Answers
The amount of oil, coal, and natural gas reserves on Earth is not distributed evenly because the amount of plants and animals buried earlier in sedimentary rock layers determined the amount of oil and gas reserves.
What is the importance of oil and coal?Oil and coal are fossil fuels that are vital to today's society, and they are formed when heat and pressure cause these remains to be transformed into hydrocarbons, which are the main components of oil and natural gas. These sedimentary rock layers are found in areas that were once covered by oceans or seas, such as coastal regions and deltas, and after many years, they become fossil fuels.
As a result, the amount of oil, coal, and natural gas reserves on Earth is not distributed evenly because the amount of plants and animals buried earlier in sedimentary rock layers determined the amount of oil and gas reserves.
Learn more about oil and coal here.
https://brainly.com/question/12475002
#SPJ5
Final answer:
Oil, coal, and natural gas are unevenly distributed because their formation required specific geological conditions that are only found in certain areas. Fossil fuels take millions of years to form and are being depleted much faster than they are replenished, leading to varying degrees of scarcity across different regions of the world.
Explanation:
The uneven distribution of oil, coal, and natural gas on Earth is due to a complex set of geological processes. Fossil fuels are the remains of ancient organisms that were subjected to intense heat and pressure over millions of years. For oil to form, there needs to be just the right biological conditions to produce sufficient plankton, coupled with the correct geologic conditions to preserve and transform this organic matter into petroleum. This process takes a million years or more.
Coal is relatively more abundant and formed from ancient swamp vegetation, while oil and natural gas originated from marine microorganisms. Oil deposits are frequently found in ancient shallow seabeds where organic material was effectively sequestered and transformed over time. Regions like the province of Alberta in Canada are rich in these resources due to their geological history and current explorations are focused on extracting these fuels from tar sands and other reserves.
The extraction and use of these fuels vary; coal is mined and used primarily for electricity generation due to its solid state, while oil and natural gas require different extraction methods, including conventional drilling and hydraulic fracturing. Moreover, due to the accelerated rate of consumption compared to the natural replenishment rate of these resources, they are not only unevenly distributed but also rapidly depleting, underscoring the need for conservation and alternative energy sources.
Related Questions
Samuel ate some vegetable soup. What process is at work to allow Samuel to break down the soup so that his body will be
able to produce energy?
growth
absorption
excretion
digestion
Answers
Samuel ate some vegetable soup. Digestion process is at work to allow Samuel to break down the soup so that his body will be able to produce energy.
Option: D
Explanation:
There are majorly four steps in food processing in human body, these are ingestion, digestion, absorption and elimination. There are six major phases covered by digestion: ingestion, acceleration, mechanical or physical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption and defecation. The first of these procedures, ingestion, relates to the absorption of food via the mouth into the food canal.
Digestive system allow the transformation of massive insoluble food molecules into small water-soluble food components to dissolve them into the watery plasma of the blood. Many smaller particles are ingested into the bloodstream in certain species through the small intestine.
Given the mRNA codons AGC UUC GAU, what would be the resulting amino acid sequence after translation?
a. Aspartic acid-Phenylalanine-Serine
b. Serine-Phenylalanine-Aspartic acid
c. None of the above
d. Methionine-Asparagine-Leucine
e. Serine-Lysine-Leucine
Answers
Answer:
Option B) Serine-Phenylalanine-Aspartic acid
Explanation:
mRNA codons AGC code for the amino acid, serine while UUC code for phenylanine and GAU code for aspartic acid.
Thus, the resulting amino acid sequence after translation will be a tripeptide containing Serine-Phenylalanine-Aspartic acid
Answer:
b. Serine-Phenylalanine-Aspartic acid
Explanation:
Gene expression, which is the process of using the information present in a gene to synthesize protein, involves two major stages: transcription and translation. Transcription involves the synthesis of a mRNA molecule using a DNA template. It is the process of copying the information in a DNA into a complementary mRNA molecule.
