Which structure in a stained cheek cell would most likely be visible when viewed through the high-power objective of a compound light microscope?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The nucleus.

Explanation:

Because it gets stained

Answer 2

The structure in a stained cheek cell that would most likely be visible when viewed through the high-power objective of a compound light microscope is the nucleus, as the nucleus can be visible with certain types of the stain.

What is the importance of the nucleus?

One of the most important functions of the nucleus is to store and replicate the cell's genetic material, which ensures that the genetic information is passed on from one generation of cells to the next through DNA replication, it also plays a key role in the expression of genes, which is the process by which the instructions in the DNA are used to produce proteins and other molecules through transcription, translation, etc.

Hence, the structure in a stained cheek cell that would most likely be visible when viewed through the high-power objective of a compound light microscope is the nucleus, as the nucleus can be visible with certain types of the stain.

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Related Questions

What is the expected outcome if DNA from an ampicillin resistant organism is incorporated into an ampicillin sensitive organism by transformation and then the resulting organisms are allowed to reproduce on agar containing ampicillin?

Answers

Answer:

Only transformed cells will grow on agar containing ampicillin.

Explanation:

If the DNA from an ampicillin-resistant organism is incorporated into an ampicillin sensitive organism then the transformed ampicillin sensitive organism will get ampicillin resistant gene.

So when this transformed organism will allow growing on the agar containing ampicillin then this transformed organism will easily grow and reproduce on agar containing ampicillin because now it has an ampicillin-resistant gene which will protect it from ampicillin antibiotic. So the transformed cell will grow on agar containing ampicillin.

Sotonic saline and 5% dextrose in water are solutions that are considered Isotonic to human blood. What effect on red blood cells would you expect if a patient were given these fluids in an IV? A solution of 10% dextrose in water is hypertonic to blood. What would happen if you were to infuse your pationt with this solution?

Answers

Answer/Explanation:

1. Isotonic solutions are those with the same concentration of solute as another - in this case of human blood cells. The two solutions are said to have the same osmotic pressure, meaning they are in an equilibrium, and nothing will happen to the red blood cells.

2. In contrast, hypertonic solutions have more solute and less water than another solution, in this case the cytoplasm of the blood cells. I.e. the solution is more concentrated than the human blood cells. Therefore, water will flow out of the cell by osmosis to try to reach an equilibrium. This means that the red blood cell will shrink and shrivel up, as water leaves the cell in to the surrounding environment

Final answer:

Isotonic solutions like saline or 5% dextrose maintain the normal shape of RBCs by creating an osmotic equilibrium. Hypertonic solutions, like 10% dextrose, have a higher solute concentration than blood, causing water to leave RBCs, potentially leading to cell shrinkage and damage.

Explanation:

When a patient is given an isotonic saline solution or a 5% dextrose solution, it matches the solute concentration of human blood. As such, the red blood cells (RBCs) maintain their normal shape because water flows equally in and out of the cells, creating a state known as osmotic equilibrium.

However, a 10% dextrose solution is hypertonic, meaning it has a higher solute concentration compared to human blood. When a patient is given a hypertonic solution, water will leave the red blood cells to try to equalize the solute concentration. This can cause the cells to shrink or crenate, potentially leading to cell damage. Therefore, care must be taken when administering hypertonic solutions.

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A young student is trying to recapitulate an experiment discussed in the text. She introduces single-celled green algae into a petri dish containing predatory protists. After several generations, what will she observe?

A)The protists will produce multicellular colonies.
B)Green algae will form multicellular colonies.
C)Green algae will remain unicellular (i.e., there is no benefit to forming multicellular structures).
D)Both protists and green algae will remain unicellular.
E)None of the answer options is correct.

Answers

She will observe that Green algae will form multi-cellular colonies.

Explanation:

There are different advantages that can be obtained from the  characteristics of multicellularity of algae. The main thing that is very essential for the the nature of multicellularity is the coordination and cell interaction in algae. The cell communication can be achieved by the transfer of materials of cytoplasm.

