Answer: Diffusion and osmosis
Explanation:
Water, like many molecules, wants to be at equilibrium; it wants to have an equal concentration on either side of the membrane. The movement of water across a membrane to reach equilibrium is called osmosis. Water molecules move through the phospholipid molecules in the cell membrane by osmosis.
Osmosis is a process through which the molecules pass through a semipermeable membrane across a concentration gradient. Water molecules pass from high concentration to low concentration.
Genetic variation _____.a. is created by the direct action of natural selectionb. must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the populationc. arises in response to changes in the environmentd. tends to be reduced by when diploid organisms produce gametes
Answer:
The correct answer is b. must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population
Explanation:
Genetic variation can be caused by mutation, recombination between chromosomes during meiosis and by fusion of two genetically different gametes during sexual reproduction.
This genetic variation is necessary for the evolution of any population. Natural selection acts on every individual and it decreases the frequency of those alleles that are not suited for the environment and increase the frequency of those alleles which helps the individual to survive in the changing environment.
Therefore genetic variation must be present in the population before natural selection act on the.
A friend asks you how to determine the strongest intermolecular force present in a pure sample. Write down for them the steps you would use.
The best method used to determine the strongest intermolecular forces is to check it's it boiling or melting point.
Explanation:
So, when the molecules are polarized, the charges on the atom becomes greater which would lead to a greater intermolecular force. hence, those components will have a high boiling point. Here is the ascending of atomic bonds which would help us to determine what bonding so we could say whether it is the strongest or not.
Ionic bonds>Hydrogen bonding>Van der Waals dipole interaction>Van der Waals dispersion forces
So, you have to heat or melt the pure sample to determine the strongest intermolecular force depends on the components in the sample.
An individual who is heterozygous for two linked genes (with alleles A, a and B, b) is crossed with an a b/a b individual, and among the progeny are the following
14 AB/ab
36 Ab/ab
34 aB/ab
16 ab/ab
What is the frequency of recombination?
a) 0.60
b) 0.30
c) 0.40
d) 0.70
Answer:
b) 0.30
Explanation:
An individual who is heterozygous for two linked genes (with alleles A, a and B, b)
i.e Aa & Bb × ab/ab
This cross produce the following offspring :
14 AB/ab
36 Ab/ab
34 aB/ab
16 ab/ab
Now, the purpose of these calculation is to determine how close together on a gene (gene mapping) these recombinants are.
First, we need to determine the linked gene for the parental chromosomal configurations which are (Aa & Bb × ab/ab) and the recombinant configurations in the offspring which are ( AB/ab & ab/ab). This allows for the calculation of the recombinant frequency; and it is given by:
= [tex]\frac{number of recombinant frequency}{total number of offspring}[/tex]
=[tex]\frac{14+16}{14+36+34+16}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{30}{100}[/tex]
= 0.3
Florence Nightingale compared disease rates and other statistics for soldiers versus civilian populations. This is an example of __________.
Answer: Analytical epidemiology
Explanation: deals with the causes and effects of diseases, why they happened and how they occurred. In comparing the two populations, she sought to analyze the casual relationship between the two groups.
What type of plant life will be found along a tidal marsh?
Group of answer choices
water lilies
mainly algae and other aquatic plants
Nuphar
Soft-stemmed plants and many different types of grass.
Nuphar type of plant life will be found along a tidal marsh
Explanation:
Nuphar advena is really alike to Yellow Pond Lily, although its petals are normally kept scant bits over the water. It is being predominantly a species of tidal marshes on the Hudson River. Yellow Pond Lily can be differentiated from other features of the Nuphar species by the size of its petals and the size and appearance of its flowers.
For food and shelter, the snapping Turtles too practice Nuphar varieties. The food of Ducks in pond is comprised mostly of vegetative substances, particularly the grains of aquatic plants, including plants in the Nuphar variety.
