Answer:D
Explanation:decomposition of dead plants and animals.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
edit: yup its c i just did the test and got it right
Which of the following membranes is correctly matched to its function? (A) allantois .. food absorption (B) yolk sac .. embryonic bladder (C) amnion .. gas exchange (D) dura mater .. brain protection (E) peritoneum .. heart protection
Answer:
The only correct answer is D) dura mater ..brain protection
Explanation:
Allantois helps the embryo exchange gases and handle liquid waste, it does not do food absorption, yolk sac is not embryonic bladder, chorion does the gas exchange not amnion, peritoneum is the abdominal protection not heart.
Many exergonic reactions fail to happen at a reasonable rate (e.g. conversion of diamonds to charcoal). This is due to the fact that their activation energy may be too high to overcome. Which of the following correctly describes the reason for this
O The free energy of the transition state is much lower than the free energy of the reactants
O The free energy of the transition state is much higher than the free energy of the reactants.
Many exergonic reactions fail to happen at a reasonable rate (e.g. conversion of diamonds to charcoal). This is due to the The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction needs time to interact chemically with the substrate(s).
The interaction between the enzyme and substrate(s) involve a decrease in entropy, which can't happen input of energy
Answer:
The correct answer is "The free energy of the transition state is much higher than the free energy of the reactants".
Explanation:
Activation vitality is the base measure of vitality required to begin a concoction response. The wellspring of this initiation vitality is generally the warmth from the encompassing. An Enzyme builds the pace of a compound response by bringing down its actuation vitality.
During a compound response, new bonds are made and old ones are broken. Since the bonds are vitality putting away , this prompts arrival of vitality when broken, However, To get the particles into a state where their bonds can be broken, the atom ought to be mad. To accomplish this shape, Activation vitality is required, which is a high-vitality flimsy state.
Because of the above explanation, cells at time couple exergonic reaction(\DeltaG<0) with endergonic reaction(\DeltaG>0), permitting them to continue. This is known as vitality coupling and is unconstrained. At the point when the exergonic response discharges free vitality, consumed by the endergonic response.
Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding cytokinesis in animal cells. Choose the correct answer represented by a four-letter string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. TFFF.( ) The force for cytokinesis is generated by kinesin motors on microtubule bundles that form the contractile ring.( ) As the contractile ring constricts, its thickness increases to keep a constant volume.( ) The midbody forms from bundles of actin and myosin II.( ) Local activation of Ran GTPase triggers the assembly and contraction of the contractile ring.A FTFTB FFTFC FTFFD FFFTE FFFF
Explanation of true and false statements regarding cytokinesis in animal cells. A FTFT is the correct option.
FTFT
The correct answer sequence is FTFT:
True: The force for cytokinesis in animal cells is generated by kinesin motors on microtubule bundles that form the contractile ring.
False: As the contractile ring constricts, its thickness does not increase to keep a constant volume.
True: The midbody forms from bundles of actin and myosin II.
False: Local activation of Ran GTPase does not trigger the assembly and contraction of the contractile ring.
The answer is option D: FFFF, as explained in the detailed response regarding the statements related to cytokinesis in animal cells.
The correct answer is option D: FFFF.
Let's break down each statement:
(F) The force for cytokinesis is generated by kinesin motors on microtubule bundles that form the contractile ring. This statement is false because the force is mainly generated by myosin II motors on actin filaments.(F) As the contractile ring constricts, its thickness increases to keep a constant volume. This statement is false; the thickness of the ring decreases as it contracts.(F) The midbody forms from bundles of actin and myosin II. This statement is false; the midbody contains microtubules and other proteins but not actin and myosin II.(F) Local activation of Ran GTPase triggers the assembly and contraction of the contractile ring. This statement is false; Rho GTPase, not Ran GTPase, plays a crucial role in activating the contractile ring.Complete question is-
Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding cytokinesis in animal cells. Choose the correct answer represented by a four-letter string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. TFFF.
( ) The force for cytokinesis is generated by kinesin motors on microtubule bundles that form the contractile ring.
( ) As the contractile ring constricts, its thickness increases to keep a constant volume.
( ) The midbody forms from bundles of actin and myosin II.
( ) Local activation of Ran GTPase triggers the assembly and contraction of the contractile ring.
A. FTFT
B. FFTF
C. FTFF
D. FFFF
One of the first diagnostic tools used at the hospital was an electrocardiogram (EKG or ECG), which reflects the electrical activity of the cardiac muscle. We know that the atria contract first (the P wave) and then, after a brief delay, the ventricles contract (the QRS complex). Given that the heart does not have any nerves to stimulate the cardiac muscle cells, how is the timing of contraction coordinated? How do action potentials get from muscle cell to muscle cell? If the EKG shows a long delay between the P wave and the QRS complex, which type of cardiac tissue might have been damaged?