The cellcommunication can also be achieved through the molecules that are diffusible in nature. these are are the unique and common characteristics of the organisams that are multicellular. They will be following a varied pattern of cell growth and cell division to form colonies.

This organism lives in a hot spring in Yellowstone National Park and can tolerate high amounts of heat. It is unicellular and reproduces asexually.

Answers

Answer:

This organism belongs to kingdom Archaebacteria

Explanation:

Archebacteria are prokaryotic organisms which live in harsh climate like hot springs, salt marsh, arctic climate, acidic climate, etc. They lack membrane-bound nucleus and they reproduce asexually.  They are unicellular like bacteria.

Earlier archaea and bacteria are considered into the same domain but after comparing their ribosomal sequence with bacteria and eukaryotes it was found that archaea is more closely related to eukaryotes than bacteria.

Archea who are present in hot spring produce those enzymes that help them to survive in high temperatures. So the correct answer is kingdom Archaebacteria.

Answer:  Archaebacteria is the right answer.

Explanation:

An individual who is heterozygous for two linked genes (with alleles A, a and B, b) is crossed with an a b/a b individual, and among the progeny are the following
14 AB/ab
36 Ab/ab
34 aB/ab
16 ab/ab
What is the frequency of recombination?
a) 0.60
b) 0.30
c) 0.40
d) 0.70

Answers

Answer:

b) 0.30

Explanation:

An individual who is heterozygous for two linked genes (with alleles A, a and B, b)

i.e Aa & Bb × ab/ab

This cross produce the following offspring :

14 AB/ab  

36 Ab/ab  

34 aB/ab  

16 ab/ab

Now, the purpose of these calculation is to determine how close together on a gene (gene mapping) these recombinants are.

First, we need to determine the linked gene for the parental chromosomal configurations which are (Aa & Bb × ab/ab) and the recombinant configurations in the offspring which are ( AB/ab & ab/ab). This allows for the calculation of the recombinant frequency; and it is given by:  

= [tex]\frac{number of recombinant frequency}{total number of offspring}[/tex]

=[tex]\frac{14+16}{14+36+34+16}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{30}{100}[/tex]

= 0.3

The majority of the U.S. population will take a pain reliever that doubles as a fever reducer at the first hint of illness. Why is this not the best practice?
A) The fever inhibits the pathogen's ability to reproduce.
B) The fever allows the immune system to respond more strongly.
C) The fever produces holes in the pathogen's membrane.
D) The fever speeds up enzymatic reactions in the pathogen.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - option A.

Explanation:

Fever is the process of the body to eliminate the foreign particle such as Ag from the body body of an individual. Using pain reliever which is double of a fever reducer is not the best practice as it will impaired the first line of immunity which is fever.

Fever is the increase in the range of the temperature of the body at which it stops the replication or ability of reproducing of Ag in the body of the infected individual.

Thus, the correct answer is - option A.

Hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to _________ insulin secretion, and hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to _________ insulin secretion.

Answers

Answer: Stimulate; inhibit

Explanation:

Hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to STIMULATE insulin secretion, and hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels) would cause the pancreas to INHIBIT insulin secretion.

Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas and regulate blood sugar levels by

- signalling cells of the muscles and liver to store excess blood sugar during hyperglycemia, as GLYCOGEN.

In contrast, the pancreas inhibit insulin secretion during hypoglycemia, rather stimulates GLUCAGON to favor increased release of blood sugar to meet body needs.

A gene is considered to be non-Mendelian in its inheritance pattern if it seems to "violate" Mendel's laws. Which of the following would then NOT be considered non-Mendelian?
A gene whose expression varies depending on the gender of the transmitting parent
A gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters
A gene transmitted via the cytoplasm or cytoplasmic structures
A gene derived solely from maternal inheritance
A gene transmitted by a virus to egg-producing cells

Answers

Answer:

A gene transmitted to males from the maternal line and from fathers to daughters.

