Which of these waves CANNOT travel through the vacuum of space?

Answer:

Orange juice has a lower viscosity than chocolate syrup.

Explanation:

Viscosity is the measure we use to determine essentially how thick a fluid is. So, a liquid that has a high viscosity, is thicker than a liquid that has a lower viscosity. Viscosity is also benchmarked against that of water since water is considered to he the least viscous fluid. Therefore, the more "watery" the substance, the less viscous it is.

Its easy to imagine how orange juice would have a lower viscosity. When we imagine, we think about how quickly both orange juice and chocolate syrup would flow if they both were to be spilled. Basically, we would be looking at their "flow rate" where orange juice would wash away quickly while chocolate syrup would tend to stick to the surface and be slower. But lets also look why this happens. This happens because of the size of the particles. Orange juice is diluted and has a lot of water molecules which are small and can move very quickly. Chocolate syrup on the other hand is comprised of molecules that are larger and heavier and therefore take a longer time to move. So a liquid with lower viscosity is "less resistant to flow".

Answer:

The person with locked legs will experience greater impact force.

Explanation:

Let the two persons be of nearly equal mass (say m)

The final velocity of an object (person) dropped from a height H (here 2 meters) is given by,

[tex]v=\sqrt{2gH}[/tex]

([tex]g[/tex] = acceleration due to gravity)

which can be derived from Newton's equation of motion,

[tex]v^2=u^2+2aS[/tex]

Now, the time taken (say [tex]t[/tex] ) for the momentum ( [tex]mv[/tex] ) to change to zero will be more in the case of the person who bends his legs on impact than who keeps his legs locked.

We know that,

[tex]Force=\frac{\Delta(mv)}{t}[/tex]

Naturally, the person who bends his legs will experience lesser force since [tex]t[/tex] is larger.

Answer:

i think the answer is 12 ohms

plz mark me as brainliest :)

Answer:

12 ohms

Explanation:

The five 60 Ohms resistance can be represented as follows:

R1 = 60 Ohms

R2 = 60 Ohms

R3= 60 Ohms

R4 = 60 Ohms

R5 = 60 Ohms

Rt =?

Since they are in parallel connections, the equivalent resistance (Rt) can be calculated as follows :

1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + 1/R4 + 1/R5

1/Rt = 1/60 + 1/60 + 1/60 + 1/60 + 1/60

1/Rt = ( 1+1+1+1+1)/60

1/Rt = 5/60

1/Rt = 1/12

Cross multiply to express in linear form

Rt = 12 ohms

Therefore the equivalent resistance is 12ohms

Answer: see the explanation

Explanation:

The total amount of energy contained in an object is called its energy. Energy can exist in different forms, such as kinetic energy (energy of motion), potential energy (stored energy), thermal energy (heat), chemical energy (energy stored in chemical bonds), and many others.

To calculate the total energy of an object, you need to consider the different forms of energy it possesses. For example, if an object is moving, it has kinetic energy, which depends on its mass and velocity. The equation to calculate kinetic energy is KE = 0.5 * mass * velocity^2, where KE represents kinetic energy, mass is the object's mass, and velocity is its speed.

If an object is at a certain height above the ground, it has gravitational potential energy. The equation for gravitational potential energy is PE = mass * gravity * height, where PE represents potential energy, mass is the object's mass, gravity is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s^2 on Earth), and height is the object's height above a reference point.

Additionally, an object can have other forms of energy, such as thermal energy due to its temperature, chemical energy stored in its chemical bonds, or electrical energy if it has an electric charge.

It's important to note that the total energy of an object is the sum of all the different forms of energy it possesses. Each form of energy can be converted into another form, but the total energy remains constant, as stated by the law of conservation of energy.

In summary, the total amount of energy contained in an object is the sum of its different forms of energy, such as kinetic energy, potential energy, thermal energy, chemical energy, and others. To calculate the total energy, you need to consider the specific forms of energy present and use the appropriate equations. The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.

can u tell in a very easy where a small child can also understand

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AI-generated answer

The total amount of energy in an object is all the different kinds of energy that it has. Energy is what makes things happen and allows them to do work. It can come in different forms, like when you're running and have energy to move, or when you have a ball that can bounce and roll.