Answer:
The heart has an intrinsic conduction system that causes electrical activity in the heart muscles causing them to contract. The intrinsic conduction system is made up specialized cells, that contain nerve and muscular characteristics.The muscle cells in the heart are linked together by gap junctions, allowing cardiac action potentials to travel from one muscle cell to another.Atrioventricular (AV) node. The damage to the AV node causes the electrical signals traveling from the upper chambers to the lower chambers to be impaired causing an AV block.Explanation:
Scientists construct an experimental bacteriophage that is composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T3 phage DNA. If a bacterium is infected by this phage, the new phages produced would be expected to have:
Explanation:
A bacteriophage is an infection that attacks bacteria. At the point when the tail strands identify an objective host the bacteriophage to the cell, injected its DNA, and utilizations the microscopic organisms' apparatus to reproduce. T4 is a sort of bacteriophage that infects of E. coli. The bacteriophage T4 capsid is a prolonged icosahedron, 120 nm long and 86 nm wide, and is worked with three essential proteins such as gp23*, which shapes the hexagonal capsid cross section, gp24*, which structures pentamers at eleven of the twelve vertices. gp20, which frames the extraordinary dodecameric entry vertex through which DNA. T4 DNA Ligase is ligation catalyst which utilized the parts of DNA by the catalyzing between compared 5'phosphate and 3' hydroxyl ends and phosphodiester bonds in the double stranded DNA utilizing ATP as a coenzyme.A rare recessive allele inherited in a Mendelian manner causes the disease cystic fibrosis. A phenotypically normal man whose father had cystic fibrosis marries a phenotypically normal woman from outside the family, and the couple consider having children. a.) draw the pedigree as far as described? b.) If the frequency in the population of heterozygotes for cystic fibrosis is 1 in 50, what is the chance the couples first child will have cystic fibrosis? c.) If the first child does have cystic fibrosis, what is the probability that the second child will be normal?
Answers:
a.) draw the pedigree as far as described?
Pedigree:
C/– c/c
C/c C/–
?
b.) If the frequency in the population of heterozygotes for cystic fibrosis is 1 in 50, what is the chance the couples first child will have cystic fibrosis?
Man: has the disease
Wife: 1/50 chance to have the c allele
First child: 1.0 x 1/50 x 1/4 = 1/200 = 0.005
c.) If the first child does have cystic fibrosis, what is the probability that the second child will be normal?
If the first child has the disease, then the mother is a carrier of the
c allele. In consequence, the probability is 3/4
The infants in the strange situation who waver as they move from mother to toys, are hesitant to explore, are cautious when meeting the stranger, are very upset when mother leaves, and push their mother away at the reunion are the category of
Answer:
Insecurely attached.
Explanation:
Infants that are insecurely attached have learned that adults are not to be trusted. Children who have had negative encounters with their caregivers tend to develop insecure attachment.
Children with insecure attachment refuse to associate with others, show fear and anger.
All of the following are autotrophs EXCEPT (Multiple answers possible) a mushroom. the algae living inside a lichen. a giant redwood. a kangaroo. a cyanobacterium.
Autotrophs make their own food from light or chemical energy. In the given list, a mushroom and a kangaroo are not autotrophs, they are heterotrophs, needing to consume other organisms for energy. On the other hand, the algae inside a lichen, a giant redwood, and a cyanobacterium are autotrophs.
Explanation:In the provided choices, a mushroom and a kangaroo are not autotrophs. The term Autotroph refers to organisms that can produce their own food using inorganic materials and energy from the sun or from inorganic chemical reactions, a process known as photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. Examples are the algae living inside a lichen or a cyanobacterium. Redwood trees are autotrophs as well, as they photosynthesize. In contrast, mushrooms, which are fungi, and kangaroos, which are animals, are heterotrophs. Heterotrophs cannot produce their own food and must consume other organisms for energy.
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The DNA sequence below is transcribed completely to generate anmRNA. The mRNA is then translated to synthesize a protein.On which strand is thelongestopen reading frame (ORF)?
Answer:
The ORF open reading frame is an RNA sequence that is located between the start codon and the termination codon, bounded by untranslated sequences or UTR.
Explanation:
For the translation of an mRNA into a protein, a reading frame is required. This framework allows the division of the mRNA sequence into different codons during translation. The start codon is the main signal, since the translation starts at the start codon, this position allows the mRNA to read in the appropriate frame.