If the chromosome number of a typical cell is 16 before Mitosis, what is the chromosome number of each newly formed nucleus after nuclear division has taken place?
Answer:
16
Explanation:
Mitosis is a type of cell division that maintains the DNA content and the chromosome number of the parent cell in the daughter cells. DNA replication occurs before mitosis during the S phase and the newly formed DNA is equally distributed among the daughter nuclei. Therefore, a parent cell with 16 chromosomes in its nucleus undergoes mitosis, two daughter nuclei will be formed by the end of mitosis and each of them would have 16 chromosomes.
During mitosis, each newly formed nucleus will have the same chromosome number as the original cell.
Explanation:During the process of mitosis, the chromosome number remains the same in each newly formed nucleus as in the original cell. In this case, if the chromosome number of a typical cell is 16 before mitosis, each newly formed nucleus will also have 16 chromosomes after nuclear division has taken place. This is because mitosis is a process of cellular replication where each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the parent cell's genetic material, including its chromosomes.
An ovary that is placed below other flower parts in an angiosperm is called A. monoecious B. inferior C. incomplete D. gynoecium E. substandard
Answer: The answer is inferior ovary
Explanation:
Whenever the other components of a flower such as petals and seals are placed in a position ABOVE the ovary i.e ovary is buried in the receptacle of the flower; such is called an INFERIOR OVARY
A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
Answer:
Because the yellow trait is dominant and the parent with this trait is homozygous for it.
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel performed experiments on pea plants, where he studied varying traits. In his experiments, he discovered that, for each trait, an organism (pea, in this case) receives two forms of gene called ALLELES, one from each parent. He stated in his law of segregation that these alleles randomly separate into gametes, with each gamete receiving only one allele from each parent. This alleles combine via the gamete to produce the genotype that determines the phenotype of the organism.
In a pair of allele, one allele is capable of masking the expression of another in a heterozygous state i.e. covering it up. The allele that masks or is expressed is called DOMINANT allele while the allele that is masked is called RECESSIVE allele.
Therefore, in this case, the allele for Yellow seed (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seeds (y). In a cross between two purebreds (homozygous) i.e identical alleles (YY and yy), all the F1 offsprings will possess a heterozygous genotype (Yy), which means they will all be phenotypically yellow-seeded because the allele for yellow will mask the expression of its green pair.
A man feels anxious and frightened because he senses that someone is following him home. Once he safely reaches home and locks the door, his heart and respiratory rate slow. Which parts of the nervous system were activated during these events, and in which order?1. Sympathetic; parasympathetic2. Parasympathetic; sympathetic3. Sensory somatic; autonomic4. Autonomic; sensory somatic
Answer:
1. Sympathetic; parasympathetic
Explanation:
When the person is under stress and scared, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is activated. This activated nervous system triggers the release of stress hormones from the adrenal gland and generates flight or fight response. During this response, the heartbeat and breathing rate of the person is increased, pupils become dilated and the blood supply to skeletal muscles is increased.
Once the person is out of danger and reached home, the parasympathetic nervous system is activated. It inhibits the physiological responses generated by the sympathetic division and slows down the breathing and heart rate. The activated parasympathetic division triggers digestion and absorption of nutrients to restore the energy levels of the cells.
The majority of the U.S. population will take a pain reliever that doubles as a fever reducer at the first hint of illness. Why is this not the best practice?
A) The fever inhibits the pathogen's ability to reproduce.
B) The fever allows the immune system to respond more strongly.
C) The fever produces holes in the pathogen's membrane.
D) The fever speeds up enzymatic reactions in the pathogen.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
Fever is the process of the body to eliminate the foreign particle such as Ag from the body body of an individual. Using pain reliever which is double of a fever reducer is not the best practice as it will impaired the first line of immunity which is fever.