Imagine you have a toy car that you wind up. When you wind it up, you're putting energy into it. That energy gets stored inside the car. When you let go of the car, it starts moving and uses up that stored energy. This is an example of kinetic energy, which is the energy of motion.

Another kind of energy is potential energy. Let's say you have a ball on top of a hill. The ball has potential energy because it can roll down the hill. When you let the ball go, it starts rolling and its potential energy turns into kinetic energy as it moves.

Objects can also have thermal energy, which is heat energy. When you touch something hot, like a stove, you feel the thermal energy transferring to your hand.

Some objects have chemical energy stored inside them. For example, when you eat food, your body breaks it down and turns it into energy that you can use.

These are just a few examples of the different forms of energy. The total energy of an object is the sum of all the different kinds of energy it has. Energy can change from one form to another, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

So, to put it simply, the total energy of an object is all the different types of energy it has, like the energy of motion, heat, stored energy, and more

Mechanical advantage of the ramp is 5

Explanation:

The Mechanical Advantage (MA) of a simple machine represents the factor of multiplication of the input force applied in the machine; it represents the mechanical advantage of the machine taking into account the energy losses due to internal frictional forces.

It is given by

[tex]MA=\frac{Load}{Effort}[/tex]

where

Load is the force in output, which is the weight of the object moved

Effort is the input force applied to move the object

For the ramp in this problem, we have:

Load = 100 N

Effort = 20 N

Therefore, the mechanical advantage is

[tex]MA=\frac{100}{20}=5[/tex]

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Displacement and instantaneous:

Displacement is the distance vector that the object has displaced from its initial position. It is calculated from the starting point to the endpoint in the journey of the object in question. The displacement can be understood as the straight line joining the points mentioned above. Keep in mind that the actual path taken by the object is not related to the displacement. The exact route is the average distance.

Velocity is the speed in a particular direction. If I say the speed of the car was 10mph than it would be speed, but if I say the speed was 10mph in the right direction than it would be velocity. So, the Directional speed is velocity. Velocity is a vector quantity and follows the rules of vector algebra and cannot be added or subtracted. The notation of velocity is a v with an arrow on the top. The arrow just tells that the quantity in question is a vector.

ANSWER :

(A) AT RIGHT ANGLES TO THE DIRECTION THE WAVE TRAVELS.

EXPLANATION :

TRANSVERSE WAVES IS THAT IN WHICH THE PARTICLES VIBRATE WITH AN UP-AND-DOWN MOTION. THE PARTICLES IN A TRANSVERSE WAVE MOVE ACROSS OR PERPENDICULAR TO THE DIRECTION THAT THE WAVE IS TRAVELING OR AT RIGHT ANGLES TO THE DIRECTION THE WAVE TRAVELS.

Answer:

Explanation:

The total energy at all times is equal to the sum of kinetic and potential energy.

Eu = Ep + Ek

If an object has reached a finite height point and is stationary, then the potential energy is maximum (100 J) and the kinetic energy is equals to zero.

If the same object started to fall before the impact on the ground itself, the kinetic energy is maximum (100 J) and the potential energy is minimum ie zero.

God is with you!!!

Answer:

16. reflected

17. transmitted

18. refracted

Answer:

A is right in my opinion

To calculate the speed of the 0.300 kg mass when it is 0.0600 m from equilibrium on a 26.6 N/m spring, use the conservation of energy principle to find the kinetic energy at that point and then solve for velocity.

The problem involves a 0.300 kg mass attached to a spring with a force constant of 26.6 N/m. The mass is pulled 0.120 m from equilibrium and released. To find the speed of the mass when it is 0.0600 m from equilibrium, we can use the principle of conservation of energy. The total mechanical energy is conserved because we are ignoring any external forces like friction or air resistance.

Initially, when the mass is released from 0.120 m, the spring has some potential energy (due to being stretched) and the kinetic energy is zero since it's released from rest. When the mass is at 0.0600 m from equilibrium, there is a combination of potential energy (due to being displaced from equilibrium) and kinetic energy (since the mass is moving).

The initial potential energy (PEi) stored in the spring can be calculated using the formula PEi = 1/2 * k * x2, where k is the spring constant and x is the initial displacement. The final potential energy (PEf) is calculated similarly, with x being the final displacement of 0.0600 m.