4. Celery has very small flowers clustered into an inflorescence called an umbel. Based on what you noted about flower morphology in the sunflower and the iris, what do you predict would be the morphology of an individual celery flower? (1 pt)
Answer:
Compound Umbel.
Explanation:
Celery is more of an annual crop which is a herbaceous plant usually 60 to 120 cm high with white Flowers.
The Celery plant belongs to the Apiaceae and they are known to be mainly Annual.
Morphology or the shape of the Celery plant is that of a Compound Umbel, in which all Umbel inflorescences arises from a common point and appears to be at the same level.They change from
elongated axes (racemes and panicles) to flattened axes (corymbs and umbels) which results in inflorescences thereby making the flowers been arranged closely together. This close association encourages efficient pollination,and the extreme condensation of the inflorescences, as in the
head, gives rise to an inflorescence that appears
to be a single flower and example of such happen to be the sunflowers commonly found around us.
Answer:
I would predict that celery flower would have a petals of four(4) or five (5)
Explanation:
You are studying a plieotrophic gene in dogs. One trait governed by this gene is tail length. For this trait the T allele is associated with normal length tails and the t allele is associated with short tails. The other trait governed by T/t is viability. In this case, T is associated with normal growth and development; whereas t is associated with embryonic loss of viability. In both cases T is completely dominant to t. You cross two dogs that are Tt heterozygotes. What ratio of offspring do you expect to see as a result of this cross?
a. 3 dogs with short tails : 1 dog with normal tail
b. 2 dogs with normal tails : 1 dog with short tail
c. 3 dogs with normal tails : 1 dog with short tail
d. 2 dogs with short tails : 1 dog with normal tail
e. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: 1 dog will be homozygote TT (is homozygote for normal tail length), 2 dogs will be heterozygous Tt (is the gene for embryonic loss of viability with short taill will be recessive or masked by the dominant T. While 1 dog will be homoxygote gene for TT(homozygote gene for embryonic loss of viability with short still.
3 dogs will altogether have normal tail while one will have short tail.
Final answer:
When crossing two Tt heterozygotes in dogs, where T is dominant and associated with normal tail length and viability, the expected viable offspring ratio deviates from the classic Mendelian due to the lethality of the tt genotype, leading to an answer of 'e. None of the above'.
Explanation:
You are studying a pleiotrophic gene in dogs where the T allele is associated with normal tail length and viability, and the t allele is linked to short tails and reduced embryonic viability, with T being completely dominant to t. When crossing two Tt heterozygotes, considering T's complete dominance and its effects on viability, it is expected to see a different outcome than a classic Mendelian 3:1 ratio due to the lethality associated with the tt genotype.
Typically, a Tt x Tt cross would produce a genotypic ratio of 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt. However, since tt results in embryonic loss, those offspring would not be viable, effectively removing them from the postnatal population. Thus, the expected offspring ratio, considering only the viable outcomes, would be 1 TT : 2 Tt, which phenotypically presents as 3 dogs with normal tails (and normal development) to every 0 dogs with short tails (since the short-tailed genotype is lethal). So, none of the presented options accurately reflect the scenario described, making the correct answer e. None of the above.
Colored aleurone in the kernels of corn is due to the dominant allele R. The recessive allele r, when homozygous, produces colorless aleurone. The plant color (not the kernel color) is controlled by another gene with two alleles, Y and y. The dominant Y allele results in green color, whereas the homozygous presence of the recessive yallele causes the plant to appear yellow. In a testcross between a plant of unknown genotype and phenotype and a plant that is homozygous recessive for both traits, the following progeny were obtained:Colored, green 88Colored, yellow 12Colorless, green 8Colorless, yellow 92Based on the data, what can you say about the genotype of the unknown plant?A. It was heterozygous for one gene, and homozygous for the other.B. It was homozygous for both genes.C. It was heterozygous for both genes.
Answer: C. It was heterozygous for both genes.
Explanation: To produce a generation that has individuals with trait for colored aleurone in the kernels, the plant being analised has to have a dominant allele R. In the same way, to have offspring with the recessive trait, it has to carry the recessive allele r. So, the unknown plant has to be heterozygous for colored aleurone in the kernels, Rr.
The same thought can be applied to plant color: Since there are green and yellow plants, the unknown plant has to be heterozygous for that trait, Yy.
In conclusion, the unknown plant is heterozygous for both genes.
An enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics has a KM value of 20.0 μM and a kcat value of 231 s−1. At an initial enzyme concentration of 0.0100 μM, the initial reaction velocity was found to be 1.07×10−6 μM/s. What was the initial concentration of the substrate, [S], used in the reaction ?
The initial substrate concentration was 0.52 μM.