Fever is the increase in the range of the temperature of the body at which it stops the replication or ability of reproducing of Ag in the body of the infected individual.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
A population of rabbits introduced to an island grows rapidly for a few years, and then growth slows and stabilizes. The population becomes stable because:
A) the intrinsic rate of increase has declined.
B) environmental resistance declined.
C) immigration was reduced.
D) the carrying capacity has been reached.
Answer:
The correct answer is D) the carrying capacity has been reached.
Explanation:
The carrying capacity of an ecosystem is determined by the maximum number of individuals of a species it can support indefinitely without significantly depleting the natural resource required for species survivability like food, water, etc.
So when a species is introduced in an area it can grow with the intrinsic rate until the environment reaches its carrying capacity. After carrying capacity has been reached then the number of individuals will not grow further and will become stabilized due to environmental resistance. Therefore the correct answer is D.
Final answer:
The rabbit population stabilized because it d) reached the carrying capacity of the environment, which is the maximum number of individuals that the resources can support.
Explanation:
The stable population of rabbits on the island became such due to the fact that d) the carrying capacity of the environment had been reached. After the initial period of exponential growth, where resources are plentiful and the birth rates exceed death rates, population growth slows and follows a logistical growth curve due to the limiting resources. This logistic growth leads to an S-shaped curve characteristic of populations approaching their carrying capacity. At this point, birth and death rates become stable, and the growth rate hits zero, indicating that the population size has stabilized at the maximum number the environment can manage. If the population were to go above this level, it would face intraspecific competition for the scarce resources and the number of individuals would decline until it stabilizes back at the carrying capacity again.
A client has a history of sickle cell anemia with several sickle cell crises over the past 10 years. What blood component results in sickle cell anemia?
Answer:
Answer is hemoglobin S.
Explanation:
Hemoglobin S is considered as an abnormal type of hemoglobin which a child can be inherited from the parents. This cause the red blood cells to have distinct shapes from their normal shape. The red blood cells will have a sickle shape which is different from their normal round disk shape.
In eukaryotes, translation is initiated only after transcription is completed. However, prokaryotes can initiate translation before a gene is completely transcribed. Which choice is the best explanation for this observation?
Answer:
The question lacks options, the options are:
A) Prokaryotic mRNA needs to be extensively processed before it can be translated.
B) Ribosomes, which translate the proteins, are found only outside the nucleus in prokaryotes.
C) Eukaryotic mRNA can be processed before ribosomes are moved into the nucleus to translate the protein.
D) Translation in eukaryotes cannot occur until the RNA leaves the nucleus, whereas in prokaryotes both transcription and translation occur in the cytoplasm.
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
The manner of gene expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes is somewhat similar but the distinguishing factor is where it occurs. Gene expression occurs in two stages: Transcription, where DNA is copied into an mRNA and Translation, where the mRNA is used to synthesize amino acid sequence that forms proteins.
An eukaryotic cell possesses a membrane bound nucleus, hence, its transcription process occurs in the nucleus where the DNA is located, the matured mRNA that results from the process is then transported out of the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm for translation to occur. However, prokaryotic cells lacks a nucleus, their DNA (genetic material) is found naked in the nucleid region of their cytoplasm, hence, both transcription and translation of their genetic material (DNA) occurs in the cytoplasm.
Since both processes occur in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes, it is possible to translate a mRNA while simultaneously transcribing the gene. As one part of the gene is transcribed into mRNA, it attaches to the ribosome and gets translated into amino acid. On the other hand, in eukaryotes, it cannot occur because the full transcript (mRNA) has to leave the nucleus first before getting translated.
In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which knee extension?
Answer:
The answer is the quadriceps.
Explanation:
The hamstring, located between the hip and the knee joint, is one of the biggest muscles in the human body and one of the three posterior thigh muscles. In order to properly stretch the hamstring so as not to cause any injuries, because the hamstring is one of the muscles most susceptible to injury, the person needs to stretch their quadriceps knee extension during the active supine biceps femoris stretch.