The difference between the initial and final potential energy will give us the kinetic energy at 0.0600 m from equilibrium, since energy is conserved and the difference must have been converted to kinetic energy. The kinetic energy (KE) can be expressed as KE = 1/2 * m * v2, where m is the mass and v is the velocity we want to find.

Here's how you would set up the equations:

The speed of a 0.300 kg mass attached to a 26.6 N/m spring, when it is 0.0600 m from equilibrium, is approximately 0.978 m/s. This was determined using principles of energy conservation. Initial potential energy was converted to kinetic energy to find the speed.

Given a 0.300 kg mass attached to a spring with a force constant (k) of 26.6 N/m, we can determine the speed when the mass is 0.0600 m from equilibrium using energy conservation principles. Initially, the mass is pulled 0.120 m from equilibrium and released.

We start by calculating the total mechanical energy of the system at the maximum displacement (0.120 m):

Potential Energy (PEmax) = 1/2 k xmax²

PEmax = 1/2 x 26.6 N/m x (0.120 m)²

PEmax = 1/2 x 26.6 x 0.0144

PEmax = 0.19152 J

At the position where the mass is 0.0600 m from equilibrium, the potential energy is:

PE = 1/2 k x²

PE = 1/2 x 26.6 N/m x (0.0600 m)²

PE = 1/2 x 26.6 x 0.0036

PE = 0.04788 J

The difference in energy will be converted into kinetic energy (KE):

KE = PEmax - PE

KE = 0.19152 J - 0.04788 J

KE = 0.14364 J

Using the kinetic energy formula (KE = 1/2 mv²), we solve for the speed:

0.14364 J = 1/2 x 0.300 kg * v²

0.14364 = 0.150 x v²

v² = 0.14364 / 0.150

v² = 0.9576

v = √0.9576

v ≈ 0.978 m/s

Thus, the speed of the mass when it is 0.0600 m from equilibrium is approximately 0.978 m/s.

Answer:

Force

Explanation:

W= F * d

Work is defined in physics as the product of force and an object's displacement. It is expressed mathematically as Work = Force x Distance. The direction of the force and displacement also affect whether the work done is considered positive or negative.

In physics, work is defined as the product of force and an object's displacement. It is represented mathematically as Work = Force x Distance. In this equation, Force is the amount of effort exerted on an object, and Distance or displacement is the amount of space over which the force is applied. If the force and the displacement are in the same direction, the work done is positive.

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Paul the penguin's velocity is 3.33[tex]ms^{-1}[/tex].

Explanation:

Paul glided (displaced) 40 meters towards north.

The time he taken to displace is 12 seconds.

∴displacement d= 40m.

time t= 12s.

The speed of a body in a certain direction is the measure of Velocity.

The velocity of the an moving object is given by ratio of the rate of change in the distance by the time taken.

⇒Velocity v= [tex]\frac{displacement}{time}[/tex].

=[tex]\frac{40}{12}[/tex].

=3.33 [tex]ms{-1}[/tex].

Thus the velocity of the Paul the penguin glided on ice is 3.33 [tex]ms{-1}[/tex].

Answer:

the Mass of 1 kg object is same in Earth & Moon.

Explanation:

Weight, on the otherhand does change with location depends on the gravity. so the answer is : Weight of one kilo on the surface of moon is 1.622 N. A body is taken from the center of the Earth to the Moon.

The weight on moon will be 166.66 grams.

We have a object on earth.

We have to identify its weight on moon.

Weight is a force acting on the body directed towards the center of earth and is the product of mass and acceleration due to gravity.

W = mg

According to the question -

Mass on earth = 1 Kg = 1000 grams

Now, the weight on moon is 1/6 of that of weight on earth. Therefore -

W(M) = [tex]$\frac{1}{6}[/tex] W(E)

Therefore -

W(M) =  [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] x 1000 = 166.66 grams

Hence, the weight on moon will be 166.66 grams.

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In this area the convection is taking place inside the water which is inside the utensils.

Explanation:

While pushing a refrigerator up a ramp, there would be less friction to overcome if you used a dolly because of the wheels. So the efficiency of the ramp would be greater with the use of the dolly.

