Which organs are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Liver and spleen is primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation.

Explanation:

Red blood cells that are old, tear and worn out requires the removal of these cells from the circulation. Spleen removes the old and worn cells by  the process of phagocytosis. Macrophages present in the spleen phagocytose the worn RBCs and old RBCs are recycled by the spleen.

Liver also removes the old and worn RBCs from the circulation and recycles iron present in the red blood cells. Liver rely on the buffer system that consume worn RBCs and  has the ability of recycling iron.

Answer 2
Final answer:

The spleen and liver are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells, helped by macrophages in those organs and the bone marrow. These organs ensure the continual renewal of healthy RBCs in circulation.

Explanation:

The organs that are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells (RBCs) from circulation are the spleen, liver, and to some extent, the bone marrow. RBCs have a lifespan of approximately 120 days, after which they become old or damaged. These worn-out cells are then phagocytized by a type of myeloid phagocytic cell called a macrophage. Macrophages located within the spleen, liver, and bone marrow perform this task efficiently. The spleen acts as a blood filter and also serves as a reservoir for immune factors, whereas the liver processes the components of the degraded erythrocytes' hemoglobin, turning them into bile pigments for excretion.

The kidneys also play a vital role in the circulatory system by filtering the blood, removing waste products and excessive or free hemoglobin, especially during hemolysis, where RBCs are broken down and their hemoglobin is released into the bloodstream, but the primary role in the removal of old RBCs lies with the spleen and liver.


Related Questions

The presence of the Rh factor on the red blood cell tells you whether or not you have the Rh ____.
A. antigen
B. antibody
C. agglutinin
D. pathogen

Answers

Answer: A. antigen

Explanation:

An antigen is a protein that is present over the surface of the red blood cells. The type of antigen present over the surface of the red blood cell determine the blood type ( A, B, AB, O). The Rh factor is an antigen which is an inherited protein that can be found over the surface of the red blood cells. If an individual posses Rh antigen in the blood that will exhibit the Rh positive blood type. The one which does not posses the Rh antigen in the blood will be consider as Rh negative blood type.  

Water and Ion Balance (pick the incorrect statement). (a) Compared to a small mammal, a large mammal can be more active during a hot sunny day because it has a small surface area to volume ratio minimizing heat exchange with the environment. (b) When dehydrated, a camel stores nitrogenous wastes in its tissues to conserve water. (c) Temperature regulation can have a significant impact on water and ion balance, particularly for terrestrial endotherms. (d) A small desert mammal (e.g. a kangaroo rat) can minimize water loss by temporarily suspending thermoregulation and allowing its body temperature to fluctuate.

Answers

Answer:

Option (b) When dehydrated, a camel stores nitrogenous wastes in its tissues to conserve water.

Explanation:

The camel has good a hump on its back that helps with water storage. This is also made up of a water soluble fatty substance and fats. The water regulation is also controlled by the nephron which is an integral part of the kidney. The nephron has the Loop of Henle that regulates the retention of the water in the body. When there is no water, the potential of the ions force the water back into the kidneys so that the cells do not get disturbed. The nitrogenous wastes are expelled out as soon as possible because they form ammonium salts that may disturb the cell metabolism.

Hence, option (b) is not true.

Final answer:

The incorrect statement is that camels store nitrogenous wastes in tissues. In truth, camels and other mammals concentrate urine. Large mammals can be more active in the heat due to their favorable surface area-to-volume ratio and efficient temperature regulation that affects water balance.

Explanation:

The incorrect statement in the question regarding water and ion balance is 'When dehydrated, a camel stores nitrogenous wastes in its tissues to conserve water.' The correct process that camels and other mammals use when dehydrated is not to store nitrogenous wastes in tissues but to concentrate urines, like urea, to conserve water. Camel kidneys are extremely efficient at reabsorbing water to minimize water loss.

Large mammals, compared to small ones, have a smaller surface area-to-volume ratio, which indeed minimizes heat exchange with the environment and allows them to be more active during the heat of the day. This can be understood in the context of their heat conservation mechanisms, such as having layers of fat and sometimes fur or feathers for insulation.

