Answer:
Answer is A. returns.
Explanation:
Negative feedback is a situation where the result , outcome or end product of a system stabilize the input or stimulus of that same system.
Examples of negative feedback homeostasis and blood sugar regulation.
In blood sugar regulation, the glucagon tends to increase or raises the blood glucose when the level is low, while the insulin lower the blood glucose when the level is high.
Negative feedback mechanisms in physiological systems work to return a value back to its set point or normal limit by reversing changes, thereby maintaining stability in the system.
Explanation:In the context of physiological systems, the correct answer to the question would be 'A. returns'. Negative feedback mechanisms work to return a physiological value back to its set point or normal limit. This is because negative feedback systems act to counteract changes and maintain balance in the system. For example, if the body temperature rises, mechanisms such as sweating are initiated to decrease the temperature back to its normal limit. Thus, negative feedback works to maintain stability in a system by reversing any deviations from the set point.
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A cell whose cytoplasm has a concentration of 0.02 mo lar glucose is placed in a test tube of water containing 0.02 molar glucose. Assuming that glucose is not actively transported into the cell 26) . which of the following terms describes the tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell? A) hypertonic B) turgid C) isotonic D) flaccid E) hypotonic
Answer:
The correct answer is C) isotonic
Explanation:
In an isotonic condition, the osmotic pressure between two solutions which is separated by a semipermeable membrane remains the same. So as osmotic pressure remain the same in isotonic solution the net movement of any solute inside the cell is zero.
So here the concentration of glucose in the cytoplasm is 0.02 molar and in the tube of water which contains the cell is also 0.02. So the concentration is equal and glucose is not flowing actively therefore it will considered as an isotonic solution. So the correct answer is C.
The tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell is isotonic.
Explanation:The tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell can be determined by comparing the concentration of solute in the external solution to that in the cytoplasm. In this case, both the external solution and the cytoplasm have a concentration of 0.02 molar glucose, so the tonicity is isotonic. This means that the concentration of solute is equal inside and outside the cell, resulting in no net movement of water.
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Based on the model presented, which of the following statements expresses the proper relationship between osmolarity, ADH release, and urine production
Question: Based on the model presented, which of the following statements expresses the proper relationship between osmolarity, ADH release, and urine production?
(A) As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.
(B) As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.
(C) As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine.
(D) As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine.
Answer:
As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.
Explanation:
ADH is the hormone that triggers the formation of concentrated urine by stimulating the absorption of water from the filtrate in the kidneys. As the solute concentration (osmolarity) in the blood raises, the more of the ADH is released into the blood. ADH triggers reabsorption of water in collecting duct and distal tubules and thereby, reduces the water loss in urine. Increased reabsorption of water restores the osmolarity, blood volume, and blood pressure.
The role of central nervous system activity for the experience of pain is best highlighted by:_______.
a) prosopagnosia.
b) phantom limb sensations.
c) frequency theory.
d) perceptual adaptation.
e) the opponent-process theory.
Answer:
b) phantom limb sensations.
Explanation:
This is the experience of sensation and pain from limbs that no longer exist.It is a psychological problem which originated in the brain and spinal cord of Amputees.
The sensations disappeared naturally 2-years later.
The central nervous system's role in the experience of pain is emphasized by phantom limb sensations (Option B), where pain is perceived despite the absence of the limb, due to activity within the brain's neural circuitry. The propagation of signals along axon potentials and their processing in the brain highlights how pain perception can involve central mechanisms.
Explanation:The role of central nervous system activity for the experience of pain is best highlighted by phantom limb sensations. Phantom limb sensations are a phenomenon where individuals who have lost a limb still feel sensations, such as pain as if the limb were still present. This highlights the central nervous system's role in pain perception because the pain is derived not from the peripheral site of the amputated limb, but from the neural circuitry within the central nervous system itself.
Pain is a complex process that starts with nociception at sensory receptors and doesn't become the conscious perception of pain until it is communicated to the brain. Pain signals are transmitted by nociceptive pathways to different areas within the brain such as the thalamus and the somatosensory cortex for final processing. Perception of pain can be delayed due to the time taken for these signals to be propagated along the axon potential and reach the cerebral cortex. Various pathways indicate that pain can emerge even in the absence of actual physical stimuli, as seen in neuropathic pain or as a result of the central nervous system's activity, as is the case in phantom limb sensations.