Explanation:

Gregor Mendel through his research on pea plants, came up with three laws which are:

The Law of Segregation of genes: Each inherited trait is defined by a pair of  gene alleles. Genes are randomly separated to the sex cells so that sex cells contain only one allele of the pair.  The Law of Dominance: An organism with alternate forms of a gene will express the form that is dominant. The Law of Independent Assortment: Genes for different traits are sorted separately from one another so that the inheritance of one trait is not dependent on the inheritance of another.

In His work, he established the basic patterns of inheritance and it wasn't until after his death that sex linked inheritance patterns were identified.

He believed that a pair of genes called alleles, were transmitted, each allele from one parent and both alleles transmitted from each parent constituted the complete pair in the offspring.

However, if different variants of the same gene were inherited from both parents, the dominant gene is expressed in the offspring (phenotype).

Since the basis of his work established genes being equally transmitted by both parents to offspring, the variations being due to dominance, genes transmitted from mother to son and from father to daughter, follows the Mendelian pattern of inheritance.

Genetic variation _____. a. must be present in a population b. before natural selection can act upon the population c. arises in response to changes in the environment d. is created by the direct action of natural selection

Answers

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

This is the change in the amino acid sequence of DNA of an organism.

It is one of mechanisms of  Natural selection. Variation  makes some organism to develop selective advantages over others in the same population. Therefore they have resistance to selection pressure and more natural selected   above  others organisms in the same population

Final answer:

Genetic variation must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population.

Explanation:

Genetic variation must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population. It refers to the differences in the genetic material (DNA) among individuals within a population or species. The presence of genetic variation provides the raw material for natural selection to work on, as it allows certain traits to be favored or disadvantaged based on their fitness in a given environment.

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If the period of a wave decreases, its frequency must

A. decrease
B. halve
C. stay the same
D. increase

Answers

Answer:

D - increase

Explanation:

Answer: Its frequency increases

Explanation:

Period is the time taken for an object to complete a full cycle or revolution.

It is the inverse of frequency

i.e Period = 1/frequency

Thus, decrease in period is proportional to an INCREASE in frequency

While in South America, you come across what you think are two groups of birds in the same location. They are nearly identical aside from their color. After years of observation, you conclude that the birds eat similar diets and share similar behaviors but do not reproduce with each other. These groups of birds appear to be an example of:__________A) a single biological species.B) ring species.C) two different species on the basis of reproductive behavior.D) two different species on the basis of the ecological niche occupied.E) a single ecological species.

Answers

Answer: The answer is option C) two different species on the basis of reproductive behavior

Explanation:

This situation observed in South America is a good example of Sympatric speciation.

Where, two organisms similar in many respects by

- occurring in the same territory, differing ONLY as two different species because they DO NOT interbreed - thus, becoming different species on the basis of reproductive behavior.

So, option C is the answer

In eukaryotes, translation is initiated only after transcription is completed. However, prokaryotes can initiate translation before a gene is completely transcribed. Which choice is the best explanation for this observation?

Answers

Answer:

The question lacks options, the options are:

A) Prokaryotic mRNA needs to be extensively processed before it can be translated.

B) Ribosomes, which translate the proteins, are found only outside the nucleus in prokaryotes.

C) Eukaryotic mRNA can be processed before ribosomes are moved into the nucleus to translate the protein.

D) Translation in eukaryotes cannot occur until the RNA leaves the nucleus, whereas in prokaryotes both transcription and translation occur in the cytoplasm.

The correct answer is D

Explanation:

The manner of gene expression in prokaryotes and eukaryotes is somewhat similar but the distinguishing factor is where it occurs. Gene expression occurs in two stages: Transcription, where DNA is copied into an mRNA and Translation, where the mRNA is used to synthesize amino acid sequence that forms proteins.

An eukaryotic cell possesses a membrane bound nucleus, hence, its transcription process occurs in the nucleus where the DNA is located, the matured mRNA that results from the process is then transported out of the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm for translation to occur. However, prokaryotic cells lacks a nucleus, their DNA (genetic material) is found naked in the nucleid region of their cytoplasm, hence, both transcription and translation of their genetic material (DNA) occurs in the cytoplasm.