Once the mRNA has been synthesized, it proceeds for translation in the ribosome (organnelle for protein synthesis). However, in the ribosome, the nuceleotide sequence of the mRNA is read three at a time. This group of three nucleotide sequence is called CODON. The set of all codons make up the GENETIC CODE. Each coding specifies a particular amino acid i.e. reading a codon means addition of a particular amino acid to the polypeptide chain.
This question contains a mRNA with nuceleotide sequence: AGC UUC GAU, which consists of three codons. Hence, three amino acids will be produced.
In the genetic code provided as an attachment to this question, we can obtain which CODON specifies which AMINO ACID.
AGC codes for Serine
UUC codes for Phenylalanine
GAU codes for Aspartic acid
Hence, mRNA sequence, AGC UUC GAU will produce an amino acid sequence Serine-Phenylalanine-Aspartic acid.
How would you account for the fact that fossils of fish are not present in the older layers of rock?
Answers
Answer:
The fish did not yet exist when the old layers of rocks were deposited. In fact, animals with hard parts did not evolve until about 600 million years ago, which is only about 13% of the 4.5 billion year age of the Earth. Multicellular animals without hard parts left tracks in older sediments, but had no fossilize-able body parts.
Explanation:
You tested for the presence of four different
by adding
three test tubes
to the
DONE
Answers
NUTRIENTS & INDICATORS
You tested for the presence of four (4) different nutrients by adding indicators to the three (3) test tubes.
What are nutrients?Nutrients can be defined as the chemical compounds or substances that are present in food, and they're needed by the body of a living organism for healthy growth, reproduction, development, functioning, and reproduction.
Generally, there are different types of nutrients and these include the following:
ProteinFatCarbohydrate VitaminsMineralsBased on the experiment conducted, we tested for the presence of four (4) different nutrients that can be found in a variety of foods by adding indicators to the three (3) test tubes.
Read more on nutrients here: https://brainly.com/question/4413413
what kind of cells have chloroplasts?
Answers
Answer:
Plant cells
Explanation:
Answer:
plant cells
Explanation:
chloroplasts use the energy form the sun and oxygen and CO2 and other materials to make glucose (sugar) to feed themselves. this is impossible without the chloroplasts. Animals do not have chloroplasts because they go around eating other plants which already have the sugar in them.
Which materials are excreted through sweat glands in the skin?
Answers
Answer:
Sweat glands remove waste by secreting water, nitrogenous waste, and sodium salts. Sweat glands also regulate temperature.
in which phase of meiosis does the chromosome number change from diploid to haploid
Answers
The chromosomes number changes from diploid to haploid during anaphase I of Meiosis I. Subsequently, Meiosis II separates sister chromatids to result in four unique haploid cells.
Explanation:Change from Diploid to Haploid in MeiosisThe change from diploid to haploid chromosome numbers during meiosis occurs after Meiosis I. Specifically, it is during anaphase I of Meiosis I that homologous chromosomes are separated and pulled to opposite poles of the cell. This reductional division halves the chromosome number from 2n to n, thus from diploid to haploid, setting the stage for the formation of haploid gametes after Meiosis II.
During Meiosis II, the sister chromatids within the two daughter cells formed in Meiosis I separate, yielding four unique haploid cells. This second division is akin to mitosis but occurs with half the number of chromosomes. Therefore, it is in Meiosis I that the reduction from diploid to haploid truly occurs, solidified by the subsequent processes in Meiosis II. Each resultant cell has a haploid number of chromosomes, carrying genetic information from both parents, due to the assortment of chromosomes and crossing over events that occurred.
Learn more about Meiosis here:https://brainly.com/question/30614059
#SPJ12
Anaphase I of meiosis is when the chromosome number changes from diploid to haploid.
During anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell. This results in the reduction of chromosome number from diploid (2n) to haploid (n) in each daughter cell, as each cell receives only one set of chromosomes instead of the homologous pairs.