We can apply the Michaelis-Menten equation to solve for the initial substrate concentration ([S]):
v = (Vmax * [S]) / (KM + [S])
where:
v is the initial reaction velocity (1.07 × 10^-6 μM/s)
Vmax is the maximum reaction velocity (determined by kcat and enzyme concentration)
KM is the Michaelis-Menten constant (20.0 μM)
[S] is the initial substrate concentration (unknown)
Step 1: Calculate Vmax based on kcat and enzyme concentration:
Vmax = kcat * [E] = 231 s^-1 * 0.0100 μM = 2.31 μM/s
Step 2: Rearrange the Michaelis-Menten equation to solve for [S]:
[S] = (v * KM) / (Vmax - v)
Step 3: Substitute known values and solve for [S]:
[S] = (1.07 × 10^-6 μM/s * 20.0 μM) / (2.31 μM/s - 1.07 × 10^-6 μM/s) ≈ 0.52 μM
Therefore, the initial concentration of the substrate ([S]) used in the reaction was approximately 0.52 μM.
Imagine you are cutting a bagel (one of the most common household injuries) and you get a cut. The cut heals. How do the new cells compare to the original (pre-cut) cells
Answer:
The new cells are the same as the previous ones, since they are the result of the mitosis process.
Explanation:
When we cut our skin, our brain sends information to millions of cells to take action and prevent this cut from putting us in danger. At that moment, the blood cells begin their work, supplying enough oxygen to stop possible bleeding and start the healing process. Then another group of cells swap out possible bacteria that may be trying to get into the wound. Last but not least, skin cells enter cell division and undergo mitosis, to generate new cells and create a new skin layer.
New cells are the same as old cells, as they are the result of mitosis. Mitosis is the process of cell division where one cell gives rise to two cells exactly the same as it.
The new cells should be the same as the previous ones, because they are the result of the mitosis process.
What is the mitosis process ?
Mitosis refers to the process where a eukaryotic cell nucleus divides in two, followed by the division of the parent cell into two daughter cells. Also, it is the process of cell division where one cell gives rise to two cells exactly the similar it is.
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When you scratch a mosquito bite, you damage some cells. Damaged cells release histamine, which causes localized swelling. The swelling can crush cells, causing them to release more histamine. This is an example of
Answer:
of a cycle where scratching will cause even more of an itchy sensation
Answer:
Positive feedback.
Explanation:
Positive feedback is a process in which the end product of an action cause more of that action to occur in a feedback loop.
Inflammation is thhe local reaction of bodily tissues to injury caused by physical damage , infection or due to any allergic reaction. Injured tissue mast cells release histamine, which causes surrounding blood vessels to dilate and increase permeability. This allows fluid and cells of immune system to leak from bloodstream through vessel walls and migrate to site of tissue injury or infection where they fight infection and heal injured tissues.
Picornaviruses can avoid detection by synthesizing virally induced vesicles, or replication complexes, formed from the Choose one: A. Golgi apparatus. B. nuclear membrane. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. lysosome.
Answer:
Option-C
Explanation:
Picornaviruses is the virion or naked particles which cause many animal and human infections.
The mechanism of their action is not explained in detail till now but it has been predicted on the basis of certain research that the virus escapes the immune response by enclosing themselves in the lipid membrane-enclosed vesicles formed by the host cells.
These vesicles are produced by the cells during certain physiological mechanisms from the endoplasmic reticulum of the cells.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
The production of a continuous new strand of DNA using the many separate Okazaki fragments (in other words, the joining of the already made fragments) found on the lagging strand requires all of the following except which one?
A. nuclease
B. ATP
C. repair polymerase
D. DNA primase
E. DNA ligase
Answer:B
Explanation:
because if we strand dna we wouldnt have genes
Production of continuous new strand of DNA using Okazaki fragments found on lagging strand requires following components: ATP, repair polymerase, DNA primase, and DNA ligase,thus correct options are all except A.
1. ATP: ATP provides the energy necessary for the synthesis of DNA. It is required during the formation of phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides, which link them together to form the new DNA strand.
2. Repair polymerase: Repair polymerase, also known as DNA polymerase I, is responsible for replacing the RNA primers used in DNA replication with DNA nucleotides. It removes the RNA primers and fills in the gaps with complementary DNA nucleotides.
3. DNA primase: DNA primase synthesizes short RNA primers that provide a starting point for DNA synthesis. These primers are required for DNA polymerase to initiate DNA synthesis.
4. DNA ligase: DNA ligase is an enzyme that seals the gaps between the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand. It catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides, joining the fragments together to form a continuous DNA strand.