Since both processes occur in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes, it is possible to translate a mRNA while simultaneously transcribing the gene. As one part of the gene is transcribed into mRNA, it attaches to the ribosome and gets translated into amino acid. On the other hand, in eukaryotes, it cannot occur because the full transcript (mRNA) has to leave the nucleus first before getting translated.

Explain why the change in the way that molecules of β-globin interact with each other lead to the sickling of the red blood cells in sickle cell disease.

Answers

Answer:

The sickle cell anemia occurs due to the point mutation in the beta globin chain. The valine is replaced by the glutamic acid at sixth position that results in the change in shape and size of the red blood cells.

The sickle blood cells have sickle cells as compared with the normal blood cells that are concave in shape. These cells become hydrophobic and the molecules gets stick with the blood cells. The oxygen binding capacity decreases and the sticky nature of the cells can form clot in the body.

A student preparing for a hike wants to pack a snack that has biomolecules that provide quickly available Energy but few excess calories.Which nutrición label list the best combination of biomolecules the provide quickly available energy while providing the fewest calories form other types of moleculee

Answers

Answer:d

Explanation:

Gap junctions allow direct communication or ionic flow between adjacent cells for a(n) ________ synapse, while synapses that use neurotransmitters to signal from the presynaptic to postsynaptic cell are called ________.

Answers

Answer:

1. Electrical synapse

2. Chemical synapse

Explanation:

The nervous system is composed of the billions of neurons which communicate with each other through the generated nerve impulse. The transmission of the nerve impulse depends on the movement of ions which generate an electric impulse.

The impulse is passed from one neuron to another neuron through the neuronal gaps called synapses.

The neurons which transmit the signal in the form of the electrical signal through the gap junctions between the neurons which allow the direct transmission of the signal. The synapse in such neurons is known as an electrical synapse.

The neurons which transmit the signal by converting the electrical signal to chemical signal in the form of neurotransmitter contain the synapse called chemical signals.

Thus, Electrical synapse and Chemical synapse are correct.

Final answer:

Gap junctions enable direct electrical communication between cells in an electrical synapse, often found between certain interneurons and glial cells, whereas chemical synapses use neurotransmitters to facilitate intercellular communication.

Explanation:

Gap junctions allow direct communication or ionic flow between adjacent cells for a(n) electrical synapse, while synapses that use neurotransmitters to signal from the presynaptic to postsynaptic cell are called chemical synapses. Gap junctions are created by pairs of hemichannels, which are made up of connexin proteins.

These junctions permit the flow of cations, anions, and even small molecules such as ATP between cells, allowing for direct electrical signal propagation. Electrical synapses facilitated by these gap junctions are vital for certain interneurons in the brain and the retina as well as between glial cells like astrocytes. Whereas chemical synapses involve the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic cell which then bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell, initiating a response.

If the mouse was in a wire cage and only the weights of the mouse, food, and water were considered, would you come to the same answer as in Part A?

Answers

Answer:

Here is the full question:

(A) If a closed container contains a mouse as well as enough food, water, and oxygen for the mouse to live for 3 weeks,

How much will the container weigh 1 and 2 weeks later after the  mouse has eaten, drunk and exercised (respiration is CO2 emission), and why?

(B) If the mouse was in a wire cage and only the weights of the mouse, food, and water were considered, would you come to the same answer as in (A) and why?

Explanation:

(A) The mouse will weigh the same. This is because solids, liquid, and gases cannot escape the closed container. All of the life processes involving reactions conserve the atoms involved. Some of those atoms will appear in the form of gases, some as solids, and others as liquids but all will be retained in the closed container.

(B) In a wire cage, gases can escape. This means that the weight will not be the same after 1 and 2 weeks. The weight would be less than the original weight of the mouse, it's food, and it's water.