Describe photosynthesis using words that a 5-year-old could understand.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is the process in which green plants use sunlight to make their own food. Photosynthesis is necessary for life on Earth. Without it there would be no green plants, and without green plants there would be no animals.
Photosynthesis requires sunlight, chlorophyll, water, and carbon dioxide gas. Chlorophyll is a substance in all green plants, especially in the leaves. Plants take in water from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air.
4. Propose a design for another experiment that tests moth phenotypes in
a forest where there are no predators. The limiting factor is food availability
for caterpillars (baby moths) and caterpillars with larger mouthparts are
able to obtain food faster. What data would researchers need to collect in
this experiment to show how natural selection affects the moth populations?
Answers
Answer:
To test the phenotypes of the moths , we will design an experiment in which we will count the number of caterpillars at the time of birth along with the baby moth which have large mouth parts and those which do not have large mouth parts.
After time, t, when the moths grow we will again count the number of large mouth moths and the number moth which had a small mouth to check which of them were better adapted to survive in the environment where food was the limiting factor.
Final answer:
To test how natural selection affects moth populations with caterpillars of different mouthpart sizes in food-limited environments, researchers would measure mouthpart size, food consumption rates, and reproductive success, expecting directional selection to favor larger mouthparts.
Explanation:
To test how natural selection affects moth populations in a forest where predators are absent but where the limiting factor is food availability for caterpillars, researchers could design an experiment where caterpillars with varying mouthpart sizes are observed.
First, researchers would measure and record the mouthpart size of each caterpillar in the population. Then, they would monitor the rate at which caterpillars with different mouthpart sizes consume food. The availability of food would be controlled to simulate scarcity, thereby exerting a selection pressure on the caterpillars.
The main data collected would include the mouthpart size of the caterpillars, the speed and efficiency of food consumption, survival rates, growth rates to adulthood, and the reproductive success of moths with different sizes of mouthparts. As caterpillars with larger mouthparts should be able to obtain food faster and thus have a selection advantage, researchers would expect to see an increase in the frequency of this phenotype in subsequent generations.
Over time, if caterpillars with larger mouthparts survive and reproduce more successfully, it would be evidence of directional selection favoring a certain phenotype due to the environmental pressure of limited food availability.
Ben made the following bar graph shown to represent the relative distances of four different astronomical bodies from Earth.
The title of the bar graph is Distance of Bodies in Space from Earth. Four bars are labeled A, B, C, and D. Bar C is the shortest. Bar D is about three times the size of bar C. Bar A is about six times the size of bar C. Bar B is about eight times the size of bar C.
If A represents the sun, which of the following could be represented by C and D?
C could be Venus, and D could be the moon.
C could be Uranus, and D could be the moon.
C could be the moon, and D could be Venus.
C could be Uranus, and D could be Venus.
Answers
Answer:
C could be the moon, and D could be Venus.
Explanation:
Now let's take in consideration that the bar graph represents the distances of the different astronomical bodies relative to the Earth.
You have the following astronomical bodies:
Sun
Moon
Venus
Uranus
Now think about the actual distances of these bodies from Earth.
Among all, the moon is the closest, so this means that the shortest bar would be the moon.
Moon is C.
Again, let's see what else is given. It says that A is the sun, so it is about six times the size of bar C, while Bar D is three times the size of bar C. This makes Bar D the second shortes bar. So among the bodies given, Venus is the next closest. This means that Bar D is venus.
Explanation:
c could be the moon and d could be Venus
super sigma
Air pollution cannot be directly fatal to humans.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T
F
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is false since air pollution is a fusion of solid particles and gases in the air. This kills many of Americans every year.
Extension: If one mole of glucose contains 2870 KJ of energy and one mole of ATP releases 30.7 KJ of energy during a reaction, what is the percentage of energy in glucose that is available for the body to use?
Answers
The percentage of energy in glucose that is available for the body to use is 40.6%.
Explanation:
Total used energy is the energy released by the hydrolysis of one mole of ATP and it is 30.7 kJ.