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You notice that over the past month, many students on campus have started wearing a new style of school sweatshirt. You think to yourself that perhaps the bookstore has recently started selling this new sweatshirt style. This prediction is an example of A) an experimental question. B) a type of observation. C) a hypothesis. D) an experiment. E) a type of control.
Answer:
C) a hypothesis.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because a thought or a prediction is not equivalent to an experimental question.
Option B is incorrect because observation has to do with taking notes of happenings in the environment.
Option D is incorrect because the prediction is not a form of experiment.
Option E is not correct because controls are only useful during experiments.
The correct option is C.
Hypothesis is a tentative statement, a guess or a prediction that has not been tested by any experiment.
Name a degenerative joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue in the joint or organs.
Answer: Rheumatoid Arthritis
Explanation:
In patients suffering from rheumatoid arthritis, accumulation of urates occur in the joints due to the deficiency of a vital enzyme, as a result the immune system produces antibodies that attack these joints or organs where urates are found.
This eventually leads to inflammation & degeneration of the joints, characterized by painful swelling and stiffness
Which of the following sentences best descrives the difference between a global alignment and a local alignment between two sequences?
A) Global alignment is usually used for DNA, while local alignment is usually used for protein sequences.
B) Global alignmnet has gaps, while local alignments does not have gaps
C) Global alignment finds the global max, while the local alignment finds the local max.
D) Global alignment aligns the whole sequence, while local alignment finds the best sub-sequence that aligns
Answer:
The correct answer is option D.
Explanation:
A sequence or the arrangement of the DNA, protein, or RNA sequence to recognize the part that shows similarities due to the evolutionary, structural, or functional relation in between sequences.
There are two types of alignment techniques in bioinformatics one global and other local. Local alignment is more helpful as it is better in identifying dissimilar sequences that might contain regions of the similarities. Global alignment techniques align the whole sequence whereas local alignment aligns subsequences.
Thus, the correct answer is - option D.
The main difference between global and local alignment is that global alignment aligns the whole sequence, from end to end, while local alignment finds the best sub-sequence that aligns well, not necessarily aligning the entire sequence.
Explanation:The correct answer to the question is D) Global alignment aligns the whole sequence, while local alignment finds the best sub-sequence that aligns. In the field of bioinformatics, alignment refers to the process of identifying regions of similarity between two sequences, which could be DNA, RNA or proteins, to reveal the relationships between them.
In the context of global alignment, the entirety of both sequences is taken into account and aligned from end to end, often resulting in mismatches and gaps. This is best used when the sequences are of similar length and are suspected to have evolved from a common ancestor.
On the other hand, local alignment tries to find a region of one sequence that aligns well with a region of the other sequence - not necessarily the entire sequence. This is especially useful when the sequences are of different lengths or are suspected to contain domains or segments of similarity.
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Jason, a 12-year-old boy, was awakened suddenly by a loud crash. As he sat up in bed, straining to listen, his fright was revealed by his rapid breathing (hyperventilation), a breathing pattern effective in ridding the blood of CO2. At this point, was his blood pH rising or falling?
Answer:
The pH of blood remains same...
Explanation:
That's because of the action of Bi-Carbonate buffer present in our blood. when the CO2 starts to dissolve the pH of blood starts decreasing but then he removal of Carbonic Acid from blood by neutralization process render the pH of blood still at standard range.
The vice versa of above happens if the pH start to rise rapidly.
Jason's blood pH was rising because his hyperventilation was rapidly expelling CO2 from his blood, reducing the potential for acid formation and thus lowering acidity or increasing the pH level.
Explanation:When Jason was hyperventilating, his body was working to quickly expel CO2 (carbon dioxide) from his blood. Carbon dioxide in the blood can combine with water to form carbonic acid, a compound which can lower blood pH. Thus, by rapidly expelling CO2, Jason's body was reducing the potential for carbonic acid production, leading to lesser acidity or a higher pH level. So, at this point, his blood pH was rising.