Florence Nightingale compared disease rates and other statistics for soldiers versus civilian populations. This is an example of __________.

Answers

Answer: Analytical epidemiology

Explanation: deals with the causes and effects of diseases, why they happened and how they occurred. In comparing the two populations, she sought to analyze the casual relationship between the two groups.

The semilunar valves of the heart open at the onset of the ejection period. Approximately what percentage of the stroke volume is ejected during the first quarter of systole?

Answers

The percentage of the stroke volume is ejected during the first quarter of systole will be approximately 60% to 65%

Explanation:

The time interval between the atria contraction and the relaxation of ventricles are called as a Cardiac cycle. Systole denotes the heart contraction during the blood pumping. Diastole refers to the heart relaxation when the blood is filled in the heart chambers. The total blood is not fully pumped by the ventricles.

Instead they will pump only a proportion of blood in each of the cardiac cycle.  The ejection fraction refers to the proportion of the intraventricular volume that is received as a output in circulation process. A human with normal heart functioning can have approximately 60-65%. This is known to be stroke volume. The blood volume that is ejected is strove volume.

The cerebellum and basal nuclei are involved in regulating motor activity, starting and stopping movements, and coordinating postural movements.

A. True
B. False

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - True.

Explanation:

The cerebellum is the major part of the brain that receives the sensory information and regulate the motor movements. The information that is come from the various parts of the brain helps motor neurons to coordinate different functions such as speech, balancing, maintaining posture.

It is the part of the base of the brain which is responsible for the various functions such as coordination and body movements. It is made up of the four bunch of nerve cells.

Thus, the correct answer is - true.

Final answer:

The cerebellum coordinates body movements and balance, whereas the basal nuclei regulate motor activity, initiation and termination of movements, and postural adjustments, making the statement true.

Explanation:

The statement regarding the cerebellum and basal nuclei (also known as basal ganglia) is True. The cerebellum is located just below the cerebrum and at the back of the brain, resting on top of the brainstem. It plays a crucial role in coordinating body movements, including balance, and is instrumental in motor tasks that are learned through repeated practice, such as playing a sport or typing. It achieves this by receiving and integrating sensory feedback from various parts of the body through numerous nerve pathways. On the other hand, the basal ganglia are a group of structures in the brain that help to regulate motor activity, including the initiation and termination of movements, as well as postural adjustments, alongside facilitating self-motivation.

Damage to which portion of the limbic system results in loss of memory of recent events and difficulty committing anything new to memory?
a. Cerebellum
b. Substantia nigra
c. Thalamus
d. Hippocampus
e. Hypothalamus

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is D. (Hippocampus)

Explanation:

Hippocampus is known as the part of the brain and situated in the bottom middle section inner folds which are called the temporal lobe. The main function of the hippocampus is memory and learning. It plays an important role in retrieve two types of memory which are known as declarative memories and spatial relationship memories.

1) Declarative memories: It is related to events and facts such as learning how to memorize lines.

2) Spatial relationship memories: It is related to routes and pathways such as when a driver learns pathways through the city.

Final answer:

Damage to the hippocampus in the limbic system causes the loss of recent memories and impairs the formation of new memories. It is critical for memory consolidation, unlike the substantia nigra, which is in the midbrain and related to movement.

Explanation:

The portion of the limbic system that when damaged results in the loss of memory of recent events and issues with forming new memories is the hippocampus. The hippocampus is vital for the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory and in spatial memory that enables navigation. Damage to this area, as in the famous case of patient H. M., who had his hippocampi removed, can lead to severe memory impairment, where the ability to form new declarative (explicit) memories is lost.

Regarding the structures of the forebrain, the substantia nigra is not part of the forebrain; it is located in the midbrain and is involved in reward and movement. When examining other parts of the brain such as the cerebellum, it is worth noting that this area is associated with motor learning and classical conditioning but is not involved with memory consolidation like the hippocampus.