I hope this answer helps.
In an experiment, investigators try to control all of the variables except one—the one that tests the hypothesis. Which of the following reasons is the primary rationale for controlling variables in an experiment?
A. To enable investigators to repeat the test.
B. To create a control group.
C. To eliminate alternative explanations for the results of an experiment.
Answer:
To eliminate alternative explanations for the results of an experiment.
Explanation:
The scientific experiments include all the procedure and observations that are observed during the experiments. The scientific experiments explain about the correct scientific information.
The particular hypothesis is tested by the scientific experiments. The experiments include controls and the variables. The variable that are used as hypothesis is not controlled and the results are matched directly. The other variables are controlled as this includes the other alternative explanation of the particular result.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
The parent of a 3-month-old infant is concerned because the infant does not yet sit by oneself. Which statement best reflects average sitting ability?
Answer:
Most babies will not sit steadily until 8 months so she is normal
Explanation:
Developmental milestones are physical, social, emotional and cognitive skills seen in infants and children as they grow. They include; Rolling, crawling, walking and also talking. Milestones differ with age range.
At three months, an infant cannot sit by oneself because their lower back is still weak. At 8 months old is when a baby can sit by oneself.
However, at three months ,infants can turn their head towards the direction of sound.
It is normal for a 3-month-old infant not to sit independently as the average age for sitting alone is 7 months. There is no immediate reason for concern unless the infant shows delays on several developmental milestones. In case of multiple delays, seeking a pediatrician's advice is recommended.
The average sitting ability for infants typically develops around 7 months old, with a range from 5 to 9 months for most babies to achieve sitting independently. This milestone requires both coordination and muscle strength. It is normal for a 3-month-old infant not to be able to sit by oneself, as developmental milestones such as holding the head up come earlier, around 6 weeks on average, with most babies achieving this by 3 weeks to 4 months old. If at 3 months old the only concern is that the baby can't sit unsupported, there is no immediate cause for concern. However, if an infant shows delays in several milestones, it is advisable to consult a pediatrician, as early intervention can be very beneficial.
This organism lives in a hot spring in Yellowstone National Park and can tolerate high amounts of heat. It is unicellular and reproduces asexually.
Answer:
This organism belongs to kingdom Archaebacteria
Explanation:
Archebacteria are prokaryotic organisms which live in harsh climate like hot springs, salt marsh, arctic climate, acidic climate, etc. They lack membrane-bound nucleus and they reproduce asexually. They are unicellular like bacteria.
Earlier archaea and bacteria are considered into the same domain but after comparing their ribosomal sequence with bacteria and eukaryotes it was found that archaea is more closely related to eukaryotes than bacteria.
Archea who are present in hot spring produce those enzymes that help them to survive in high temperatures. So the correct answer is kingdom Archaebacteria.
Answer: Archaebacteria is the right answer.
Explanation:
You find an ancient spear and apply dendrochronological methodology to discover that its growth ring pattern corresponds to 5,000 years ago. You are not satisfied with this single method and want to corroborate the date using another approach. You turn to carbon-14 methodology. If the dendrochronology data are correct, how much carbon-14 (compared to modern wood) should be present in the spear.
Answer:
About 50%
Explanation:
If the ancient spear is correctly 5,000 years and the half-life of carbon 14 is 5,730 years then it will remain about 50% of the original carbon 14 content. Half-life is the amount of time it will take for the original amount of a substance present in another substance to decrease by half
. In pea plants, the allele for tall plants (T) is dominant to the allele for short plants (t). You observe that the offspring of a cross include 78 tall plants and 27 short plants. a. What was the probable allele combination of the two parent plants? b. How would your answer change if the offspring included 121 tall plants and 118 short plants?