Explanation:

The ramp provides for a wedge setup, so when the refrigerator is being pushed up the ramp, the friction on the ramp would equally distributed to the refrigerator when pushed wholly as the friction applied is a product of the coefficient of friction with the Normal reaction of the weight in contact with the surface.

Therefore, when the dolly is used, the surface in contact becomes divided and thus, the friction applied would become less due to though coefficient of friction remains the same, the normal reaction of the weight becomes small and so does the applied friction. Therefore, efficiency of the ramp increases as the friction is less and work done is more.

Yo sup??

To solve this question we must learn that

pH=-log([H+])

in the question its given that

[H+]=10^(-8)

therefore

pH=-log(10^(-8))

=-(-8)log10

=8

Since pH>7 therefore its basic

Hence the correct answer is option A ie

A.8, basic

Hope this helps.

Answer: 8 basic

Explanation:

Answer:

The force  a person applies to a simple machine

Explanation:

An input force is that variable that enters a simple machine to perform a particular job by multiplying the value of that input force.

As a typical example we can find a lever where a person introduces an input force, this force multiplies according to the mechanical advantage of the lever resulting in the work of a simple machine with more work.

Answer:

The force a simple machine applies to an system

Explanation:

Answer:

B-400 mL

Explanation:

Volume = Mass divided by density

360 / 0.9 = 400

Answer: 2.17 s

Explanation:

The described situation is related to projectile motion (also known as parabolic motion). So, this kind of motion has a vertical component and a horizontal component; however, in this case we will only need the equation related to the horizontal displacement [tex]x[/tex]:

[tex]x=V_{o}cos \theta t[/tex]

Where:

[tex]x=45 m[/tex] is the arrow's horizontal displacement

[tex]V_{o}=800 m/s[/tex] is the arrow's initial velocity

[tex]\theta=75\°[/tex] is the angle

[tex]t[/tex] is the time the arrow is in the air

Isolating [tex]t[/tex]:

[tex]t=\frac{x}{V_{o}cos \theta}[/tex]

Solving with the given data:

[tex]t=\frac{45 m}{800 m/s cos(75\°)}[/tex]

[tex]t=2.17 s[/tex] This is the time the arrow is in the air

Answer:

R2=10ohm

Explanation:

In this combination

R2 and R3 are in series combination where R1 is in parallel combination with them hence

R2+R3=R`

And

1/R`+1/R1=1/Req

1/R`=1/Req-1/R1

1/R`=1/4-1/6

=1/12

R`=12ohm

Also

R2+R3=R`

R2=R`-R3

R2=12-2

R2=10ohm

Answer:

V=21V

Explanation:

In series combination current is same

I=2.6A

R2=8ohm

V2=2.6×8

V2=20.8

V2=21V

Answer:

Explanation:

21 v

Answer:

B

Explanation:

this is because the formula for calculating 1 half of the mass multiplied by the velocity squared

Answer:

b

Explanation:

- Decreasing one of the masses to 1/2 of its original value

- Increasing the distance by a factor of [tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

Explanation:

There are no options provided, however we can still answer the question.

In fact, the magnitude of the gravitational force between two objects is given by  the equation:

[tex]F=G\frac{m_1 m_2}{r^2}[/tex]

where

[tex]G=6.67\cdot 10^{-11} m^3 kg^{-1}s^{-2}[/tex] is the gravitational constant

m1, m2 are the masses of the two objects

r is the separation between them

We notice that:

Therefore, in order to reduce the gravitational attraction by one half, we can do one of the following changes:

- Decreasing one of the masses to 1/2 of its original value: for example, if [tex]m_1'=\frac{1}{2}m_1[/tex], the gravitational force becomes

[tex]F'=G\frac{m_1' m_2}{r^2}=G\frac{\frac{1}{2}m_1m_2}{r^2}=\frac{1}{2}(G\frac{m_1m_2}{r^2})=\frac{1}{2}F[/tex]

- Increasing the distance by a factor of [tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]: in fact, if [tex]r'=\sqrt{2}r[/tex], the gravitational force becomes

[tex]F'=G\frac{m_1 m_2}{r'^2}=G\frac{m_1m_2}{(\sqrt{2}r)^2}=\frac{1}{2}(G\frac{m_1m_2}{r^2})=\frac{1}{2}F[/tex]