You have learned that the envirronment affects how organisms vhange over generations. How would you explain a species that remains the same for millions?

Answers

Answer:

Selection might be the reason why a given organism does not change over generations

Explanation:

This statement might be a very rare case in nature to be observed. There are some particular scenarios that can provide such cases. Imagine you are on an island that the environment conditions are not too much variable. In such conditions, the organisms that live on that island does not suffer a high amount of selective pressure from the environment. Although changes might naturally occur because of mutations on the genome, the stable conditions of the environment do not exert changes on the living organisms, and most importantly, the eventually changes that mutations provide, will be cancelled by the same stable environment conditions. So, the given species might remain the same for millions of years.

A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?

Answers

Answer:

Because the yellow trait is dominant and the parent with this trait is homozygous for it.

Explanation:

Gregor Mendel performed experiments on pea plants, where he studied varying traits. In his experiments, he discovered that, for each trait, an organism (pea, in this case) receives two forms of gene called ALLELES, one from each parent. He stated in his law of segregation that these alleles randomly separate into gametes, with each gamete receiving only one allele from each parent. This alleles combine via the gamete to produce the genotype that determines the phenotype of the organism.

In a pair of allele, one allele is capable of masking the expression of another in a heterozygous state i.e. covering it up. The allele that masks or is expressed is called DOMINANT allele while the allele that is masked is called RECESSIVE allele.

Therefore, in this case, the allele for Yellow seed (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seeds (y). In a cross between two purebreds (homozygous) i.e identical alleles (YY and yy), all the F1 offsprings will possess a heterozygous genotype (Yy), which means they will all be phenotypically yellow-seeded because the allele for yellow will mask the expression of its green pair.

Karen falls down a flight of stairs and suffers spinal cord damage due to hyperextension of the cord during the fall. The injury results in edema of the spinal cord with resulting compression of the anterior horn cells of the spinal region. What signs would you expect to observe as a result of this injury?

Answers

Answer:

The spinal cord plays an important role in the organisms as all the nerves are extended from the spinal and the important component of the central nervous system.  The spinal cord plays an important role in the reflex action as well.

The spinal cord control the movement and functioning of the motor neurons. The injury in the spinal cord can cause the problem in sitting, standing or walking. The control of the skeletal muscles  of the lower limb of the body gets disturb during the spinal cord injury.

Final answer:

Following a fall resulting in spinal cord damage and compression of the anterior horn cells, Karen is likely to exhibit muscle weakness, loss of fine motor skills, and potentially paralysis in the muscles serviced by the affected spinal region. These symptoms stem from the impaired transmission of nerve impulses from the damaged cells to the muscles.

Explanation:

Karen's spinal cord damage due to hyperextension during a fall, resulting in edema and compression of the anterior horn cells, is a serious medical condition. The anterior horn cells, located in the gray matter of the spinal cord, are primarily responsible for initiating voluntary muscle contractions. When these cells are compromised, the most prominent signs one would expect to observe include muscle weakness, loss of fine motor skills, and in severe cases, paralysis of muscles in the affected regions. These symptoms occur because the damaged anterior horn cells cannot effectively transmit nerve impulses to the muscles, disrupting the neural circuitry that facilitates voluntary movement.

Moreover, the extent and severity of these symptoms largely depend on the specific segment of the spinal cord that is damaged. Since the spinal cord operates as the primary conduit for sending signals between the brain and the body, injuries to different segments can affect bodily control and sensation in various ways. Thus, immediate medical assessment and intervention are crucial to mitigate the impact of such injuries and enhance the chances of recovery.

What type of plant life will be found along a tidal marsh?
Group of answer choices

water lilies

mainly algae and other aquatic plants

Nuphar

Soft-stemmed plants and many different types of grass.

Answers

Nuphar type of plant life will be found along a tidal marsh

Explanation:

Nuphar advena is really alike to Yellow Pond Lily, although its petals are normally kept scant bits over the water. It is being predominantly a species of tidal marshes on the Hudson River. Yellow Pond Lily can be differentiated from other features of the Nuphar species by the size of its petals and the size and appearance of its flowers.