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Place the steps involved in the process of bacterial transformation in the correct order. Drag the labels to the appropriate locations in this flowchart. Not all labels will be used. A. Donor cell forms a Donor cell lyses, Transformed DNA pairs with One strand of the Donor cell DNA Transformed D pilus through releasing pieces which DNA can be transferred. B. Recipient cell homologous binds to a receptor site on the recipient cell. C. Recombines with the recipient cell chromosome. D. Its chromosomedonor cell DNA is region on the recipient cell degraded into the environment. degraded
The steps involved in the process of bacterial transformation are: the donor cell forms a pilus, the donor cell lyses and releases DNA, the transformed DNA pairs with recipient cell DNA, and the transformed DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.
Explanation:The donor cell forms a pilus and brings the donor and recipient cells into contact.The donor cell lyses and releases pieces of DNA into the environment.The transformed DNA pairs with one strand of the recipient cell DNA.The transformed DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.You have entered a 5K race. As you finish the last 500 meters, your body has converted _____ energy to _____ energy, and has lost some of this energy as _____.
Answer:
First blank: Chemical potential energy
Second blank: Kinetic energy
Third blank: Heat.
Explanation:
Chemical potential energy is the energy for stored in the body system for work. It's stored inform of ions and these ions are released for biophysicochemical activities of the body.
However, the chemical potential energy is converted to kinetic energy, which is the energy for motion in the body.
Then, heat is lost to the external environment during conversation of chemical potential energy to kinetic energy (based on the law of thermodynamics).
If a healthy 6-year-old child (who does not have evidence of immunity to varicella) was exposed to a confirmed case of varicella 2 days ago, the correct action to take is:
a) Advise the parents that the child will likely develop varicella.
b) Administer antiviral medication (or refer the child to a health care provider who can administer antiviral medication).
c) Administer VZIG (or refer the child to a health care provider who can VZIG).
d) Administer varicella vaccine.
Administer varicella vaccine to the health 6-year old child (who does not have evidence of immunity to varicella) was exposed to a confirmed case of varicella 2 days ago.
Explanation:
It is seen that if a child receives varicella vaccine between 3 to 5 days of exposure, he is safe as disease will not appear in him and would be saved for future infections.
Varicella vaccine is given for prevention against small pox. It is expected once immunised with varicella body will produce antibodies for a span of twenty years or more.
Explain how heredity plays a role in the traits we receive from our parents.
Heredity involves the transmission of genetic traits from parents to offspring, determined by a combination of dominant and recessive alleles. Heritability considers both genetic and environmental factors, recognizing a reciprocal interaction between them. Gregor Mendel's foundational work established modern understanding of genetic inheritance patterns.
Understanding Heredity in Human Traits:
Heredity plays a crucial role in the transmission of traits from parents to their offspring. This process is governed by genetics, which is the scientific study of heredity. Children receive 50% of their genes from the mother's egg cell and the remaining 50% from the father's sperm cell, resulting in a unique combination of genetic information called a genotype. These genes are composed of dominant and recessive alleles, which contribute to the offspring's physical and psychological traits. For example, eye color, height, and certain personality traits are directly influenced by the combination of genes inherited from both parents.
Moreover, the concept of heritability explains the variation in individual characteristics, which is determined by the interaction between genetic and environmental factors. Instead of a black-and-white division between nature and nurture, it is now recognized that there is a reciprocal interaction between an individual's genes and their environment. Research supports the idea that many traits, including personality characteristics and political attitudes, have a genetic component, but are also shaped by environmental influences.
The foundation of modern genetics can be attributed to Gregor Mendel, who through his work with garden peas, laid down the patterns of inheritance that form the basis of our understanding of heredity today. In summary, while the genetic traits we inherit from our parents set the framework for who we are, our environment plays a significant role in shaping how these traits are expressed and developed throughout our lives.
A client was admitted for treatment of the symptoms of bipolar disorder after failing to comply with community treatment and continuing to expose their sexual partners to a sexually transmitted form of hepatitis. The court appointed a guardian because this client was not able to understand the consequences of the decisions being made. What term describes the status of this client?