Answer:
a) Genotype of each parent plant= Tt
b) Genotypes of parent plants= Tt and tt
Explanation:
a) In the first cross, the tall and short progeny was obtained in almost a 3:1 ratio (78: 27). This means that both the parent plants were heterozygous for the gene of plant height. The genotype of each of the parents was Tt. A cross between Tt and Tt gives following progeny ratio=
Tt x Tt = 3 tall (1/2 TT and 1/4 Tt) : 1 short (1/4 tt)
b) In the second cross, tall and short progeny was obtained in almost a 1: 1 ratio (121: 118). This means that one parent plant was homozygous recessive (tt) and the other was heterozygous dominant (Tt).
Tt x tt = 1 tall: 1 short.
The correct order of the taxonomic groups from most inclusive to most specific is species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom. True / False.
The statement is false; the correct order from most inclusive to most specific is Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species. Species is the most specific, and Domain is the most inclusive.
The statement given is false. The correct order of the taxonomic groups from most inclusive to most specific is actually the opposite. The hierarchy of biological classification's eight major taxonomic ranks can be remembered by the following: Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species, with Domain being the most inclusive and Species the most specific. In other words, species are grouped within genera, genera are grouped within families, families are grouped within orders, and so on up to the domain.
Using the taxa provided, the correct order from most specific to most inclusive is:
Species
Genus
Family
Order
Class
Phylum
Kingdom
Domain
Each level represents a more general grouping of organisms. At each classification category, organisms become more similar because they are more closely related. As we move up the ranks, the number of shared characteristics decreases, making the groups more inclusive.
Typical ratios resulting from epistatic interactions in dihybrid crosses would be ________. A) 9:3:3:1, 1:2:1 B) 1:1:1:1, 1:4:6:4:1 C) 9:3:4, 9:7 D) 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1, 1:2:1 E) 3:1, 1:1
Answer:
C) 9:3:4, 9:7
Explanation:
When there are no epistatic interactions, the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring resulting from a dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1:
9 A_B_ : 3A_bb : 3 aaB_ : 1 aabb
If there is epistasis, the ratios change, but the new ratios will be the addition of the ratios of two or more genotypes. For example, in the recessive epistasis (9:3:4), the recessive allele of one gene (let's say aa) mask the expression of the dominant allele of the other gene (in this case, B), so two different genotypes will have the same phenotype, and therefore their ratios will combine.
In the 9:3:4 epistasis, the phenotypic ratios 9:3:3:1 change to: 9 A_B_ : 3 A_bb : 4 aaB_/aabb.
On the other hand, in the epistasis due to complementary genes (9:7) at least one dominant allele of each gene needs to be present to produce a certain phenotype. Otherwise, the phenotype will be different. For example, a plant with A_B_ genotype will have colored flowers, and a plant with the genotypes A_bb, aaB_ or aabb will have white flowers. The new ratio would be 9 colored : 7 white.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, then what should happen in environments from which antibiotics are missing?
A) These genes should continue to be maintained in case the antibiotics ever appear.B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.C) The bacteria should try to make the cost worthwhile by locating, and migrating to, microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present.D) The bacteria should start making and secreting their own antibiotics.
Answer:
The correct answer is B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.
Explanation:
If a bacteria experience a cost of maintaining some antibiotic-resistant gene, then they will able to flourish more in that environment which contains the antibiotic against which the antibiotic-resistant gene is present in the bacteria.
But if this bacteria is grown in medium that lack antibiotic then this bacteria will be outcompeted replaced by those bacteria who have lost these genes because these new bacteria are more adapted to this condition than the antibiotic-resistant bacteria. Therefore the correct answer is B.
Antibiotics are missing B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes Therefore , B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes is correct .
In environments where antibiotics are absent or not present, the cost associated with maintaining antibiotic-resistance genes becomes a significant factor.
If a bacterium like Staphylococcus aureus carries antibiotic-resistance genes but does not encounter antibiotics in its environment, it will likely face a fitness disadvantage due to the energy and resources it expends to maintain these genes.