For food and shelter, the snapping Turtles too practice Nuphar varieties. The food of Ducks in pond is comprised mostly of vegetative substances, particularly the grains of aquatic plants, including plants in the Nuphar variety.

Alan is a 47-year-old man who has no documentation of a primary series of tetanus-containing vaccine. Which of the following would be an appropriate primary series for Alan?

Answers

Explanation:

For people 7 years of age and older who have not been previously immunized against tetanus, WHO recommends a 3-dose primary vaccination series with tetanus-diphtheria containing vaccine followed by 3 booster doses, to be protected throughout life.

Answer:

The appropriate primary vaccination series is as follows:

First dose - week oneSecond dose - 4 - 8 weeks after the first doseThird dose - 6 - 12 months after the second dose

A scientist collects a spore from a new species of fungus and observes that this spore has a flagellum. What does the presence of a flagellum suggest about the lifestyle of this species?

Answers

The question is incorrect as it does not have the options which are:

Its spores are produced asexually. It is an endomycorrhizal fungus. It is aquatic. It relies on insects for spore dispersal. It is unicellular.

Answer:

It is aquatic.

Explanation:

The spores are the asexual reproductive units produced by the algae and fungi which helps in the dispersal of the species.

When the spores possess the flagella, the spores are known as the zoospores which are produced in the zoosporangium.

The zoospores are the characteristic of the aquatic fungi like Synchytrium which are thin-walled and germinate to form a new mycelium.

Thus, the fungi are aquatic is the correct answer.

Answer:

The answer is B

Explanation:

Hope it helps  :)

In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which knee extension?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is the quadriceps.

Explanation:

The hamstring, located between the hip and the knee joint, is one of the biggest muscles in the human body and one of the three posterior thigh muscles. In order to properly stretch the hamstring so as not to cause any injuries, because the hamstring is one of the muscles most susceptible to injury, the person needs to stretch their quadriceps knee extension during the active supine biceps femoris stretch.

I hope this answer helps.

An ovary that is placed below other flower parts in an angiosperm is called A. monoecious B. inferior C. incomplete D. gynoecium E. substandard

Answers

Answer: The answer is inferior ovary

Explanation:

Whenever the other components of a flower such as petals and seals are placed in a position ABOVE the ovary i.e ovary is buried in the receptacle of the flower; such is called an INFERIOR OVARY

Explain three unique ways fungi are different from other microbes (algae, protozoans, bacteria and archaea). Compare things like cell walls, cell membranes, morphology, reproduction, life cycles.

Answers

Answer:

Whittaker explained by the five system classification in which the fungi is involved in the separated kingdom. The kingdom fungi shows different characteristics with the other group of organisms.

The cell walls of the fungi is made of chitin where as plant cell made of cellulose. The fungi can reproduce sexually as well as sexually by the formation of spores that are not found in different groups of organisms. The morphology is more or less differentiated in fungi as compared with other group of organisms.

The unique ways in which fungi are different from other microbes (algae, protozoans, bacteria and archaea) include:

1) For Cell walls:

The cell wall of fungi is composed of chitin.As opposed to the cell wall of some other microbes which is peptidoglycan.

2). For cell membranes:

The cell membrane exists below the cell wall in other microbes as opposed to fungi

3). For reproduction:

Fungi are able to reproduce either sexually or asexually. They are versatile in reproduction.

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During which phase does the cleavage furrow start forming

Answers

Answer:

EARLY ANAPHASE

Explanation:

A cleavage furrow is a division which occurs in a cell's surface before cell division. It begins with cell's “pinching” its cell membrane and cytoplasm down the middle resulting in formation of two daughter cells.

Animal cell cleavage furrow is as a result of a ring of actin microfilaments known as the contractile ring, formed during EARLY ANAPHASE. The resultant bridge is divided and rearranged to yield two identical daughter cells when cytokinesis is occurring.

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