Based on this information, the correct answer is A. nuclease. Nuclease is not required for the production of a continuous new strand of DNA using the Okazaki fragments. Nucleases are enzymes that break down DNA or RNA molecules by hydrolyzing the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. In the context of DNA replication, nuclease activity is not involved in joining the Okazaki fragments.
Thus, production of continuous new strand of DNA using Okazaki fragments found on lagging strand requires following components: ATP, repair polymerase, DNA primase, and DNA ligase,thus correct options are all except A.
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Variation in a trait is a required condition for natural selection to act on a population for that trait. Assuming a population of organisms started with only one form of a trait, what are two ways variation in the trait could be introduced into the population? Explain your answer.
Answer:
1. Mutation
2. Epigenetics
Explanation:
1. Mutation occurs when there is a change in an organism's DNA sequence as a result of mistakes in DNA replication or as a result of environmental factors like smoking. The mutation in a single organism can be passed on to other generations hence causing a genetic variation in the population, this obeys the Darwin's law that inherited traits (genetic) are passed on to other generations
2. Epigenetics are changes in gene expression that doesn't involve changes in the DNA sequences unlike mutation. This changes can be passed on to other generations and hence cause a variation in the population. This obeys the Lamarckian evolution that acquired traits are passed on to other generations.
A mutation is a change that occurs in our DNA sequence, either due to mistakes when the DNA is copied or as the result of environmental factors such as UV light and cigarette smoke.
Variation in a trait can be introduced into a population through mutations, which are random changes in DNA, and sexual reproduction, which shuffles alleles during gamete formation. These variations must be heritable for natural selection to act on them.
Variation in a trait is essential for natural selection to act on a population. Assuming a population starts with only one form of a trait, there are two primary ways that variation could be introduced:
Mutations: Random changes in DNA sequences can create new alleles of a gene, leading to new variations in traits. These mutations can occur due to errors in DNA replication or due to the influence of environmental factors like radiation.
Sexual Reproduction: During the formation of gametes, processes such as crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes can reshuffle alleles to create new combinations of genes. When individuals with different genetic makeups mate, the offspring inherit a unique set of alleles, contributing to the genetic diversity of the population.
It is important to note that these variations must be heritable and have a genetic basis to contribute to the process of natural selection. Otherwise, natural selection cannot effectively lead to evolutionary change across generations.
RNA plays important roles in many cellular processes, particularly those associated with protein synthesis: transcription, RNA processing, and translation. Drag the labels to the appropriate bins to identify the step in protein synthesis where each type of RNA first plays a role. If an RNA does not play a role in protein synthesis, drag it to the "not used in protein synthesis" bin.
Complete question: "RNA plays important roles in many cellular processes, particularly those associated with protein synthesis: transcription, RNA processing, and translation. Drag the labels to the appropriate bins to identify the step in protein synthesis where each type of RNA first plays a role. If an RNA does not play a role in protein synthesis, drag it to the "not used in protein synthesis" bin.
1. transcription/RNA processing
2. translation
3. not used in protein synthesis
a) snRNA
b) tRNA
c) mRNA
d) RNA primers
e) pre-mRNA
f) rRNA
Answer
1. transcription/RNA processing:
a) snRNA
c) mRNA
e) pre-mRNA
2. translation
b) tRNA
f) rRNA
3. not used in protein synthesis
d) RNA primers
Explanation:
There are many RNAs, each in charge of performing a different function.
preRNA is the precursor of the mature mRNA. These molecules possess long intermediate sequences called introns that do not codify for proteins. It occurs a posttranscriptional modification that eliminates introns and makes the RNA to get mature as mRNA. snRNA means "small nuclear RNA". These are small RNA molecules located in the nucleus and are implicated in the mRNA maturation process. They associate with proteins composing the small nuclear ribonucleoproteins, and their function is to contribute to the initial mARN processing that transcribes from DNA and that must maturate to be exported from the nucleus. These molecules eliminate the introns. mRNA means "messenger RNA". These molecules are carriers of the genetic information and are in charge of transporting it from the genome to the ribosomes. They are the mold for the new protein synthesis. Their nucleotide sequence is complementary with the nucleotide sequence of a particular DNA segment. rRNA means "ribosomal RNA". They are the principal ribosomal component. Ribosomes are constituted by two subunits. One of them is a big RNA molecule associated with about 20 proteins. The other subunit is composed of three RNA molecules associated with about 50 proteins. tRNA means "transference RNA". These molecules are in charge of transferring activated amino acids from the cytosol to the ribosomes where the new protein is being synthesized.Protein synthesis is initiated when mRNA meets a free ribosome, the primary structure for protein synthesis. Ribosomes can be found in the rough endoplasmic reticulum or floating in the cytosol. They read the mRNA code and add the correct amino acid using transference RNA to build the protein.