Natural selection favors traits that enhance an organism's survival and reproduction in its specific environment.
If the environment does not contain antibiotics or selective pressure for antibiotic resistance, the cost associated with maintaining resistance genes becomes a burden. Bacteria constantly strive to optimize resource allocation and maximize their fitness.
Bacteria with antibiotic-resistance genes may replicate at a slower rate or utilize resources less efficiently due to the cost of maintaining these genes.
In contrast, bacteria without these genes can allocate resources more effectively and may outcompete the resistant bacteria in a non-antibiotic environment.
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Explain three unique ways fungi are different from other microbes (algae, protozoans, bacteria and archaea). Compare things like cell walls, cell membranes, morphology, reproduction, life cycles.
Answer:
Whittaker explained by the five system classification in which the fungi is involved in the separated kingdom. The kingdom fungi shows different characteristics with the other group of organisms.
The cell walls of the fungi is made of chitin where as plant cell made of cellulose. The fungi can reproduce sexually as well as sexually by the formation of spores that are not found in different groups of organisms. The morphology is more or less differentiated in fungi as compared with other group of organisms.
The unique ways in which fungi are different from other microbes (algae, protozoans, bacteria and archaea) include:
1) For Cell walls:
The cell wall of fungi is composed of chitin.As opposed to the cell wall of some other microbes which is peptidoglycan.2). For cell membranes:
The cell membrane exists below the cell wall in other microbes as opposed to fungi3). For reproduction:
Fungi are able to reproduce either sexually or asexually. They are versatile in reproduction.Read more:
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You are an archaeologist who has just found an ancient fire ring containing charcoal fragments. You send these fragments to the lab for Carbon-14 analysis. The report you receive from the lab states that these fragments have 25% of the amount of Carbon-14 compared to modern wood. Using 5730 years as the half-life of Carbon-14, you conclude that these charcoal fragments are about ________ years old. Can you explain how you get an answer of 11460? Thank you!
Answer:Thus we can conclude that these charcoal fragments are about 11460 years old.
Explanation:
a) for completion of half life:
Half life is the amount of time taken by a radioactive material to decay to half of its original value.
[tex]t_{\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{0.693}{k}[/tex]
[tex]k=\frac{0.693}{5730years}=1.21\times 10^{-4}years^{-1}[/tex]
Expression for rate law for first order kinetics is given by:
[tex]t=\frac{2.303}{k}\log\frac{a}{a-x}[/tex]
where,
k = rate constant
t = age of sample
a = let initial amount of the reactant = 100
a - x = amount left after decay process = 25
b) for completion of 75 % of reaction
[tex]t=\frac{2.303}{1.21\times 10^{-4}}\log\frac{100}{25}[/tex]
[tex]t=11460years[/tex]
Thus we can conclude that these charcoal fragments are about 11460 years old.
A 10-year-old boy presents after noticing red streaks in his stool that began yesterday. He also complains of crampy periumbilical pain and his stools have been looser than normal since yesterday. A stool guaiac is positive. Exam is notable for non-blanching pinpoint macules on his ankles that appear slightly urticarial. What is the most likely etiology of the child's hematochezia?
ABacterial enteritis
BHemolytic uremic syndromeYour Answer
CHenoch-Schönlein purpuraCorrect Answer
DMeckel's diverticulum
Answer:
Henoch-Schönlein purpura.
Explanation:
Henoch-Schönlein purpura may be defined as the medical condition of the inflammation of the IgA antibodies in the blood vessels. This condition causes purpuric rash.
This disease mainly occurs on the lower extremities of the body and can show reddish purple patches. This might also cause vasculature and leads to the cramping in the abdominal area of the body. The stool guaiac test is positive in this condition.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
A falsely elevated hematocrit is obtained using a defective centrifuge. Which of the following calculated values will not be affected?
Answer:
Mean cell volume (MCV)
Explanation:
MCH. The MCH is Hgb X 10/RBC count and is not affected by the Hct.