Temperature regulation is intrinsically linked to water and ion balance, particularly in terrestrial endotherms which must maintain homeostasis in internal temperature. Thermoregulation can lead to water loss through mechanisms like sweating or panting. Conversely, small desert mammals like the kangaroo rat have adaptations, such as very efficient kidneys, to minimize water loss. Varying thermoregulation may allow them to cope with extreme temperatures while conserving water, but suspending thermoregulation entirely would be detrimental to their survival.

You are a scientist. Somehow, you get a hold of a sample from a celestial body located far away from Earth. Some of your colleagues allege that the sample has evidence of life in that other part of the universe. What tests would you perform to support the hypothesis that the sample may have contained traces of past life?

Answers

You could test for dna with restriction enzymes or test for proteins with random enzymes

The manubrium articulates with the ________ on its superior border.

Answers

The manubrium articulates with the clavicles on its superior border.

Fat, sugars and proteins after digested to their monomers are converted to which molecule when they enter TCA (krebs) cycle?

Answers

Answer:

Acetyl CoA

Explanation:

Fat, sugars and proteins are digested into their monomers namely fatty acid and glycerol, simple sugar and amino acids respectively. These simple chemicals are finally digested into acetyl CoA.

Acetyl CoA enters the TCA cycle and is completely broken down into CO2 and H2O.  The energy released during redox reactions of the TCA cycle is stored in the form of NADH and FADH2 which then enter the oxidative phosphorylation.

Which is larger?
a. muscle fiber
b. muscle filament

Answers

Muscle filament it's correct

Explain the cellular functions that occur when antibiotics attack a bacteria cell.

a. antibiotics target the cell wall, cell membrane, and the processes of protein and nucleic acids production in bacteria to rupture the cell.
b. antibiotics create dormant resistant endospores to preserve the genetic material and rupture the cell.
c. antibiotics target the cell wall and form a bridge-like connection to form conjugation.
d. antibiotics use binary fission to grow twice its size, replications its DNA, and split into two cells.

Answers

That would be A.

Most antibiotics that are used for gram positive bacteria target the peptidoglycan cell wall, but the ones for gram negative bacteria are more advanced and specific and target the cell membrane and alter the cell’s function(processes of proteins and dna/gene expression).

Answer: A, antibiotics target the cell wall, cell membrane, and the processes of protein and nucleic acids production in bacteria to rupture the cell.

Explanation:

Because I am smort. I got a big fat brain.

A two-headed muscle (part of hamstring)
a. Vastus lateralis
b. Biceps femoris

Answers

Answer:

I believe this is the Biceps femoris

Explanation:

Where do sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and symphathetic postganglionic fibers found?

Answers

Answer:

These are found in the submucosal plexus

Explanation:

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Which of the following is/are phase(s) of the uterine cycle?
a. menstrual phase only
b. both menstrual and secretory phases
c. proliferative phase only
d. secretory phase only
e. menstrual, secretory, and proliferative phases

Answers

Answer:

e. menstrual, secretory, and proliferative phases

Explanation:

Proliferative phase (days 5-15) includes thickening of the endometrium of the uterine wall under the influence of estrogen hormone released by developing follicles.  

This is followed by secretory phase (days 15-28) during which endometrium proliferate at a fast rate and the matured uterine glands secrete mucoid secretion.

If fertilization does not occur, the secretory phase is followed by menstrual phase (days 1-5) during which the endometrium is disintegrated and the associated blood vessels rupture leading to menses.  

Fungi cannot make their own food through photosynthesis. How do they take in nutrients?

essay question

Answers

Answer: Saprophytic mode of nutrition

Explanation:

Fungi are the group of organism that feed on the dead and decaying organism by feeding on them.

Fungi release digestive enzymes and performs extracellular digestion on it.They breakdown the complex organic food material into simple nutrients that can be absorbed by fungi.

This is how the fungi obtain energy to survive.

Describe the neurulation process beginning with the formation of the notochord

Answers

Answer:

The neurulation process involves two steps: Primary neural induction and Secondary neural induction.