In protein synthesis, mRNA first plays a role in transcription by carrying genetic instructions for protein assembly. rRNA is then involved as a structural component of ribosomes in translation, while tRNA brings amino acids for polypeptide chain elongation. miRNA, though not directly involved in protein chain assembly, regulates gene expression impacting protein synthesis.
Explanation:Roles of RNA in Protein SynthesisDuring protein synthesis, several types of RNA work collaboratively to convert the genetic information within DNA into functional proteins. messenger RNA (mRNA) is synthesized in the nucleus during transcription. It carries the genetic code from DNA and is involved in protein synthesis by translating the genetic instructions. MRNA is the first type of RNA to play a role in this process as it is required for transcription.
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is a structural component of ribosomes, which are the sites of protein synthesis in the cell. It comes into play during the assembly of ribosomes and directly assists in the process of translation as part of the ribosome's structure.
Transfer RNA (tRNA) carries amino acids to the ribosome and matches them to the coded mRNA message during translation. TRNA is crucial in the later stages of protein synthesis where it contributes to the elongation of the polypeptide chain.
MicroRNA (miRNA), however, does not have a direct role in the assembly of protein chains. Instead, it is involved in the regulation of gene expression by interacting with mRNA and can thereby influence protein synthesis indirectly.
Mismatch repair systems that maintain DNA replication fidelity: Require a protein that detects the damaged base as well as a protein that excises the base from the strand. Rely on DNA glycosylase for proper function. Require a protein that detects the mismatch as well as a protein that recruits an endonuclease to the site of the mismatch. Are responsible for repairing C T point mutations. None of the above
Answer:
Require a protein that detects the damaged base as well as a protein that excises the base from the strand.
Explanation:
The DNA can undergo the process process of mutation during the DNA replication process. The DNA repair process occurs in the body to repair the mismatched DNA.
The mismatch repair system identifies the insertion, deletion and mismatch DNA that can be corrected by mismatch repair system. The Mut S protein is required for the detection of mismatch DNA and mut H then acts as endonuclease to cut the protein and then DNA polymerase fills the gap.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Han takes a shower in his family’s new apartment. He gets the water perfect—not too hot, because that hurts! Then Han hears his son flush the toilet. The water gets very hot, which makes Han feel a lot of pain. After this happens a few times, Han feels afraid when he hears a toilet flush while he is in the shower. When Han is subject to classical conditioning, the unconditioned stimulus (US) is _____; the unconditioned stimulus (CS) is _______; the unconditioned response (UR) is _____; and the conditioned response (CR) is _____.
Answer:
Unconditioned stimuli, US: getting hurt by hot water.Conditioned stimulus, CS: hearing a toilet flush.Unconditioned response, UR: feeling pain after hurting.Conditioned response, CR: being afraid when hearing a toilet flush.Explanation:
Unconditioned stimuli: Biologically significant stimuli that provoke an unlearned or reflex reaction. For example, getting hurt by hot water.Conditioned stimuli: neutral, innocuous or biologically not significant stimuli. For example, hearing a toilet flush.Unconditioned Responses: Unlearned response that is triggered by reflex because of an unconditioned stimulus. For example, feeling a lot of pain after hurting by hot water. Conditioned Responses: These are provoked by conditioned stimuli. This refers to a learned response that reflects the association between conditioned and unconditioned stimuli. For example, being afraid when hearing a toilet flush.Initially, an unconditioned stimulus does not provoke any response, but after enough exposition to conditioned and unconditioned stimuli together, the simple presence of unconditioned stimuli induces conditioned responses. In this aspect, the subject has learned to predict or to anticipate the unconditioned stimulus.
If you hiked in Pocahontas State Park 100 times last year and you saw a White-crowned Sparrow 43 times, what is the probability that you will observe a White-crowned Sparrow next time you go hiking at Pocahontas State Park?
Answer: 43/100
Explanation:
Total number of hikes (T) = 100
Number of times White-crowned Sparrow was seen (N) = 43
Then, probability of seeing White-crowned Sparrow again = N / T
= 43/100
Thus, the probability of seeing White-crowned Sparrow again in Pocahontas State Park is 43/100
Answer: 43/100 or 0.43
Explanation:
number of hikes in the period of a year (H) = 100
Number of times you observed White-crowned Sparrow (S) = 43
Therefore, the probability of seeing White-crowned Sparrow again =
S ÷ H
= 43/100 or 0.43
One of your lab partners has followed the recommended procedure of running Gram-positive and Gram-negative control organisms on her Gram stain of an unknown species. Her choices of controls were Escherichia coli and Bacillus subtilis. She tries several times and each time concludes she is decolorizing too long because both controls have pink cells (one more than the other). What might you suggest she try and why?