Muscle cells make different proteins than nerve cells because they have different sequences of dna. True or False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
All the cells of a multicellular organism such as humans are derived from the zygote. Therefore, all the cells share identical DNA sequences irrespective of the tissues or the organs in which they are present. Muscle cells and nerve cells have identical DNA sequences but make different types of proteins due to tissues or organ-specific expression of some genes.
Muscle cells express specific genes and do not express the other genes which are otherwise expressed in the neuron cells. This spatial and tissue-specific expression of specific sets of genes allows the expression of different proteins in the different types of the cells of an organism despite the presence of identical DNA sequences in them.
The claim that muscle cells and nerve cells make different proteins because they have different sequences of DNA is false. The differing proteins stem from different genes in the same DNA sequence being expressed.
Explanation:The statement is false. Every cell in a single organism, including muscle cells and nerve cells, has the exact same DNA sequence. The difference in the proteins they make is due to a process called gene expression. Through gene expression, certain genes in the DNA are 'turned on' or 'turned off'. This process is what allows the cells to fulfil different functions in the body. Hence, muscle cells and nerve cells create different proteins not because they have different DNA sequences, but because they express different sections of the same DNA sequence.
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The plasma membrane is involved in which activities? Choose one or more:
1. import and export of nutrients and wastes
2. cell signaling
3. cell recognition
4. cell growth and motility
5. RNA interference
6. DNA replication and repair
Answer:
1. import and export of nutrients and wastes
2. cell signaling
3. cell recognition
4. cell growth and motility
Explanation:
Plasma membranes are selectively permeable which means it only allows selective molecules to cross through it. So the plasma membrane helps in the import and export of nutrients by simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion or through active transport.
There are membrane protein embedded in the plasma membrane which have different role. Some help in cell signaling like GPCR, some help in cell recognition and some act and transporter proteins.
The plasma membrane is also responsible for cell growth and motility because it allow the raw materials and signals to pass through it which is required by the cell to metabolize and grow. So 1,2,3,4 is the correct answer.
The plasma membrane plays a fundamental role in import/export of substances, cell signaling, cell recognition, and cell growth/motility. It does not directly contribute to RNA interference or DNA replication/repair.
Explanation:The plasma membrane is responsible for a number of vital cellular activities. It plays a crucial role in the import and export of nutrients and wastes. This mechanism allows for the exchange of substances vital for cellular activity and the elimination of waste generated by the cell. The membrane is also involved in cell signaling, allowing cells to communicate with each other. It does this through the use of specific receptor proteins embedded in the membrane. Another important function is cell recognition, which helps the body distinguish between its own cells and foreign cells. Lastly, it plays a role in cell growth and motility by expanding and aiding cell movements. It does not directly contribute to RNA interference, DNA replication, or repair, as these processes occur within the cellular interior.
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Explain why the change in the way that molecules of β-globin interact with each other lead to the sickling of the red blood cells in sickle cell disease.
Answer:
The sickle cell anemia occurs due to the point mutation in the beta globin chain. The valine is replaced by the glutamic acid at sixth position that results in the change in shape and size of the red blood cells.
The sickle blood cells have sickle cells as compared with the normal blood cells that are concave in shape. These cells become hydrophobic and the molecules gets stick with the blood cells. The oxygen binding capacity decreases and the sticky nature of the cells can form clot in the body.
Hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to _________ insulin secretion, and hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to _________ insulin secretion.
Answer: Stimulate; inhibit
Explanation:
Hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to STIMULATE insulin secretion, and hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to INHIBIT insulin secretion.
Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas and regulate blood sugar levels by
- signalling cells of the muscles and liver to store excess blood sugar during hyperglycemia, as GLYCOGEN.
In contrast, the pancreas inhibit insulin secretion during hypoglycemia, rather stimulates GLUCAGON to favor increased release of blood sugar to meet body needs.