Answer:
Legally incompetent
Explanation:
A client is said to be legally incompetent if the client is unable to understand the consequences of the decisions.When a client is legally incompetent then a guardian is appointed for the client. Legally incompetent can arise due to not being fit physically or mentally to take decisions and stand trials. In the given case, the client has bipolar disorder and thus, he is mentally considered to be unfit to take his own decisions or stand trials and this is the reason that the client is considered to be legally incompetent and the court has appointed a guardian for the client.The term describing the status of a client with bipolar disorder who was hospitalized involuntarily after failing to follow community treatment is 'involuntary hospitalization'. This is often the case when an individual's behaviors are a threat to themselves or others, and they are unable to comprehend the ramifications of their actions.
The term describes the status of a client who was admitted for treatment of the symptoms of bipolar disorder after failing to comply with community treatment and exposing their sexual partners to a sexually transmitted form of hepatitis, and for whom the court appointed a guardian due to their inability to understand the consequences of their decisions, is involuntary hospitalization. This status is often necessary when an individual exhibits behaviors that are antisocial, illegal, or physically threatening to themselves or others, such as during severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. During such episodes, individuals might not recognize their illness or the need for treatment, leading to dangerous situations that warrant legal or medical intervention to protect both the individual and the community.
Bipolar disorder is a psychological disorder characterized by significant mood swings, including periods of mania or euphoria and depression, with intervals of near-normal mood in between. Without appropriate management and compliance with treatment, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience rapid cycling between these mood states, increasing the likelihood of engaging in risky behaviors and ultimately requiring more drastic measures like involuntary hospitalization.
When an infant is upset, a caregiver's soothing actions influence the infant's neurobiological regulation of emotions and lower the level of stress hormones.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Infants unlike children of higher age and adults carry emotional baggage and distress and are unable to come out of that without assistance of elders. Therefore, a care giver has to take care of fulfilling the emotional requirement of infants by adopting and using soothing strategies such as hugging, careful touch etc.
An infant has undeveloped and un-specialized anterior cingulate cortex which plays an essential role in acting as an interface between cognition and emotion. Therefore, soothing actions and strategies help an infant from dealing with his/her emotional distress.
Hence, the given statement is true
A group of students is reviewing material about endocrine system function. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they identify which of the following is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
a. Glucocorticoids
b. Mineralocorticoids
c. Glucagon
d. Epinephrine
Answer:
d. Epinephrine
Explanation:
The adrenal glands which are located at the top of each kidney are made up of two parts: the cortex and the medulla.
The adrenal cortex is the outer part of the adrenal gland, while the inner part is the adrenal medulla.
The adrenal medulla has tissues that are composed of popstganglionic sympathetic nervous system neurons which are involved in stimulating the medulla to secrete the epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones.
Epinephrine functions to increase cardiac output and increase level of glucose in the blood when the body is exposed to threat or stress.
If a closed container contains a mouse as well as enough food, water, and oxygen for the mouse to live for three weeks, how much will the container weigh 1 and 2 weeks later after the mouse has eaten, drunk, and exercised (respiration is CO2CO2 emission)?
Answer:
The life process may be defined as the different process that are important for the sustenance of life. The most important life process are nutrition, respiration, excretion and transportation.
If the mouse is placed in the closed sealed container then the weight will remain before and after the experiment of 1 or 2 week. This is because the life process metabolic reactions will use and conserve all the atoms involved in the life process. These atoms can exist in the liquid, solid and gas forms but present inside the container.
when does the paramecium pump out more water, when there is a high salt concentration or when there is a low salt concentration surrounding the paramecium?
Answer:
The correct answer is- when there is a low salt concentration
Explanation:
Water moves through osmosis which means water moves from an area having low solute concentration to an area having high solute concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
So in a hypotonic solution, the concentration of solute in the environment surrounding the paramecium will be low than in paramecium which allows water to move inside paramecium.
The more the water moves in the paramecium the more water will be pumped by the contractile vacuole present in the paramecium. Therefore the correct answer is- when there is a low salt concentration.
The paramecium pumps out more water when there is a low salt concentration surrounding it.
Explanation:The paramecium pumps out more water when there is a low salt concentration surrounding it. This is because paramecium is a freshwater organism and has a higher concentration of solutes inside its body compared to its external environment. To maintain osmotic balance, paramecium expels water when the external salt concentration is low. In contrast, when the salt concentration is high outside the paramecium, water tends to move out of the organism. As a result, the paramecium does not need to actively pump out water because the external environment already aids in reaching osmotic balance.