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a) 6.4 m/s

b) 2.1 m

c) [tex]61.6^{\circ}[/tex]

d) 14.0 N

e) 4.6 m/s

f) 37.9 N

Explanation:

a)

Since the system is isolated (no external forces on it), the total momentum of the system is conserved, so we can write:

[tex]p_i = p_f\\m_1 u_1 = m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2[/tex]

where:

[tex]m_1 = 2 kg[/tex] is the mass of the 1st sphere

[tex]m_2 = 3kg[/tex] is the mass of the 2nd sphere

[tex]u_1 = 8 m/s[/tex] is the initial velocity of the 1st sphere

[tex]v_1[/tex] is the final velocity of the 1st sphere

[tex]v_2[/tex] is the final velocity of the 2nd sphere

Since the collision is elastic, the total kinetic energy is also conserved:

[tex]E_i=E_k\\\frac{1}{2}m_1 u_1^2 = \frac{1}{2}m_1 v_1^2 + \frac{1}{2}m_2 v_2^2[/tex]

Combining the two equations together, we can find the final velocity of the 2nd sphere:

[tex]v_2=\frac{2m_1}{m_1+m_2}u_1=\frac{2(2)}{2+3}(8)=6.4 m/s[/tex]

b)

Now we analyze the 2nd sphere from the moment it starts its motion till the moment it reaches the maximum height.

Since its total mechanical energy is conserved, its initial kinetic energy is entirely converted into gravitational potential energy at the highest point.

So we can write:

[tex]KE_i = PE_f[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgh[/tex]

where

m = 3 kg is the mass of the sphere

v = 6.4 m/s is the initial speed of the sphere

[tex]g=9.8 m/s^2[/tex] is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the maximum height reached

Solving for h, we find

[tex]h=\frac{v^2}{2g}=\frac{(6.4)^2}{2(9.8)}=2.1 m[/tex]

c)

Here the 2nd sphere is tied to a rope of length

L = 4 m

We know that the maximum height reached by the sphere in its motion is

h = 2.1 m

Calling [tex]\theta[/tex] the angle that the rope makes with the vertical, we can write

[tex]h = L-Lcos \theta[/tex]

Which can be rewritten as

[tex]h=L(1-cos \theta)[/tex]

Solving for [tex]\theta[/tex], we can find the angle between the rope and the vertical:

[tex]cos \theta = 1-\frac{h}{L}=1-\frac{2.1}{4}=0.475\\\theta=cos^{-1}(0.475)=61.6^{\circ}[/tex]

d)

The motion of the sphere is part of a circular motion. The forces acting along the centripetal direction are:

- The tension in the rope, T, inward

- The component of the weight along the radial direction, [tex]mg cos \theta[/tex], outward

Their resultant must be equal to the centripetal force, so we can write:

[tex]T-mg cos \theta = m\frac{v^2}{r}[/tex]

where r = L (the radius of the circle is the length of the rope).

However, when the sphere is at the highest point, it is at rest, so

v = 0

Therefore we have

[tex]T-mg cos \theta=0[/tex]

So we can find the tension:

[tex]T=mg cos \theta=(3)(9.8)(cos 61.6^{\circ})=14.0 N[/tex]

e)

We can solve this part by applying again the law of conservation of energy.

In fact, when the sphere is at a height of h = 1 m, it has both kinetic and potential energy. So we can write:

[tex]KE_i = KE_f + PE_f\\\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv'^2 + mgh'[/tex]

where:

[tex]KE_i[/tex] is the initial kinetic energy

[tex]KE_f[/tex] is the kinetic energy at 1 m

[tex]PE_f[/tex] is the final potential energy

v = 6.4 m/s is the speed at the bottom

v' is the speed at a height of 1 m

h' = 1 m is the height

m = 3 kg is the mass of the sphere

And solving for v', we find:

[tex]v'=\sqrt{v^2-2gh'}=\sqrt{6.4^2-2(9.8)(1)}=4.6 m/s[/tex]

f)

Again, since the sphere is in circular motion, the equation of the forces along the radial direction is