Answer:
Reduced in holding time of decolrization step and also used less Alcohol because decolrization step is important in Gram's staining.The decolorization step must be performed carefully. Otherwise over-decolorization may occur. This step is critical and must be timed correctly otherwise the CV stain will be removed from the Gram-positive cells. If the decolorizing agent is applied on the cell for too long time, the Gram-positive organisms to appear Gram-negative..
Explanation:
Gram' staining is a technique used in microbiology labs to differentiate between Gram's positive and negative
Gram-positive bacteria :Stain dark purple due to retaining the primary dye called CV in the cell wall.
:Gram-negative bacteria Stain red or pink due to retaining the counter staining dye called Safranin or neutral red.
There are four basic step in Gram" staining
1) Application of the Primary Stain to a Heat-Fixed Smear of Bacterial Culture
2)Addition of Gram's Iodine
3)Decolorization with 95% Ethyl Alcohol:Alcohol or acetone dissolves the lipid outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, thus leaving the peptidoglycan layer exposed and increases the porosity of the cell wall. The CV-I complex is then washed away from the thin peptidoglycan layer, leaving Gram-negative bacteria colorless.
On the other hand, alcohol has a dehydrating effect on the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria that causes the pores of the cell wall to shrink. The CV-I complex gets tightly bound into the multi-layered, highly cross-linked Gram-positive cell wall thus staining the cells purple.
The decolorization step must be performed carefully. Otherwise over-decolorization may occur. This step is critical and must be timed correctly otherwise the CV stain will be removed from the Gram-positive cells. If the decolorizing agent is applied on the cell for too long time, the Gram-positive organisms to appear Gram-negative. Under-decolorization occurs when the alcohol is not left on long enough to wash out the CV-I complex from the Gram-negative cells, resulting in Gram-negative bacteria to appear Gram-positive.
hich of the following occurs during bacterial conjugation? a. The genome is duplicated and then diverges. b. An insertion sequence finds a target site on another DNA strand then uses recombination to insert itself into that strand. c. An F+ plasmid transfers via rolling circle replication through a relaxosome to an F- cell. d. A bacteriophage packages its capsid with degraded host DNA then infects a new host, delivering the previous host’s genes.
Answer: Option D.
An F+ plasmid transfers via rolling circle replication through relaxosome to an F- cell.
Explanation:
Bacteria conjugation is the transfer of DNA between bacteria cell through cell to cell contact or bridge like connection between bacteria cells.
During bacteria conjugation, DNA is transferred from the bacterium donor of a mating pair to the recepient through pilus.
An F+ plasmid which is the donor transfers via rolling circle replication through a relaxosome to an F- cell.
An antibody has been isolated that binds to F-actin but not to G-actin. What structural feature(s) of F-actin do you suppose the antibody binds (i.e., how is the antibody able to distinguish between these two forms of actin)?
Answer:
F-actin is a double helical filament as opposed to G-actin,which is a globular protein .Each actin filament has two ends,called the plus and
the minus ends, which makes it recognizable from each other.This gives the structure a distinct polarity.
Explanation:
Actin is the most abundant protein that is found in almost all eukaryotic cells.Its a most important part cytoskeleton as its a monomeric subunits(size 42kDa) of two types of filaments i.e. microfilaments and thin filaments in cells. Actin is essentially required to maintain stability and morphogenesis of cell.It is involved in numerous significant processes such as endocytosis,cell division and migration.Actin is present in two forms:
•G-actin
•F-actin
The two forms of actin are different structurally.
G- actin is a globular shaped protein,usually present in free form(a monomer),having a tight binding site for another actin monomer.Each monomer has ATP. Upon polymerization of G-actin monomers, a polymer called F-actin filaments is form. This process is driven by hydrolysis of ATP.
Sally's estimated energy requirement, based upon her age, height, and weight, is approximately 2000 kcalories per day. What is the maximum number of kealories per day that she can consume to lose 3 pounds per month? Assume 1 month is 3o days. a. 1650 kcalories b. 1400 kcalories c. 1700 kcalories d. 1530 kcalories e. 1200 kcalories
Answer:
A. 1650 kcalories per day.
Explanation:
Given:
Energy requirement = 2000 kcalories per day
Number of pounds loss per day = 3 pounds per month
Since 3,500 kcal = 1 lb,
= 10, 500 kcalories per month
Since 30 days = 1 month,
Energy requirement per month = 2000 × 30
= 60,000 kcalories per month
Number of kcalories consumed per month = 60000 - 10500
= 49,500 kcalories ÷ 30 days
= 1650 kcalories per day.