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When Avery and his colleagues had obtained the transforming factor from the IIIS virulent cells, they treated the fraction with proteases, ribonuclease, and deoxyribonuclease, followed by the assay for retention or loss of transforming ability.
What was the purpose of these experiments?
Answer:
to find out the exact molecular species of the transforming principle
Explanation:
As demonstrated by Avery and his colleagues, their aim and purpose is to find out an determine the exact molecular species of the transforming principle.
In the quest to find out, they obtained IIIS virulent cells and treated the fraction with proteases, ribonuclease and deoxyribonulease.
The purpose of these treatment was to hydrolyze peptide bonds of proteins, cleave RNA and catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage of phosphodiester linkages in the DNA backbone of the virus cell, thus degrading the DNA in the virus cell respectively.
This process was followed by assay for retention or loss of transforming ability. We can see that it is glaring that the purpose of these experiment was to find out the exact molecular species of the transforming principle.
_______ is the pressure waves passing through the perilymph of the cochlea compress the vestibular membrane
Answer: A
Explanation: I had a test and I got A so if should be right but if it’s not I am really sry
In pea plants, T is the allele for tall plants, while t is the allele for dwarf plants. If you have a tall plant, demonstrate with a test cross how it could be determined if the plant is homozygous tall or heterozygous tall?
Answer:
Explanation:since T- represent tallness
t-dwarf plant
TT- means the plant is homozygous tall i.e the allele T is the same 100% talk
Tt- means the plant is heterozygote tall which implied that though this plant express tallness its still have gene for shortness hidden in its cell and if crossed with a plant that is dwarf some of the offspring will be dwarf.
From the test cross all the gametes are heterozyote - Tt Tt Tt Tt
Women who use birth control pills are more likely to develop pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), iron-deficiency anemia, and osteoporosis than women who use other forms of contraception. True or false?
Answer:
False. Women who use birth control pills are not most likely to develop PID, anemia and osteoprosis.
Explanation:
Birth control pills are basically used to prevent pregnancy. Birth control pills work by preventing ovulation. No egg is produced, so there is nothing for the sperm to fertilize. Hence, pregnancy cannot occur.
Major side effects of birth control pills are
1)intermenstrual spotting
2)nausea
3)breast tenderness
4)headaches and migraine
5)weight gain
6) mood changes
7)missed periods
8)decreased libido
9)vaginal discharge
The claim that women using birth control pills are more likely to develop PID, iron-deficiency anemia, and osteoporosis than those using other forms of contraception is false. PID is mostly caused by untreated STIs, not contraceptive use, and there is no straightforward link between birth control pills and anemia or osteoporosis.
Explanation:The statement is false. Women who use birth control pills do face certain health risks, but the claim that they are more likely to develop Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID), iron-deficiency anemia, and osteoporosis than women using other forms of contraception is not entirely accurate. While birth control pills can be associated with health risks such as blood clots, particularly with the combined pill which contains both estrogen and progesterone, this does not directly correlate with an increased risk of PID. PID is primarily caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs), not the use of birth control pills. Additionally, the pills do not directly cause iron-deficiency anemia or osteoporosis. The pills may impact menstrual flow and, therefore, iron levels, but any association with anemia is not straightforward. Similarly, there is no clear evidence that birth control pills increase the risk of developing osteoporosis; in fact, the estrogen in combined pills may have a protective effect on bone density.
Researchers investigated the effect of urea on the three-dimensional structure of a certain enzyme. The researchers dissolved the enzyme in an aqueous buffer solution and added urea to the solution. The enzyme did not appear to have a secondary or tertiary structure. The researchers carefully removed the urea from the solution and determined that the enzyme had the original secondary and tertiary structure again.Based on the results of the experiment, which of the following statements best predicts the effect of urea on the enzyme’s function?1. Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea.2. Function will be disrupted by adding the urea, but it will not be regained by removing the urea.3. Function will be gained by adding the urea and disrupted by removing the urea.4. Function will be unaffected by the addition and removal of the urea.
Answer:
Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea.
Explanation:
The protein is one of the important biomolecule made of the polymers of the alpha amino acids that are linked together by peptide bonds. The protein works at their specific pH.
Denaturants disrupt the 3 dimensional structure of protein that affect their normal functioning. In the given experiment, the urea acts as denaturant and disrupt the protein structure. The removal of urea will reverse the denaturant condition and protein gain its function.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Answer:
A. Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea.
