 Nerve cell.
2 Muscle cells.
3 Epithelial cells.
4 Blood cells.
5 Stem cells.
6 Fat cells.
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A single muscle cell is called:
a. myofibril
b. sarcomere
c. muscle fiber
d. myofilament
A single muscle cell is known as a muscle fiber, which contains hundreds to thousands of myofibrils. The muscle fiber is encased in a plasma membrane called the sarcolemma and contains cytoplasm or sarcoplasm. Sarcomeres within myofibrils facilitate muscle contraction.
Explanation:A single muscle cell is called a muscle fiber. These are the individual cells that make up skeletal muscle tissue. Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a plasma membrane known as the sarcolemma, with a cytoplasm called the sarcoplasm. Muscle fibers are incredibly large cells, containing hundreds to thousands of myofibrils. Myofibrils are the long cylindrical structures that run parallel to the muscle fiber and give the muscle its striated appearance.
Within each muscle fiber, myofibrils are organized into units called sarcomeres, which is the smallest contractile portion of muscle tissue. The repeating units of sarcomeres along a myofibril are what lead to muscle contraction. Muscle fibers consist of myofilaments composed of the proteins actin and myosin organized in sarcomeres, allowing for the muscle contraction mechanism that is vital for movement.
Most organs are composed of what?
Answer:
Organs are composed of main tissue, parenchyma, and "sporadic" tissues, stroma. The main tissue is that which is unique for the specific organ, such as the myocardium, the main tissue of the heart, while sporadic tissues include the nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissues.
Explanation:
Antagonistic control of efferent output is typical of the __________ division.
a. somatic
b. sensory
c. autonomic
d. A and B
e. A and C
Answer:
autonomic
Explanation:
Peripheral nervous system is divided into somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system .
Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are the divisions of autonomic nervous system. These divisions of autonomic nervous system works in antagonistic manner. Autonomic nervous system regulates the antagonistic control of the efferent output by the divisions of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Why is heating a first step in PCR amplification of extracted DNA?
The enzyme DNA polymerase works at a higher temperature.
It permits hydrogen bonds between DNA strands to dissociate.
The nucleotides bind together at high heat.
It is required for primers to bind permanently to the DNA.
It is necessary for DNA strands to anneal to each other.
Answer:
Option). It permits hydrogen bonds between DNA strands to dissociate.
Explanation:
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) techniques can bed defined as a technique, which is used for in vitro amplification of sample DNA. It is made up of three steps, denaturation, primer annealing, and extension.
The first step in PCR is heating of sample DNA to denature the double stranded DNA by breaking hydrogen bonding present between bases of double stranded DNA.
Due to this, double strands of DNA get separated and provide templates for synthesis of daughter DNA strands.
Thus, the correct answer is second option.
small group of 100 people decide to isolate themselves from the world and move to a small and remote deserted island. Out of this population, 10 of the individuals have albino skin, which is due to the homozygous recessive condition (aa). Determine the frequency of the dominant (p) and recessive (q) allele? How many individuals would you expect to be homozygous dominant (AA), heterozygous (Aa) and homozygous recessive (aa)?
Answer:
Frequency of p [tex]= 0.684[/tex]
Frequency of p [tex]= 0.316[/tex]
Number of individuals with homozygous dominant (AA) [tex]= 47[/tex]
Number of individuals with heterozygous (Aa)[tex]= 43[/tex]
Number of individuals with homozygous recessive (aa) [tex]= 10[/tex]
Explanation:
Out of 100 people, 10 have albino skin (aa)
So, the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals [tex](q^{2})[/tex] is [tex]\frac{10}{100} = 0.1[/tex]
Now, q will be
[tex]= \sqrt{q^{2} } = \sqrt{0.1} \\= 0.316[/tex]
As per Hardy Weinberg's equation -
[tex]p + q = 1[/tex]
Substituting the value of q in above equation, we get -
[tex]p + 0.316 = 1p = 1 -0.316\\p = 0.684[/tex]
Now the frequency of homozygous dominant (AA) will be
[tex]p^{2} = 0.684^{2} \\= 0.467[/tex]
Hence, out of 100 people [tex]0.467 * 100 = 46.7 or 47[/tex] people are homozygous dominant (AA)
Like wise out of 100 people [tex]0.1 * 100 = 10 [/tex] people are homozygous recessive (aa)
As per As per Hardy Weinberg's equation-
[tex]p^{2} + q^{2} + 2pq = 1\\[/tex]
Substituting the values in above equation, we get -
[tex]0.467 + 0.316 + 2pq = 1\\2pq = 1 -( 0.467+ 0.1)\\2pq = 0.433[/tex]
So, out of 100 people [tex]0.433 * 100 = 43.3 or 43[/tex] people are heterozygous (Aa)
what does reverse transcriptase use to form DNA
Answer:
-RNA molecule.