Explanation:

Neurulation may be defined as the process of formation of neural tube from the neural plate. Neurulation starts when the notochord induces the formation of central nervous system.

Two main stages of neurulation are:

Primary neural induction: Primary neurulation is the process of transformation of flat neural plate into circular neural plate. Gene products gradient determines the induction of neural plate.

Secondary neurulation: The medullary cord is formed by the neural ectoderm and endoderm. Cavites formed from the medullary cord changes into the single neural tube.

_____ cells are commonly dispersed (mixed in) with simple columnar epithelial cells. They are responsible for secreting mucus.
a. Mast cells
b. Ciliated
c. Goblet cells
d. Macrophages
e. Red blood cells

Answers

Answer:

"Macrophages" cells are commonly dispersed (mixed in) with simple columnar epithelial cells. They are responsible for secreting mucus.

Explanation:

Which of the following types of cells can directly kill cells and secretes a chemical known as perforin which accomplishes the killing by producing pore-like openings in the membranes of cells?
a. Cytotoxic T cells
b. Helper T cells
c. Antibodies
d. Natural killer cells

Answers

Answer:

Cytotoxic T cells

Explanation:

Perforin is the cytosolic protein and upon degranulation forms pores in the target cell. Perforin protein helps in the transport of water and ions.

Perforin is present in the granules of cytotoxic T cells. These cells have the ability to kill virus infected cells and cancer cells. Cytotoxic T cells bind with the class 1 MHC molecules. These cells are also known as CD8+ T cells.

Thus, the correct answer is option (A).

Hox genes a. appear to function in similar ways across diverse groups of organisms. b. control the development of language in humans. c. control which amino acids get plugged into polypeptide chains. d. function only in fruit flies.

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is A.

Explanation:

Here is the complete sentence: Hox genes APPEAR TO FUNCTION IN SIMILAR WAYS ACROSS DIVERSE GROUP OF ORGANISMS.

Hox genes refer to a group of transcription factor genes that control and regulate animals development. Hox genes function by specifying segment identity, that is, they are responsible for determining the parts of the embryo in which different structures will form. For instance, the genes determines the part of the embryo that will develop into head, legs, stomach, etc.

Hox genes are usually clustered together in a particular spot on the chromosomes and they are present in different forms of animals; the function of hox genes in these animals are similar.

True or False: Sufficient intakes of calcium rich foods may increase the risk of colon cancer.

Answers

Answer:

The affirmation that sufficient intakes of calcium-rich foods may increase the risk of colon cancer, is false.

Explanation:

According to several studies carried out both in the U.S and other countries, although with not a significant evidence, it was seen that on the contrary, people whose diets had a consumption of calcium in their diet, above 700 mg, more or less depending on the study being researched, the possibility of suffering of colon cancer, particularly of the distal parts, was much less than in those with a low dietary consumption of this mineral. Most of the studies that have been published, like the Nurses´ Health Study, among others, show that a good level of consumption of calcium, within the appropriate limits set for daily dietary intake, may lower the risk of suffering colon cancer in people.

Compact bone has columns of tissue called?

Answers

Answer:

Haversian system or Osteon

Explanation:

The cylindrical shaped units present in compact bones are called Haversian systems. Also called as osteon, each Haversian system has a matrix in the form of thin layers. These thin layers of the matrix are called lamellae and are arranged in concentric layers called central canals. The space between the lamellae of each osteon is occupied by osteocytes.

The area monitored by a single receptor is called
a. Neural area
b. Receptor field
c. Receptive field
d. Receptor specificity
e. Receptor modality

Answers

I think the answer is C.

The organ that produces a secretion that contains fructose, prostaglandin and fibrinogenm is the ____?
A) seminal gland (seminal vesicle)
B) preputial gland
C) corpus cavernosum
D) bulbourethral gland
E) prostate gland

Answers

The seminal gland (seminal vesicle) is responsible for producing a secretion that includes fructose, prostaglandin, and fibrinogen, which are essential for sperm viability and fertilization, option A is correct.