Explanation:
Based on the information, adding the urea denatures the enzyme, which will disrupt the enzyme’s function by disrupting the active site. In contrast, removing the urea causes the enzyme to refold, which will restore the active site and the enzyme’s function.
I also got this question correct so I am sure.
A shipment of frozen fish arrives at your food establishment. You see that the outside bottoms of the shipping cartons have too much ice and the fish fillets held within the cartons have brown edges. These are signs of:__________.
Answer:
The options
A. Thawing and refreezing
B. Safe, high quality seafood
C. Seafood that has been kept in frozen storage too long
D. Seafood that has been blast chilled
The CORRECT ANSWER IS A.
A. Thawing and refreezing
Explanation:
The fish fillets held within the cartons have notable excessive brown edges and The outside bottoms of the shipping cartons having too much ice that is visible. This pinpoint to thawing and refreezing.
It is still permitted to refreeze thawed fish at home under standard at-home practice but it is not acceptable at shipping as it shows the fish wasn't stored in a
Cold condition without addressing how long it has been kept out of the cold condition. In addition, apparent damage to the fish affects its salability by lowering it.
Bonus tips:
Indicator of freshness to check for when purchasing fish:
Uniformly frozen,
no ice crystals
The colour of the fish should be bright and glossy
Ensure the wrapping is well tight and not damaged during the course of packaging.
The shipment of frozen fish has signs of freezer burn, which occurs when the freezing process is inadequate and the food is not properly protected from air. This condition leads to dehydration of the fish and quality loss. The freezing process must be carefully controlled to prevent such issues.
A shipment of frozen fish with excessive ice on the shipping cartons and fish fillets that have brown edges are signs of freezer burn. This indicates that the freezing time target was not met, and the freezing process must be modified. When fish is packaged in cardboard, the freezing process takes longer than when the product is not packaged. Freezer burn often results from dehydration due to air reaching the food, which sublimates the water from the frozen fish, leading to a mottled appearance and potential loss of texture and flavor. To prevent freezer burn, it is important to lower the freezer's temperature and tightly wrap products to minimize the availability of space for water to sublime. In addition, slow freezing processes can cause cell-wall damage and rupturing due to the formation of large ice crystals, further compromising the quality of the frozen fish, and potentially leading to product weight losses ranging from 4% to 10%.
If you found a singled-celled organism with a nucleus, circular chromosomes, and the ability to live in extremely salty habitats, you would classify it as a member of the Eukarya. True or false?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Carl Woese suggested the classification system in which he divided the organisms into three domains: Archaebacteria, Eubacteria and the Eukaryotes.
In this domain, the domain archaebacteria are the domain which comprises of the organisms which share features of the other two domains.
In the given question, the provided characteristic features like the circular chromosome is a feature of the prokaryote, the habitat is extremely salty which is a characteristic feature of the archaebacteria but the presence of nucleus is a characteristic feature of the eukarya but the prokaryotes do not possess a well-defined nucleus but they possess nucleus like envelope.
Since the eukaryotes do not possess circular chromosomes therefore false is the correct answer.
"Lena has a spiral fracture of her tibia just above where her ski boot ends. What is a spiral fracture, and why might this be a common injury to the tibia in skiing
Answer:
Spiral fracture is a torsion fracture
Explanation:
A spiral fracture is a type of bone fracture that happens when a rotating force (torque) is exerted along the axis of a bone. This fracture occurs mostly in bodily motions and is caused by a twisting force while one leg is fixed and the other is rotated along the axis.
The tibia is a larger and stronger bone, situated at the anterior part of the two bones in the leg below the knee region. The tibia provide support to body weight.
During Skiing (a sport recreational activities by the aid of using skis to glide on snow), a rotating force is (torque) is exerted along the axis of this tibia bone which is common and capable of causing injury to the tibia when skiing.
A brain imaging study showed that, in healthy children, peak cortical thickness occurred around the age of 7.5 years, and in children with ADHD, on average around 10.5 years. This finding implies that children with ADHD ____.
a. will never catch up with their same-age peers.b. can be expected to lag behind their same-age peers in some tasks but will eventually experience improvement.c. can be expected to go through puberty approximately 3 years behind their same-age peers.d. will never be as intelligent as their same-age peers.