The total possible energy (used pus released as heat) is 2870 kJ.
Hydrolysis of 38 moles ATP gives = 38 [tex]\times[/tex] 30.7
= 1166.6 kJ of useful energy
The percentage of energy is transformed into useful energy, we can calculate by simple proportion,
2870 : 100 = 1166.6 : x
x = (1166.6 [tex]\times[/tex] 100) / 2870
x = 40.6% of energy is transformed into useful energy.
40.6 % is the percentage of energy in glucose that is available for the body to use.
Explanation:
We know that during cellular respiration one mole of glucose gives 38 molecules of ATP.
Given that 1 mole of ATP gives 30.7 KJ of energy.
So 38 molecules of ATP would give
38 x 30.7 KJ of energy.
= 1166 KJ would be yielded by 38 moles of ATP.
1 mole of glucose contains 2870 KJ of energy.
100 % of energy is released in glucose metabolism and x percent is used. It is given by the equation
2870: 100 = 1166:x
x= [tex]\frac{1166 x 100}{2870}[/tex]
= 40.6 %
40.6% of energy is available for the body to use and rest of the energy is dissipated in the form of heat when 1 mole of glucose undergoes combustion in cellular respiration producing 38 moles of ATP.
Select all the correct answers.
Which two statements are true for fungi?
They can produce their own food because they have chlorophyll.
They often form symbiotic relationships with trees.
They digest food externally.
They can absorb nutrients from food, even though they lack digestive enzymes.
Answers
Answer:
They often form symbiotic relationships with trees and they can digest food
b and c
Explanation:
What is in a bacterial cell
Answers
Answer:
It contains enzymes, nutrients, wastes, and gases and contains cell structures such as ribosomes, a chromosome, and plasmids.
Explanation:
Answer:
IT is
Explanation:
It is a gel-like matrix composed of water, enzymes, nutrients, wastes, and gases and contains cell structures such as ribosomes, a chromosome, and plasmids. The cell envelope encases the cytoplasm and all its components. Unlike the eukaryotic (true) cells, bacteria do not have a membrane enclosed nucleus.
During ___ the cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins
Answers
Answer: Translation
Explanation: Translation is a process in which the genetic information encoded in an mRNA molecule is used to make proteins. Translation occurs in the ribosome. The mRNA contains codons which codes for particular amino acids. These codons are read by the ribosome one at a time while the transfer RNA fetches the corresponding amino acid and attaches it to the growing polypeptide chain. Amino acids are monomeric units of proteins. The amino acids sequence produced undergoes some modifications and packaging to form protein.
Final answer:
During translation, the cell uses mRNA to produce proteins. mRNA carries instructions for protein synthesis from the DNA to the ribosomes. Ribosomes read the mRNA in sets of three bases called codons.
Explanation:
During translation, the cell uses information from messenger RNA (mRNA) to produce proteins. mRNA carries the instructions for protein synthesis from the DNA in the cell nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm. With the help of ribosomes and transfer RNA (tRNA), the mRNA is read in sets of three bases called codons, and each codon codes for a specific amino acid. This process ensures that proteins are made when needed in the cell.
What are the four main components of Darwin’s theory of evolution?
Answers
Answer:
There are four principles at work in evolution—variation, inheritance, selection and time. These are considered the components of the evolutionary mechanism of natural selection.
Explanation:
Answer:
Sample Response: Darwin concluded that organisms become different over time and that all organisms have common ancestors. He also stated that the evolution of a population occurs slowly over an extended period of time and that natural selection is the process that drives evolution.
Explanation:
Which market structure predominantly uses products differentiation to attract consumers
Answers
Answer: Monopolistic competition
Explanation:
Answer:
Monopolistic competition
Explanation:
this is the right answer for Edmentum/Plato
How do some of non-resistant bacteria become antibiotic-resistant
Answers
When an antibiotic is given for a non- resistant bacteria it inactivates or kills the bacteria however some microbes do not die and survive and multiply and pass the infection to other people making the bacteria antibiotic resistant.