The organ that produces a secretion containing fructose, prostaglandin, and fibrinogen is the seminal gland (seminal vesicle). These components are crucial for the viability and motility of sperm. Fructose provides energy for sperm, prostaglandins help in sperm acclimatization to the female reproductive tract, and fibrinogen contributes to the semen's clotting in the female reproductive tract after ejaculation, which is important for successful fertilization.

When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases
A) more urine is produced
B) less urine is produced
C) the osmolarity of the urine decreases
D) both A and C
E) both B and C

Answers

Answer:

(A). more urine is produced.

Explanation:

ADH (antidiuretic hormone), also known as vasopressin is a peptide hormone, which is synthezied in hypothalamus and is secreted by posterior pituitary gland.  

ADH plays role in osmoregulation as it is responsible for water retention by decreasing urine output when there is low level of water in body.

As ADH is responsible for decreased urine formation, more urine will be produced due to decrease in ADH that would lead to an increase osmolarity of urine.  

Thus, the correct answer is option (A).

Final answer:

ADH regulates the body's water balance. When ADH levels decrease, more urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases. Thus, the correct answer is both A and C.

Explanation:

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, is a hormone that plays a significant role in controlling the body's water balance. When the level of ADH decreases, the kidneys are less stimulated to reabsorb water, resulting in more urine being produced (option A) and the osmolarity of the urine decreases (option C). Thus the correct answer would be option D: both A and C. ADH's prime function is to conserve the fluid volume of your body by reducing the amount of water passed out in the urine.

Learn more about ADH hormone effect here:

https://brainly.com/question/33733332

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The fate of amino acids after they enter body cells by active transport is that they are
A) Quickly synthesized into glucose
B) Quickly synthesized by liver enzymes and carried to the blood stream
C) Almost immediately synthesized into proteins
D) Oxidized

Answers

C ᴀʟᴍᴏsᴛ ɪᴍᴍᴇᴅɪᴀᴛᴇʟʏ

True or False. An obstruction of the renal artery would cut the blood supply to the liver.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

False. Renal refers to the kidneys not the liver. But the statement is 1/2 correct. An artery carries blood from the heart to an organ. So that much is correct.

Muscle that forms floor of thoracic cavity
a. Diaphragm
b. Pectoralis major

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

It is the A the Diaphragm

A it's correct (diaghragm)


7. In a free market economy, decisions are made according to the laws of
O supply and demand
O local government
O national government
O wealthy citizens​

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

In its best form, a free market economy will determine a price by supply and demand.

Local governments can't determine anything unless it is a local commodity or product which will not be used anywhere else. Even then, the government is interfering with supply and demand.

National government -- same answer as local government. Any government interference does not result in a free market economy.

There are not enough wealthy citizens around to influence many markets.

Your best answer is A

Free market decisions are made according to the laws of supply and demand.

True or False. Before you attempt to expose muscles of the abdomen, you should clear away excess connective tissue with your fingers and probe. This is done so we can see the muscles more clearly.

Answers

Hope this helped.

Answer: Im not completely sure but I believe that is true as they do soemthing similiar in other types of surgeries.

Recombinant DNA ________. is the merging of DNA from unrelated organisms to create new genetic varieties is assembled in the lab from mononucleotides was part of the Green Revolution of the 1960s is pollination of one plant by another of the same species is cross-pollination of one plant by a different species

Answers

Answer:

Is the merging of DNA from unrelated organisms to create new genetic varieties

Explanation:

Recombinant DNA creates transgenic organisms. Foreign DNA from another species can be incorporated in the genome of another species through several ways such as electroporation and transduction. The transgenic organism will, therefore, exhibit traits coded for by the foreign genetic material. This form of biotechnology/genetic engineering is used to modify characteristics of an organism so it exhibits desired traits.