Answer:
The correct answer would be option B.
Explanation:
In neural antomy, cortical thickness is the morphomateric calculation or measurement of the brain that provide the information about the overall thickness of the various layers of the cerebral cortex.
The normal range of the peak cortical thickness is around 7.5 to 8 which means that the same age group kids brain is develop at this age where is in ADHD child it is found according to the question is 10.5 years, which means he is taking 3 years extra to develop the cortex of the brain which means he would be slow in comparison to the similarly age group kids but will improve with the time.
Thus, the correct answer would - option B.
You memorize a series of numbers by grouping them into sets of three and thinking of these sets as area codes. This is an example of:
Answer:
The correct answer is chunking.
Explanation:
Chunking is a term signifying the procedure of taking single pieces of information or chunks and aligning them into bigger units. By aligning each piece into a large whole, one can better the amount of data one can remember.
Generally, the most common illustration of chunking takes place in phone numbers. By distinguishing dissimilar single elements into bigger blocks, information becomes easier to recall and retain.
Animal cells are surrounded by a(n) ________________, whereas plant cells are also surrounded by a(n) ________________ .
a) nuclear membrane; endomembrane
b) endomembrane; cell wall plasma
c) membrane; cell wall plasma
d) membrane; endomembrane
Answer:
The correct answer is c) plasma membrane; cell wall
Explanation:
Animal and plant cell is eukaryotic cells which means they both contain membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelle. There are some difference in plant cell and animal cell.
The main difference is that the animal cell is surrounded by a cell membrane and it lacks a cell wall but plant cell is surrounded by a cell wall which is made up of cellulose. Cell membrane is present beneath the cell wall in plant cells.
Cell wall helps in protecting the plant cell from bursting in a hypotonic environment. Therefore the correct answer is c.
Animal cells are encased by a membrane which regulates interactions with the environment, while plant cells also possess a cell wall for extra protection and structure.
Explanation:Animal cells are surrounded by a(n) membrane, whereas plant cells are also surrounded by a(n) cell wall. The membrane, or cell membrane, is a thin layer that separates the cell from its external environment, regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell. It's present in both animal and plant cells. However, plant cells have an additional layer known as the cell wall, which provides extra protection and structural support to the cell that animal cells lack.
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One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs? A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans
Answer:
C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
Explanation:
siRNAs are the small interfering RNAs that do not serve as a template during the process of protein synthesis. These RNA molecules are double-stranded and have about 23 nucleotides in total. siRNAs control the expression of genes that selectively inhibiting the mRNAs. They control gene expression at the post-transcriptional level by selectively cleaving mRNA molecules that have the nucleotide sequences complementary to the siRNA.
The siRNA molecules can be used to selectively inhibit the expression of the allele for an autosomal dominant disorder. This selective inactivation of the allele associated with the disease would help to control the corresponding genetic disorder.
Why does the electrical impulse that simulates heart contraction first travel down to the bottom of the heart, and then stimulates contraction from the bottom of the ventricles upwards?
Answer:
This happens to squeeze out blood completely, else the heart may not function properly
Explanation:
The electrical impulses are carried by bundle of His and send to the bottom of the heart via purkyne fibers. This happens in order to spread the impulse from the atrio-ventricular node to the sides of the ventricles. Now in the next round of impulse causes the ventricles to contract and squeeze out all the blood from the ventricles. If this does not happen then the heart will not be able to perform to its full capacity. Atria may also not release its entire blood into the ventricles.
Anaphylactic shock is an immediate allergic response. Why is anaphylactic shock a medical emergency?
Answer:
Severe allergic response causes fluid loss from the blood, breathing difficulty and therefore, is life threatening.
Explanation:
The anaphylactic shock results from the type I allergic reactions during which the presence of an allergen triggers a severe response. It occurs since IgE antibodies are already present in the body. There is a release of histamine and other vasodilators. Vasodilation and increased permeability of the blood capillaries result in the loss of fluid from the blood. Constriction of airways of the lungs causes difficulty in breathing and weakens the heartbeat. Therefore, severe fluid loss from blood and constricted airways make it life-threatening.
Answer:
You will lose blood, and not be able to lead, which could result in death.