In some circumstances, when two different carbon sources are available, growth will occur first using one carbon source, then after a short lag period, growth will resume using the second carbon growth source.
a. This process is called _____ growth.
Answer: Diauxic growth
Explanation:
The diauxic growth or diphasic growth is a bacterial growth which is characterized by the growth in two phases depending upon the source of carbon used.
The preferred carbon source is consumed first, this leads to enhance the growth in the bacteria, followed by the lag phase. During the process of lag phase the bacteria start to metabolize the second carbon source and the growth resumes.
For example, a colony of E.coli bacteria was cultured in a medium containing the glucose, and lactose sugars. At the initial level the bacteria was capable of using the glucose sugar and growth became rapid this is followed by a lag phase. In the lag phase the bacteria started to utilize the lactose sugar and again the growth resumes.
Final answer:
Diauxic growth is when a cell uses one carbon source and then switches to another after the first is depleted. In the given E. coli growth curve example, glucose is used first, leading to rapid growth, followed by a lag phase and then slower growth on xylose once glucose is exhausted.
Explanation:
The process described in the student's question, where a cell uses one carbon source for growth and then switches to another after the first is depleted, is known as diauxic growth. Tackling Monod's research, we can clarify what is occurring at different points (A-D) in the growth curve. At point A, the E. coli is primarily using glucose as its carbon source for growth, causing a rapid increase in population. The xylose-use operon is not being expressed at this point because the presence of glucose typically represses the expression of enzymes for the metabolism of other sugars.
After glucose is exhausted, demonstrated by a leveling off of the growth curve at point B, the cells enter a short lag phase as they begin to express the necessary enzymes for the uptake and metabolism of xylose. At point C, we observe the resumption of growth as the bacteria start to use xylose. As these enzymes are less efficient or the substrates are utilized less favorably, the second phase of growth is slower compared to the first phase. Finally, at point D, the growth rate declines again as the bacterial population exhausts the xylose.
What does a virus do once its inside one of your cells?
3 points
it stays inside for a while, then leaves
it eats up the machinery in the cell
it uses the cells machinery to make copies of itself
it prevents the mitochondria from making ATP
Answer: It uses the cell machinery to make several copies.
Explanation:
Viruses are infectious agents that live, replicates or multiply in an host cell. When virus invade an host cell, it will make the host cell to use it resources or machinery to make copies or replicates copies of it's DNA or itself,thereby causing infections and damages to the host cell.
Answer:
it uses the cells machinery to make copies of itself
Explanation:
Viruses are microscopic organism that lives in our environment always looking for his cell.
They attach themselves to the host cell and make use of the enzymes and protein in the host cell to multiply itself. Virus have a protein covering they helps it attach itself to the his cell. Some virus do not enter the host cell but but releases there content into the cell of the host organism.
Hence, Viruses uses chemical machinery of the host cell to make copies of itself.
The dynamics are different when the advantageous allele is rare, compared to when it is near 100%. Explain what happens when a recessive advantageous allele is rare versus near fixation
Answer:
An advantageous allele might be dominant or recessive in population. In case of dominant advantageous allele the dynamics is relatively simple because being dominant the allele is expressed both in homozygous and heterozygous condition. Combined with the advantage of natural selection, its frequency increases rapidly.
However, recessive advantageous allele does not increase rapidly because despite being advantageous it gets masked by the dominant allele. When it is rare, it is present in very less number of recessive homozygotes and in slightly more number as heterozygotes. Over the generations, natural selection selects the recessive allele so the number of heterozygotes start to increase slowly. Recessive homozygotes are still rare because they need both the copies of recessive allele. Eventually recessive homozygotes also start increasing in number which leads to the fixation of recessive allele in the population.
2. There is a mouse inside a cage. Within the cage, there is a light bulb and a lever. You want to teach the mouse to step on the lever each time you turn on the light. When the mouse steps on the lever, you give him a treat (but only when the light turns on). After several attempts, the mouse learns that, "When the light turns on, I must step on the lever in order to receive a treat." Was this associative or instrumental learning? Explain. (2 points).
Answer:
Instrumental learning
Explanation:
Associative learning is a form of learning which is performed when two or more events or stimuli controls the learning behaviour. The instrumental learning is a type of learning in which the learning process is associated with the consequence or result of the action.
In the given question, the mouse learns how to step on the lever as a result of the received food in the form of reward or he learned because he received the treatment, therefore, this act of learning will be considered the instrumental learning.
Thus, Instrumental learning is correct.