Explanation:
The antibiotic resistant bacteria are those that are able to resist the effect of antibiotic and renders them ineffective that was once able to kill or inactivate bacteria.
While antibiotic non-resistant bacteria are those that are not able to resist the effect of antibody.
The reason some non-resistant bacteria becomes resistant is that a mutation in the nonresistant bacteria may occur or continuous exposure of the antibiotic would make it resistant to it.
Every time an antibiotic is taken for some bacterial infection it kills the bacteria but some that survive become resistant and grow in numbers and get transfer to other people causing them to be antibiotic resistance. The infection transfer to other people would not be treated by once used antibiotic as the microbe has become resistant.
During the cell replication due to some mutation caused they get resistant to antibiotic by a process called selective pressure.
what is the most complex level of organization in an organism ?
Answers
Betta splendens is a common pet. In the wild, most males are red and most females are brown. However, breeders have bettas in a variety of sizes, shapes, and colors, as shown below.
Which term best describes the development of the bettas sold in pet stores?
A:artificial selection
B:natural selection
C:acquired trait
D:population genetics
Answers
The term that described the development of the bettas sold in pet stores should be artificial selection.
What is artificial selection?It refers to the selection where the human identification should be done that represents the traits in the plant & animals. Also, the steps should be taken for enhancing the traits in the future generations.
Since betta splendens should be the common pet. So here the artificial selection should represent the creation of the bettas that need to be sold in the pet stores.
Therefore, the option A is correct.
Learn more about artificial here: https://brainly.com/question/23189077
Which of the following is considered to be the broadest taxonomic division?
A.
Phylum
B.
Domain
C.
Kingdom
D.
Family
Answers
Answer:
B. Domain
Explanation:
The broadest group is Domain which consists of Eukarya which includes the organisms that most people are most familiar with-all animals, plants, fungi, and protists
Answer:
The Answer: Domain
Explanation:
Which of the following small objects revolve around the Sun?
A. meteoroids
OB. comets
C.
asteroids
OD. all of these
Answers
Answer:
OD. all of the above
Explanation:
Asteroids are lumps of rock or iron that orbit the sun.
Comets go around the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit. They can spend hundreds and thousands of years out in the depths of the solar system before they return to Sun at their perihelion.
Asteroids orbit the Sun in a region between Mars and Jupiter. This "belt" of asteroids.
How would you distinguish adaptations and variations for a younger student?
Answers
"Imagine a Polar Bear. You know they live in the Arctic, but then the Summer season comes. The polar bear has to move away from the breaking ice. Once the heat kicks in, the polar bear's warm fur makes it harder to survive. The bear has the ability to last in the heat for a long while, going back and forth into the water and land. After a while of doing this, the polar bear's fur becomes suited to the harsh light. Once Winter returns, the bear waits for the heat to fade and for the ice to form back. Once the ice is formed, the polar bear knows that its back to its old warm fur procedure."
Generally, It has been possible to the distinguish between the species in which there are a lot of the variations and two species by analyzing the DNA sequences.
Sequence homo-logy would makes has the reference to the similarity between the DNA sequences of two different organisms. The linear order of the nucleotides in DNA sequences can be used to distinguish species.
There are regions in the DNA molecule that exhibit more variation between species than within a species, which can be used to separate different species.
It is possible to distinguish between a species in which there are a lot of variations and two species by analyzing DNA sequences.
Learn more about species on:
brainly.com/question/9640986
#SPJ2
If it takes 5 seconds for you to do 1000J of work, what is your power output?
Answers
Answer: 200 watts
Explanation:
Power is simply the ability to do work. In essence, power is workdone per unit time.
So, Power = Workdone / time taken
In this case, time taken = 5 seconds
Workdone = 1000Joules
Power output = 1000 joules ➗ 5 second
= 200 watts (power is measured in watts)
Thus, your power output is 200 watts
Which statement describes the tropical climate zone?