Explanation:
Reverse transcriptase or RT can be defined as an enzyme that synthesizes cDNA (complementary DNA) molecules by using RNA molecule as template. This process is known as reverse transcription.
Reverse transcriptase enzyme is found in many RNA viruses, prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Telomerase in an example of reverse transcriptase, which is found in eukaryotes and replicates ends of linear chromosomes.
Thus, the correct answer is 'RNA.'
List the three primary components of the axial skeleton.
Answer:
Three primary components of axial skeleton are skull, vertebral column and ribs.
Explanation:
Axial skeleton forms the central axis f the body. Three primary component of axial skeleton are:
Skull: Skull protects the brain and supports the face structure. Twenty two bones are present in the skull. Two main categories of skull bone are cranial bone and facial bone.
Vertebral column: Vertebral columns support and protects the spinal cord. The vertebral column serves as the attachment site for the muscles and neck.
Ribs cage: Ribs cage is also known as thoracic cage and includes the structure of sternum, ribs, coastal cartilage and thoracic cartilage. Ribs consists of twelve bones.
The axial skeleton, comprising the central structure of the body, consists of three primary components: the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage. These components serve to protect vital organs and establish a framework for various muscle attachments.
Explanation:The three primary components of the axial skeleton include the skull, the vertebral column, and the thoracic cage (also known as the rib cage). These components form the central axis of the body. The skull provides protection for the brain; the vertebral column contains and shields the spinal cord; and the thoracic cage safeguards the heart and lungs while also providing a structure for the attachment of muscles involved in breathing and maintaining posture.
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Which cranial nerve innervates several different systems including blood pressure, digestion, and cardiac rhythm?
Answer:
Vagus nerve.
Explanation:
Vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve and largest among all the cranial nerves. This nerve transmits information to or from the surface of brain to the tissue or organ.
Vagus nerve is responsible for regulation of various functions like sweating, blood pressure, digestion, peristalsis and cardiac rhythmicity. Cranial nerve innervates in different system of body like digestion, blood pressure and cardiac rhythm.
In guinea pigs, a single gene with two alleles (B and b) determines coat color. Black (B) is dominant over white (b). A guinea pig from a true-breeding black strain is mated with a guinea pig from a true-breeding white strain. The F1 progeny are all black. Two of the F1 progeny are mated with each other. What proportion of the black F2 progeny is expected to be heterozygous?
Which of the following white blood cells represents around 4 percent of the total white lood cells and increase during an allergic reaction?
A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. eosinophils
D. basophils
Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:
Eosinophils can be defined as a type of white blood cell whose number increases in the blood when there is any infection in the body or at the time of any allergic reaction or even in case of cancer.
Presence of more than 500 eosinophils per mL of blood is normal in an adult but more than 1500 eosinophils per mL of blood shows infection and if lasts for several months then the condition will be hypereosinophils.
So, the correct answer is eosinophiles.
How many bones are found in the cranium and the face?
Answer:
Cranium has eight bones.
Face has fourteen bones.
Explanation:
Facial skeleton comprises of fourteen bones namely –
a) Nasal conchae – two in numbers
b) Lacrimal bones – two in numbers
c) Vomer – one single bone
d) Maxilla – two in numbers
e) Nasal bones – two in numbers
f) Mandible – one single bone
g) zygomatic bones – two in numbers
h) Palatine bones – two in numbers
The cranium has eight bones in its structure namely –
a) Temporal bones – two in numbers
b) Sphenoid
c) Occipital
d) Ethmoid
e) frontal bone
f) Parietal bones – two in numbers
Answer:
The cranium has eight bones and the face has fourteen bones.
Explanation:
The head consists of the skull, face, scalp, teeth, brain, cranial nerves, meninges, special sense organs, and other structures such as blood vessels, lymphatics, and fat. It is also the place where food is eaten and air is inhaled and exhaled.
The bones of the head are divided into two parts: the cranium and the face skeleton (viscerocranium). The cranium provides the envelope for the brain and encephalic meninges, proximal parts of the cranial nerves and blood vessels. The Face Skeleton consists of bones that surround the mouth and nose and contribute to the orbits.
In total, the cranium has 8 bones. they are: Frontal (01), Occipital (01), Sphenoid (01), Ethmoid (01), Temporal (02), Parietal (02).
While the face has 14 bones. They are: Jaw (01), Vomer (01), Zygomatic (02), Maxilla (02), Palatine (02), Nasal (02), Lacrimal (02), Lower Nasal Shell (02).
Which type of epithelial tissue consists of a single row of flattened cells?
Answer:
Simple squamous epithelium
Explanation:
Simple squamous epithelium is the type of epithelial tissue that is made up of a single layer of cells. The cells are flat in shape. Each of the cells has a nucleus present in the center. The nucleus is also flattened or oval in shape. The function of simple squamous epithelium is to serve in filtration or diffusion as they are only one cell thick.
If purple flower color is dominant in pea plants, a cross between P generation purple and white plants will result ina. all purple flowers in the F1 generation.b. all white flowers in the F1 generation.c. all purple flowers in the F1 generation but a lighter purple than in the parents.d. mostly purple flowers in the P1 generation, with an occasional white flower.e. half of the plants having purple flowers, the other half having white flowers.
Answer:
a. all purple flowers in the F1 generation.
Explanation:
According to the given information, the allele for purple flower color (lets assume P) is dominant over while the allele of flower color (p). When two pure breeding purple (PP) and white flowered (pp) plants are crossed, the F1 would have all "purple flowered progeny with genotype Pp".
According to the Mendel's law of dominance, the hybrid genotype exhibits the dominant phenotype. Here, the allele "P" is dominant over allele "p". Hence, the genotype "Pp" would exhibit purple flower color and all the F1 progeny would have purple flowers.
In pea plants, when a cross is made between a purple flower plant and a white flower plant in the P generation, the F1 generation will have all purple flowers.
Explanation:In pea plants, purple flower color (P) is dominant to white (p). When a cross is made between a purple flower plant and a white flower plant in the P generation, the F1 generation will have all purple flowers. This is because the purple flower color is dominant over the white flower color. The white flower color will only appear in the F2 generation.
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How does the size of the olfactory bulb in sheep compare to the size in humans? What might this tell you about the sense of smell in the sheep’s survival, in particularly regarding how it acquires food?
Answer:
-The size of sheep olfactory bulb is two to three time larger than humans olfactory bulb.
-Sheep has strong sense of smell that helps the sheep to acquire food.
Explanation:
- The size of the sheep brain is much smaller than humans but sheep has well developed olfactory bulb than humans. The human brain is more circular in shape whereas sheep brain is more extended.
- The well developed olfactory bulb in sheep helps the sheep to find the food. Sheep has strong sense of smell due to large olfactory bulb. Sheep can easily find the location of food located farway from it as the sheep has strong sense of smell.
True or False. Anaerobic glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria of the cell.
False
Explanation:
it occurs in cytoplasm
The client has been told to consume more omega-3 fatty acids. What food could the nurse say is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
a.avocado
b.fatty fish
c. oatmeal
d. whole wheat bread
Why the Omega-3 fatty acids are important?
Answer:
I believe that the answer is B. fatty fish.
Explanation:
Fatty fish has been proven in numerous studies to contain a lot of omega-3 fatty acids. This is why the fish oils are often prescribed in gels. Omega-3 fatty acids contain essential nutrients that help prevent and manage heart disease. It decreases the chance of cardiac deaths. It also can help your brain and can treat depression and anxiety. Omega-3 fatty acids can even help improve your vision. Hope this helps!
Answer:
The answer is Fatty Fish.
Explanation:
Which of the following salivary glands makes the enzyme salivary amylase?
(a) Submandibular
(b) Parotid
(c) Sublingual
(d) All of the above
Answer:
A. Submandibular
B. Parotid
Explanation:
The amylase is an enzyme that turns starch into sugars and is presented in the saliva of humans and other mammals. It begins the digestive process. Besides the salivary glands, the pancreas also produces it to help turn starch into sugar and convert that, with other enzymes, in glucose to supply the body with energy.
I hope this answer helps you.
Compare and contrast the two kingdoms of prokaryotes
Answer:
The two kingdoms of prokaryotes are kingdom archaea and eubacteria. Eubacteria
Eubacteria are the disease causing bacteria. They are more complex than archaea bacteria and are found almost everywhere. They are important to the ecosystem because they help with decomposition of materials. The defining feature of archaea bateria is its living environment. They thrive in environments with EXTREME temperatures. They can live in very hot or very cold areas.
Originally, prokaryotes were classified only in kingdom monera but new discoveries and technology led to the split.
How does the eye work?
Light passes through the cornea, aqueous humor and when it passes through the lens, it is converged. The light passes through the vitreous humor and focuses on the fovea region of the retina. The Retina has photopigment (cones and rods). They perceive light and convert it to electrical impulses that are carried by the optical never to the brain. The iris controls the amount of light that enters the eye.
The membrane surrounding a bone is the _________.
Answer:
endosteum
Explanation:
The membrane surrounding a bone is the endosteum.
The membrane surrounding a bone is the endosteum.