[tex]T-mg cos \theta = m\frac{v^2}{r}[/tex]

where

T is the tension in the string

[tex]mg cos \theta[/tex] is the component of the weight in the radial direction

[tex]m\frac{v^2}{r}[/tex] is the centripetal force

In this situation we have

v = 4.6 m/s is the speed of the sphere

[tex]cos \theta[/tex] can be rewritten as (see part c)

[tex]cos \theta = 1-\frac{h'}{L}[/tex]

where in this case,

h' = 1 m

L = 4 m

And [tex]r=L=4 m[/tex] is the radius of the circle

Substituting and solving for T, we find:

[tex]T=mg cos \theta + m\frac{v^2}{r}=mg(1-\frac{h'}{L})+m\frac{v^2}{L}=\\=(3)(9.8)(1-\frac{1}{4})+(3)\frac{4.6^2}{4}=37.9 N[/tex]

Answer: 4.74 mm

Explanation:

We can solve this problem with the following equation:

[tex]Y=\frac{stress}{strain}[/tex] (1)

Where:

[tex]Y=1.8(10)^{10} Pa[/tex] is the Young modulus for femur

[tex]stress=\frac{F}{A}=1.58(10)^{8} Pa[/tex] is the stress (force [tex]F[/tex] applied per unit of transversal area [tex]A[/tex]) on the femur

[tex]strain=\frac{\Delta l}{l_{o}}[/tex]

Being:

[tex]\Delta l[/tex] the compression the femur can withstand before breaking

[tex]l_{o}=0.54 m[/tex] is the length of the femur without compression

Writing the data in equation (1):

[tex]Y=\frac{\frac{F}{A}}{\frac{\Delta l}{l_{o}}}[/tex] (2)

[tex]1.8(10)^{10} Pa=\frac{1.58(10)^{8} Pa}{\frac{\Delta l}{0.54 m}}[/tex] (3)

Isolating [tex]\Delta l[/tex]:

[tex]\Delta l=\frac{(1.58(10)^{8} Pa)(0.54 m)}{1.8(10)^{10} Pa}[/tex] (4)

[tex]\Delta l=0.00474 m[/tex] (5) This is the compression in meters

Converting this result to millimeters:

[tex]\Delta l=0.00474 m \frac{1000 mm}{1 m}=4.74 mm[/tex]

Answer:

2 seconds

Explanation:

The frequency of a wave is related to its wavelength and  speed by the equation

[tex]f=\frac{v}{\lambda}[/tex]

where

f is the frequency

v is the speed of the wave

[tex]\lambda[/tex] is the wavelength

For the wave in this problem,

v = 2 m/s

[tex]\lambda=8 m[/tex]

So the frequency is

[tex]f=\frac{2}{8}=0.25 Hz[/tex]

The period of a wave is equal to the reciprocal of the frequency, so for this wave:

[tex]T=\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{0.25}=4 s[/tex]

This means that the wave takes 4 seconds to complete one full cycle.

Therefore, the time taken for the wave to go from a point with displacement +A to a point with displacement -A is half the period, therefore for this wave:

[tex]t=\frac{T}{2}=\frac{4}{2}=2 s[/tex]

The time taken by the wave to travel the vertical  displacement from the point on the rope to -A is 2 seconds

Given to us:

wavelength λ = 8 m,

Velocity v = 2 m/s,

The frequency of a wave is given by:

[tex]frequency=\dfrac{Velocity}{wavelength}\\f=\dfrac{V}{\lambda}\\\\f=\dfrac{2}{8}\\\\f= 0.25\ \rm Hz[/tex]

Therefore, the frequency of the wave is 0.25 Hz.

The period of a wave is equal to the reciprocal of the frequency,

[tex]{\rm period\ of\ time}(T),\\T=\dfrac{1}{f}\\T=\dfrac{1}{0.25}\\\\T=4\ sec[/tex]

Therefore, It takes 4 seconds to complete one full cycle.

Hence, the time taken by the wave to travel the vertical  displacement from the point on the rope to -A is 2 seconds as its is the half distance which is needed to be traveled by the wave.  

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Answer:

4.4 m

Explanation:

Given:

v = 0 m/s

a = -9.8 m/s²

t = 2.0 s

Find: Δy

Δy = vt − ½ at²

Δy = 0 − ½ (-9.8) (2.0)²

Δy = 4.4 m