It extends towards the south of the equator only.
It extends towards the north of the equator only.
It extends only a few miles on both sides of the equator.
It extends about 1600 miles on both sides of the equator.
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is D) It extends about 1600 miles on both sides of the equator.
Explanation:
A tropical climate can be described as regions of the Earth where the mean temperature remains greater that 18 degrees Celsius during all the twelve months of the year.
A tropical climate is also known as 'equatorial', because places found on or close to the Equator are typically tropical: they're warm and wet. The tropical zone includes the Amazon Basin of Brazil, West Africa's Congo Basin and the rainforests of Malaysia and Indonesia.
Answer:
d
Explanation:
71 POINTS HELP!!!!!!!!!
A magnet can hold a piece of paper to the door of a refrigerator. How does the magnet stick without touching the door?
Group of answer choices
The magnetic force of the magnet can act at a distance.
The magnet induces a magnetic field in the paper.
Gravity attracts the magnet to the door.
Atoms from the magnet pass through the paper and touch the door.
Flag this Question
Question 5 8.33 pts
Giovanni sprinkled iron filings around a magnet. Which of the following did Giovanni most likely see?
Group of answer choices
The iron filings randomly falling around the magnet
The iron filings spread evenly around the magnet.
The iron filings lining up with the magnetic field lines
The iron filings accumulating only at the poles of the magnet
Flag this Question
Flag this Question
Question 8 8.33 pts
If you increase the distance between two magnets, what will happen?
Group of answer choices
The magnetic attraction will decrease.
The magnetic attraction will strengthen.
The magnetic attraction will stay the same.
The magnetic attraction will increase.
Flag this Question
Question 10 8.34 pts
Another student made an electromagnet with an iron nail with eight coils of wire wound around it connected to a 2-V battery. She wants to increase the strength of the electromagnet. What changes can she make to her design to increase its strength? Select all that apply.
Group of answer choices
wrap more coils of wire around the nail
use two 1-V batteries instead of a 2-V battery
use a longer wire
use a 4-V battery
Flag this Question
Question 11 8.34 pts
Jazelle has five different-sized magnets. She puts each magnet far away from a paper clip and slowly moves it closer until it attracts the paper clip. She records the distance between the magnet and the paper clip when it attracts. What is Jazelle's experiment designed to test?
Group of answer choices
how the type of paper clip affects the way in which it reacts to the force of a magnet
how the magnetic force of a magnet affects the movement of an object
how the size of a paperclip affects the strength of its magnetic pull on objects
how the size of a magnet affects the strength of its magnetic pull on objects
Flag this Question
Question 12 8.34 pts
Kayla has two magnets. She would like to know how much magnetic energy is stored in each one. What would be the best way for her to determine which magnet has the most magnetic energy?
Group of answer choices
Attach wires to the ends of each magnet and measure the currents going through the wires
Measure how close each magnet can get to a metal object before picking it up.
Record the mass of each magnet by measuring it on a balance scale.
Put each magnet into a beaker of water to see how much water it displaces
Answers
Answer:
1st Qn) 1st option, the magnetic force of a magnet can act at a distance.
magnetism cannot be induced on the paper since paper is a non-magnetic material. In fact, the magnetic field can pass through the paper.
Gravity cannot attract the magnet to the door. Gravity only pulls things down towards the earth.
Magnetism does not involve the movement of atoms.
Q5) 3rd option, the iron filings lining up with the magnetic field lines
I've attached the diagram of how the iron filings look.
Note that although the filings are mostly concentrated at the poles of the magnets, they do not only accumulate there. Most of them are there as magnetic fields are stronger near the poles of the magnet.
Q8) 1st option, the magnetic attraction will decrease.
Q8) 1st option, the magnetic attraction will decrease.Q10) 1st option, wrap more coils around the nail.