A microbe is discovered growing beside a deep sea thermal vent near the Galapagos Islands. When researchers bring a sample up to the surface and try to grow it in a lab at room temperature in a normal incubator, they are unsuccessful. Why? A. A barophilic organism might not grow since the pressure is not the same at sea-level as it is on the ocean floor B. Salt concentrations might be different in the media the researchers are attempting to use and the salt water the microbe is used to living in, causing osmotic pressure differences that the microbe cannot tolerate. C. All of the above D. It is possible the microbe is a strict anaerobe and is poisoned by the air (oxygen) in the lab E. It may be a psychrophile - enzymes in the cells are probably outside of their normal operating range at room temperature and therefore nonfunctional

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is ALL OF THE ABOVE.

Explanation:

Microbes that live in deep sea thermal vents have characteristics that are quite different from those of microbes that are found in other places. Microbes that live in deep sea thermal vent do not need sunlight and oxygen to survive. Thermal vent microbes lives in salty environments, whose pressure is different from the pressure that is found on the earth surface. Also, the temperature, at which these micro organisms can survive is very high compare to those of microbes that are found at other locations.

Based on these characteristics, a microbe that is found growing near a deep sea thermal vent can not survive at normal room temperature. For the micro organism to grow, the researchers has to duplicate the  extreme environmental conditions that are found in the thermal vent, which is the original habitat of the microorganism.

The microbe from the deep sea thermal vent has specialized requirements and may not grow in standard lab conditions due to differences in pressure, salt concentration, oxygen levels, or temperature, which all align with answer C, "All of the above."

Researchers may be unsuccessful at growing the recently discovered microbe from the deep sea thermal vent near the Galapagos Islands due to a variety of specialized conditions that these microorganisms require. Answer C, "All of the above," is correct because there are several factors affecting the growth of these microbes in a lab setting at surface pressure and temperature. These microbes could be barophilic organisms that cannot survive without the high pressure present at the bottom of the ocean, or they may be unable to tolerate the osmotic pressure differences caused by dissimilar salt concentrations in the lab media. Additionally, being strict anaerobes, they could be poisoned by the oxygen in the lab or they might be psychrophiles whose enzymes operate outside their normal range at room temperature. These are all potential reasons why these extremophile bacteria fail to grow under typical lab conditions.

PCR amplification of DNA is a useful technique when

there is limited sample.

there is abundant sample.

there is no other evidence.

contamination of evidence occurred.

dental evidence is excluded.

Answers

Answer: there is limited sample.

Explanation:

Polymerase chain reaction is a technique that is used for amplifying samples of DNA in vitro. This technique was discovered by Kary Mullis. It can be useful for producing multiple copies of DNA available in very low amounts. It can amplify genomic DNA 50- 250 ng and 1-10 pg for viral or plasmid DNA.

The PCR process involves 3 steps which take place within apparatus thermal cycler. The three steps are:

1. Denaturation: The DNA sample is heated at 94 degree celsius. In this the double stranded DNA is converted into individual single strands.

2. Annealing: The next step involves the attachment of each single stranded DNA with a primer. This step takes place at 60 degree celsius.

3. Extension: In this under the influnece of enzyme Taq polymerase, single nucleotide bases are added to the primers. This step takes place at 72 degree celsius. Entire complentary strand build up this way by each single strand. And a new copy of double stranded DNA is produced from each single strand.

Thin filaments are composed of three proteins. Which one is the longest?
a. Myosin
b. tropomyocin
c. troponin

Answers

Answer:

b. tropomyocin

Explanation:

The thin filament is made up of three proteins mainly. These are actin, troponin, and tropomyosin.  

Among these three proteins of the thin filament, actin and troponin are globular proteins. The globular proteins have a spherical shape and are shorter in length.  

On the other hand, tropomyosin is a rod-shaped protein. Each molecule of tropomyosin has around 284 amino acids. The protein is helix in nature and has a filamentous structure. Hence, among the three proteins of the thin filament, tropomyosin is the longest one. One molecule of tropomyosin can cover the seven molecules of actin proteins.  

What is produced from pyruvic acid when O2 levels are low
A. Acetyl coenzyme A
B. ATP
C. Glucose-6-phosphate
D. Lactic acid
E. Pyruvic acid

Answers

Answer:

pyruvic acid converts into lactic acid when there is a lack of oxygen

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