Q8) 1st option, the magnetic attraction will decrease.Q10) 1st option, wrap more coils around the nail.Q11) 4th option, how the size of the magnet affects the strength of its magnetic pull on objects.
He used the same paper clip so he cannot be testing how the type of paper clip affects the way in which it reacts to the force of a magnet. For the same reason, option 3 I wrong too.
Q12) 2nd option, measure how close each magnet can get to a metal object before picking it up.
The mass of a magnet does not show its magnetic field strength.
4th option is simply measuring the volume of the magnets.
Answer:
Answer:
1st Qn) 1st option, the magnetic force of a magnet can act at a distance.
magnetism cannot be induced on the paper since paper is a non-magnetic material. In fact, the magnetic field can pass through the paper.
Gravity cannot attract the magnet to the door. Gravity only pulls things down towards the earth.
Magnetism does not involve the movement of atoms.
Q5) 3rd option, the iron filings lining up with the magnetic field lines
I've attached the diagram of how the iron filings look.
Note that although the filings are mostly concentrated at the poles of the magnets, they do not only accumulate there. Most of them are there as magnetic fields are stronger near the poles of the magnet.
Q8) 1st option, the magnetic attraction will decrease.
Q8) 1st option, the magnetic attraction will decrease.Q10) 1st option, wrap more coils around the nail.
Q8) 1st option, the magnetic attraction will decrease.Q10) 1st option, wrap more coils around the nail.Q11) 4th option, how the size of the magnet affects the strength of its magnetic pull on objects.
He used the same paper clip so he cannot be testing how the type of paper clip affects the way in which it reacts to the force of a magnet. For the same reason, option 3 I wrong too.
Q12) 2nd option, measure how close each magnet can get to a metal object before picking it up.
The mass of a magnet does not show its magnetic field strength.
4th option is simply measuring the volume of the magnets.
Explanation:
Wastewater treatment plants can make wastewater drinkable again. Which of
the following is a technology used to remove disease causing organisms
from wastewater?
O
A. Allowing solid wastes to settle out of the water
O
B. Adding bacteria that digest waste to the water
O
c. Skimming materials from the surface of the water
O
D. Releasing treated water into nearby streams
Answers
The technology used to remove disease-causing organisms from wastewater at treatment plants allows solid wastes to settle out of the water. Hence, the correct option is A.
Wastewater treatment plants can make wastewater drinkable again by removing disease-causing organisms from wastewater. The technology used for this purpose is disinfection, which involves treating the water with chlorine, ozone, ultraviolet light, or bleach to kill most microbes. This step is crucial in ensuring the water is safe for human consumption and preventing waterborne diseases.
Allowing solid wastes to settle out of the water is part of the primary treatment which primarily removes solid and organic matter.Adding bacteria that digest waste to the water is part of the secondary treatment process, where aerobic bacteria decompose organic solids.Skimming materials from the water's surface can happen during pretreatment or throughout the process as part of maintaining water quality.Releasing treated water into nearby streams is typically the final step after the water has been adequately treated and is deemed safe to re-enter the environment.What is the continental drift theory and who proposed iy
Answers
This is actually due to continents being on tectonic plates that slowly shift over time.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Explanation:
Alfred Wegener first proposed the theory of continental drift.
A gene has the base sequence TAC CG. Give an example of a point mutation on this gene.
Answers
Answer: An example of point mutation on the gene is TGC CG.
Explanation: Mutation is a permanent alteration in the nucleotide sequence of a DNA. Point mutation is a type of mutation in which there is a change in only one nucleotide molecule in a DNA sequence. A point mutation can occur at any point in the nucleotide sequence of a DNA and can be as a result of replacement of one nucleotide molecule by another. For example, in the the sequence TAC CG, any of the nucleotides can be replaced by another nucleotide such as in TGC CG, Adenine is replaced by Guanine.
what collison turned earth into a molten ball of fiery lava
Answers
Answer:
can you explain more please. I think you are talking about the Big Bang Theory but i don't understand you question.
Explanation: